Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
True or False:
Temperature increases due to global climate change have been greatest closest to the poles.
A
T
2
Q
True or False:
Under the biological species concept, the gap between species is maintained by reproductive isolation.
A
T
3
Q
True or False:
Once carbon enters a plant, it can exit the plant as CO2.
A
T
4
Q
True or False:
Each island in the Galápagos chain has one and only one isolated, unique species of Darwin’s finch.
A
F
5
Q
True or False:
Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism’s fitness.
A
F
6
Q
True or False:
Natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.
A
T
7
Q
True or False:
The main abiotic reservoir for phosphorus is in the atmosphere.
A
F
8
Q
True or False:
A biological community includes all the populations of different species.
A
T
9
Q
True or False:
Blond mice are less vulnerable to predation in mainland habits than in beach habitats.
A
F
10
Q
True or False:
Perturbations in the phosphorus and nitrogen cycles can be harmful for aquatic ecosystems.
A
T
11
Q
True or False:
Models can prove human involvement in climate change because of consistent changes observed over the last 50 years.
A
F
12
Q
True or False:
Unlike other primates, human populations are parasitized by three lousy louse species.
A
T
13
Q
True or False:
In a food chain or a food web, an eagle is likely to be a primary consumer.
A
F
14
Q
True or False:
If predation by a particular owl species is the major factor controlling the population of rabbits, then an increase in the owl population should cause a fall in the rabbit population.
A
T
15
Q
Which one of the following can create new alleles? A. natural selection B. sexual reproduction C. mutation D. genetic drift
A
c
16
Q
Speciation, or the formation of new species, is
A. a form of microevolution.
B. responsible for the diversity of life.
C. necessary for natural selection and adaptation.
D. an event that has occurred only a few times in the history of the planet.
A
b
17
Q
The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures. This increase is primarily due to ______.
A. CO2 and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth’s
surface
B. CO2 and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of UV radiation from Earth
C. the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere
D. CO2 and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth
A
d
18
Q
Which of the following would be a limiting factor for growth of a population of downy woodpeckers living in the Ozark Mountains of southwestern Missouri?
A. The presence of West Nile Virus in this region, which has been known to kill a wide variety of birds, including downy woodpeckers
B. Limiting insecticide use in the area to control mosquito populations (the food source of
downy woodpeckers)
C. Lack of black rate snakes that feed on young woodpeckers living in this area
D. Introduction of individuals of the same species from other areas
A
a
19
Q
Diane Dodd raised different fruit fly populations on different food sources. She found that after about 40 generations the evolution of reproductive isolation was under way. The mechanism of evolution responsible for this was A. natural selection. B. geneticdrift. C. geneflow. D. mutation.
A
a
20
Q
The production of many types of essential oils by thyme plants causes A. allelopathy B. the“toxicbabysitter”effect C. snails to smell like skunks D. epistasis
A
a
21
Q
Natural selection can be defined as ______.
A. the evolution of a population of organisms
B. a process in which changes in gene frequencies result from evolution
C. the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment
D. a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and
reproduce than individuals with other traits
A
d
22
Q
The total collection of alleles in a population at any one time make up that population's \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. gene pool B. genotype C. heterozygosity D. polymorphic pool
A
a
23
Q
Genetic drift is the result of \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. natural selection B. chance C. a large genepool D. environmental variation
A
b
24
Q
With regard to its rate of growth, a population that is growing logistically
A. grows fastest at intermediate population density
B. grows fastest when density is lowest
C. has a high intrinsic rate of increase
D. grows fastest as it approaches carrying capacity
A
a
25
```
What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?
A. community
B. organism
C. ecosystem
D. population
```
c
26
```
A mule is the offspring of a male donkey (jack) and a female horse (mare) and is sterile. It cannot produce fertile offspring. The mule is an example of
A. a prezygotic barrier.
B. a postzygotic barrier.
C. allopatricspeciation.
D. none of the above.
```
b
27
What can you correctly conclude from the data in this figure?
A. The lynx cycle precedes the hare cycle by 1-2 years.
B. The number of hares is always larger than the number of lynx.
C. The lynx cycle lags behind the hare cycle.
D. hares wear snowshoes they outrun the lynx.
c
28
Given that CO2 is produced by cellular respiration, why does the amount of CO2 in the
atmosphere remain relatively constant? (When answering this question, exclude the impact of human activities on atmospheric CO2.)
A. CO2 is converted in photosynthesis to carbohydrates.
B. CO2 is split apart during photosynthesis.
C. CO2 mostly forms carbonate rocks.
D. CO2 is trapped in dead organisms' bodies.
a
29
A woman struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month's supply of a potent antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better. Should she save the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug?
A. She should save the drug for later, because if she keeps taking it the bacteria will evolve
resistance.
B. She should save the drug for use the next time the illness strikes.
C. She should save the drug because antibiotics are in short supply and she may need it to
defend herself against a bioterrorism incident.
D. She should continue taking the drug until her immune system can completely eliminate
the infection. Otherwise, some bacteria may remain in her system, and they will probably be resistant.
d
30
Ferns require moisture to reproduce. What will happen to a fern population during a prolonged period of drought?
A. To save the species, some of the ferns will acquire the ability to reproduce without water.
B. Thefernswillstartsympatricspeciation.
C. If none of the ferns already have the ability to reproduce without water, the ferns might
go extinct.
D. None of the above.
c
31
```
In the oceans, global warming has
A. decreased the amount of oxygen available
B. benefited corals
C. made the water more basic
D. made the water more acidic
```
d
32
What is one way in which energy flow differs from chemical cycling?
A. Energy flow is unidirectional; chemical elements can be recycled.
B. Energy can enter but cannot leave an ecosystem; chemical elements can leave but cannot
enter an ecosystem.
C. Energy flows from lower to higher trophic levels; chemicals cycle from higher to lower
trophic levels.
D. Energy can both enter and leave an ecosystem; chemical elements always remain within a
single ecosystem.
a
33
According to the logistic growth model, what happens to a population when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?
A. The growth rate remains unchanged.
B. The population begins to decrease in size.
C. The population crashes.
D. The growth rate is zero.
d
34
What do the results above show about the role of predation and camouflage in beach mice?
A. Predation on dark and light models is similar in both habitats.
B. Camouflaged models suffer no predation in both habitats.
C. Predation on camouflaged models is reduced relative to non-camouflaged models in both
habitats
c
35
An ecologist hypothesizes that predation by a particular owl species is the major factor controlling the population of a particular rabbit species. If this is the case, which of the following population effects could be expected in this rabbit-owl pair?
A. A fall in the owl population should cause a fall in the rabbit population.
B. A fall in the rabbit population should cause an increase in the owl population.
C. An increase in the incidence of disease in the rabbit population should not change the owl
population.
D. An increase in the owl population should cause a fall in the rabbit population.
d
36
```
The rate at which an ecosystem's producers convert solar energy to chemical energy stored in biomass is called ______.
A. energy flow
B. chemicalcycle
C. primary productivity
D. trophic structure
```
c
37
```
Frequently, a group of related species will each have a unique courtship ritual that must be performed correctly for both partners to be willing to mate. Such a ritual constitutes a ________ ________ reproductive barrier.
A. mechanical; postzygotic
B. behavioral;prezygotic
C. temporal;prezygotic
D. gametic; postzygotic
```
b
38
Which of the following represents a pair of homologous structures?
A. the wing of a bat and the scales of a fish
B. the wing of a bat and the flipper of a whale
C. the antennae of an insect and the eyes of a bird
D. the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly
b
39
```
What does evolutionary fitness measure?
A. physical health
B. longevity
C. relative reproductive success
D. population size
```
c
40
Which of the following are the main ideas that Darwin advanced in his works?
A. Species change over time.
B. Living species have arisen from earlier life forms.
C. Humans arose by a different mechanism than did other species.
D. The earth is approximately 6000 years old and unchanging
E. Both a and b
e
41
Select the most correct statement about mutations.
A. Mutations are deleterious to the mutant individual.
B. Mutations arise due to need in individuals that are poorly adapted to their environment.
C. Mutations arise by chance due to random changes in nucleotide sequences.
D. Mutations arise due to natural selection
E. Mutations are beneficial to the mutant individual.
c
42
```
A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ______.
A. a prezygotic barrier
B. reduced hybrid viability
C. zygotemortality
D. a postzygotic barrier
```
a
43
```
What kind of interaction do ants and acacia plants have with each other?
A. Herbivory
B. Parasitism
C. mutualism
D. competition
```
c
44
```
Average Birth Weight for lowlanders such as Europeans and the Han:
A. Is not affected by altitude
B. Declines with altitude
C. Rises with Altitude
D. There is not enough information
```
b
45
Some butterflies can ingest toxic chemicals from the milkweed plants they feed on and then can store those chemicals in their body. Because toxins stored in the butterflies are toxic to birds, the birds avoid eating the butterflies. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation?
A. Butterflies that stored the chemicals were never eaten by predators, so those butterflies survived.
B. Butterflies developed a mutation that led them to be able to store the chemical because they needed to avoid being eaten.
C. Milkweed plants wanted the butterflies to ingest the chemical so they would no longer feed on the plant, but the butterflies fooled the milkweed by storing the toxic chemicals.
D. Any butterfly allele that allowed milkweed toxin storage would be likely to persist because butterflies that had it were more likely to survive.
d
46
Which of the following is not an observed effect of global warming on organisms?
A. Some species of birds and frogs now begin their breeding seasons later in the year.
B. Corals "bleach" when increased water temperatures cause them to expel their symbiotic
algae.
C. Many butterfly populations have shifted their ranges to the north.
D. Many polar bears show signs of starvation as their hunting grounds melt away.
a
47
Which of the following statements is correct as the ultimate cause for Gulf Coast Beach mice having blond fur?
A. These mice had a gene mutation that produced a light pigment deposited in their fur.
B. Natural selection changed the genes resulting in blond fur.
C. In order to be camouflaged in the beach habitat a gene mutated to produce blond fur.
D. Blond beach mice are camouflaged and less vulnerable to predation in a beach
habitat.
E. Answers A and C.
d
48
Why do we conclude that human head and pubic lice did not diverge
on a hominin?
A. Human head and pubic lice lineages diverged well before hominins evolved ~6 million years ago.
B. Humans had body hair well after 12 million years ago.
C. The fossil record does not show pubic lice on people that long ago.
D. Pubic lice did not appear until about 100,000 years ago when humans started wearing
clothes.
a
49
```
Which of the following is not a requirement of natural selection?
A. differential reproductive success
B. overproduction of offspring
C. geneticvariation
D. catastrophic events
```
d
50
True or False:
| Mitosis takes place in your gametes, whereas meiosis takes place in your somatic cells.
f
51
True or False:
| Introns are noncoding DNA sequences
t
52
True or False:
| An X chromosome is an autosome.
f
53
True or False:
| Alleles are described as alternate versions of a gene.
t
54
True or False:
| Sister chromatids are joined at the telomere.
f
55
True or False:
| Differentiation of the zygote into a multicellular organism results from selective gene expression.
t
56
True or False:
| Skin cells contain information about skin color but not about muscle proteins
f
57
True or False:
| Mutations in DNA can lead to new alleles.
t
58
True or False:
| Sources of energy, including ATP, are needed for translation to occur
t
59
True or False:
| Mutagens are usually not carcinogens.
f
60
True or False:
| RNA contains the nitrogenous base thymine instead of uracil, which is only found in DNA
f
61
True or False:
| The process by which the genotype is expressed as phenotype is known as gene expression
t
62
True or False:
| In an operon the promoter acts as an “on and off” switch.
f
63
True or False:
In a molecule of DNA the amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine.
f
64
True or False:
| The phenotype always shows the recessive allele.
f
65
True or False:
| Proto-oncogenes are normal genes with the potential to become oncogenes.
t
66
```
Which of the following cells would likely express the genes that code for hemoglobin?
A. white blood cell
B. nerve cell
C. pancreas cell
D. none of these cells
```
d
67
```
All of the following mechanisms are used to regulate protein production except
A. protein activation.
B. protein breakdown.
C. DNA replication.
D. the breakdown of mRNA.
```
c
68
A woman with type A blood has a child with type O blood. What is the woman’s genotype?
a. IBi
b. IAi
c. Ii
d. IAIA
e. IAIB
b
69
```
sentence is most like a frameshift mutation?
A. The did dog not eat.
B. The dod idn ote at.
C. The did not eat.
D. The dog did dog did not eat.
```
b
70
A young man develops skin cancer that doesn't spread to any other tissues; the mutation responsible for the cancer arose in a single skin cell. If he and his wife (who does not have skin cancer) subsequently have children. Which of the following statements is most correct?
A. All the man’s children will inherit the mutation responsible for skin cancer.
B. All the man’s children will inherit the mutation responsible for skin cancer if the mutation is dominant.
C. Some of the man’s children may inherit the mutation responsible for skin cancer depending on which of his chromosomes they inherit.
D. None of the man’s children will inherit the mutation responsible for skin cancer.
d
71
A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.
A. result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the mutation
B. change the location at which transcription of the next gene begins
C have the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene
D result in a shortened polypeptide chain
d
72
Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells
A become cancerous more easily than other cell types.
B continue to divide throughout their lifetime.
C are permanently in a state of nondivision.
D cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell generations.
c
73
Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy agent?
A a drug that interferes with cellular respiration
B a drug that prevents mitotic spindle from forming
C a drug that prevents crossing over
D a drug that prevents tetrad formation
b
74
Meiosis results in 2^n possible chromosomal combos in humans. How many unique chromosomal combinations are possible for gametes formed by meiosis in humans?
a) 46
b) 2,116
c) 46,604
d) 8,388,608
d
75
```
Cystic fibrosis in humans is caused by mutations in a single gene and is inherited as an autosomal (non-sex-chromosome) recessive trait. A normal couple has two children. The first child has cystic fibrosis, and the second child is unaffected. What is the probability that the second child is a carrier (heterozygous) for the mutation that causes the disease?
A 1/4 or 25%
B 1/2 or 50%
C 2/3 or 67%
D 3/4 or 75% 1 or 100%
```
c
76
Cancer is not usually inherited because
A The chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells
B The causes of cancer are not usually genetic
C People with cancer usually die before reproducing
D The cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to produce gametes
a
77
```
Consider the following sentence, "The dog did not eat." Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a base substitution mutation?
A The dog did not et.
B The dog dog did not eat.
C The did dog not eat.
D The doe did not eat.
```
d
78
How many sex chromosomes are in a human gamete?
One
two
three
Four
a
79
The alleles of a gene are found at ________ chromosomes.
a. the same locus on nonhomologous
b. different loci on homologous
c. different loci on nonhomologous
d. the same locus on homologous
d
80
The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
A chromosomes that exhibit mutations are the source of genetic variation.
B the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance.
C the behavior of chromosomes during mitosis accounts for inheritance patterns.
D humans have 46 chromosomes.
b
81
```
If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, then the corresponding strand would be
A. GCCTAG.
B. GCCAUC.
C. TAACGT.
D. GCCATG.
```
d
82
The "one gene-one polypeptide" theory states that
A. the synthesis of each gene is catalyzed by one specific enzyme.
B. the synthesis of each enzyme is catalyzed by one specific gene.
C. the function of an individual gene is to dictate the production of a specific polypeptide.
D. the function of each polypeptide is to regulate the synthesis of each corresponding gene.
c
83
The term "gene expression" refers to the
A fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes.
B fact that individuals of the same species have different phenotypes.
C process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins.
D flow of information from parent to offspring.
c
84
In the genetic code,
A some codons specify more than one amino acid.
B some codons consist of two nucleotides.
C some amino acids are not specified by any codons.
D many amino acids are specified by more than one codon
D
85
The photograph below shows a single replicated chromosome (consisting of two sister chromatids) just before mitosis. This chromosome contains
A two single-stranded DNA molecules
B one double-stranded DNA molecule
C two double-stranded DNA molecules
D many double-stranded DNA molecules
C
86
Imagine that the photograph below was one of your chromosomes late in prophase I of meiosis. This chromosome contains:
A DNA from one of your parents in the sister chromatid on the left and DNA from the other parent in the sister chromatid on the right.
B DNA contributions from both parents, resulting from recombination (crossing over)
C DNA from only one of your parents
C
87
How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?
A The cells contain different genes.
B The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.
C Different chromosomes have been inactivated in different cells.
D The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.
B
88
```
An insertion or deletion of a single base in the DNA sequence of the genetic code results in
A a substitution mutation.
B an inversion mutation.
C a frameshift mutation.
D a change in all the following codons.
E both c and d
```
E
89
```
Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it?
A the events of meiosis I
B crossing over
C independent assortment
D the events of meiosis II
```
D
90
```
The individual features of all organisms are the result of
A Genetics
B The environment
C The environment and individual needs
D The environment and genetics
```
D
91
```
Linked genes are usually
A found on the X chromosome.
B found on the Y chromosome.
C codominant.
D located close together on a chromosome.
```
D
92
We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence that include a stop codon at the end (as part of the 15-nucleotide sequence) will direct the production of a polypeptide that consists of
A two amino acids.
B three amino acids.
C four amino acids.
D five amino acids.
C
93
One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
A mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not
B mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
C mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis
D mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells
A
94
What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?
A 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
B 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
C 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y
D chromosome 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes
B
95
Examine the following two DNA sequences.
Sequence 1: ATGCGATGCTAGCAT
Sequence 2: ATGCGATGATAGCAT
```
If both of these sequences code for proteins, how might the function of protein 2 differ from the
function of protein 1? Use the genetic code table from the previous question for assistance.
```
a) Protein 1 and protein 2 will function exactly the same.
b) Protein 1 will be shorter than protein 2, so they will not function the same.
c) Protein 2 will be shorter than protein 1, so they will not function the same.
d) Protein 2 has a different sequence, so it will function differently from protein 1.
A
96
True or False:
| Cellular respiration converts all of the energy in glucose into high-energy ATP bonds.
F
97
True or False:
| Organisms have the ability to take in energy and use it.
T
98
True or False:
| Individuals evolve within the span of their own lifetimes.
F
99
True or False:
| ATP synthase is found in all kingdoms of life.
T
100
True or False:
| ATP is not produced during photosynthesis; it is produced only during cellular respiration.
F
101
True or False:
| Lysosomes synthesize proteins from the recycled amino acids.
F
102
True or False:
| The Golgi apparatus works closely with the endoplasmic reticulum
T
103
True or False:
| Functional groups may help make organic compounds hydrophilic
T
104
True or False:
| Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.
F
105
True or False:
| All cells are enclosed in a membrane that maintains internal conditions different from the surroundings.
T
106
True or False:
| A single unit change on the pH scale is equivalent to a 1% change in hydrogen ion concentration.
F
107
True or False:
| Many lipids function as enzymes.
F
108
True or False:
| An enzyme’s function depends on its three-dimensional shape
T
109
True or False:
Enzymes are used up when they catalyze a chemical reaction (consumed by the reaction) so must be synthesized for each new chemical reaction
F
110
True or False:
| Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons.
T
111
True or False:
| Membrane proteins transfer genetic information to the cytoplasm.
F
112
Which of these stages of cellular processes occur(s) in the cytoplasm?
a. Glycolysis
b. citric acid cycle
c. glycolysis and citric acid cycle
d. citric acid cycle and electron transport
A
113
The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem II are replaced by electrons from
a. CO2.
b. ATP.
c. H2O.
d. photosystem I.
C
114
The proteins embedded in the membranes are essential to their function. These membrane proteins have properties that allow them to “float” in the membrane. Which of the following statements describes those properties?
a. The surface region of the protein exposed to the interior of the membrane is mostly
hydrophobic.
b. The surface region of the protein exposed to the interior of the membrane is mostly
hydrophillic.
c. The surface region exposed to the outer environment is hydrophobic. d. The surface region exposed to the interior environment is hydrophobic.
A
115
A cell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing. The cell becomes larger and larger. This situation
a. should present no problem to the cell, since it can continue to perform all other
necessary functions.
b. should present no problem to the cell, because the surface area of the cell will increase
as the volume of the cell increases.
c. will eventually be problematic, since the cell's ability to absorb nutrients through its
outer membrane will not keep increasing as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.
d. should be beneficial, since the cell will be able to divert the ATP normally used for
cell division to other processes.
C
116
The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by ________ bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by ________ bonds.
a. hydrogen; polar covalent
b. polar covalent; hydrogen
c. ionic; covalent
d. polar covalent; ionic
B
117
A single Yummie cake contains 4.5 grams of total fat, 27 grams of carbohydrate, 0 grams of fiber, and 1 gram of protein After eating a Yummie cake, what molecule do you expect to be most abundant in your digestive system?
a. amino acids
b. monosaccharides
c. cellulose
d. triglycerides
B
118
The sodium concentration in a cell is 10 times less than the concentration in the surrounding fluid. How can the cell move sodium out of the cell?
a. passive transport
b. receptor-mediated endocytosis
c. active transport
d. facilitated diffusion
C
119
You notice that over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweatshirt style. This is an example of
a. an experimental question.
b. a type of observation.
c. a hypothesis.
d. an experiment.
C
120
In the plasma membrane, the phospholipid heads
a. are hydrophilic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the
b. are hydrophilic and face inward, shielded from water.
c. are hydrophobic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the
membrane.
d. are hydrophobic and face inward, shielded from water.
A
121
ATP and NADPH
a. power sugar synthesis during the Calvin cycle.
b. are products of the Calvin cycle.
c. provide energy to photosystem I and photosystem II.
d. are used in the electron transport chain to pump H+ into the thylakoid space.
A
122
The overall equation for the cellular respiration of glucose is
a. C5H12O6 + 6 O2 → 5 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy.
b. 5 CO2 + 6 H2O → C5H12O6 + 6 O2 + energy.
c. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy.
d. C6H12O6 + energy → 6 CO2+ 6 H2O + 6 O2.
C
123
The molecules responsible for membrane transport are
a. steroids.
b. phospholipids.
c. carbohydrates.
d. Proteins
D
124
The processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are complementary. During these energy conversions, some energy is
a. lost in the form of heat.
b. used to create light.
c. destroyed when the chemical bonds of glucose are made.
d. saved in the chemical bonds of water, CO2 and O2.
A
125
Both cellular respiration and photosynthesis rely on electron transport chains embedded in membranes to produce ATP molecules. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between the two types of electron transport chains?
a. In cellular respiration, the electron source is water and the final electron destination is
oxygen.
b. In cellular respiration, the electron source is the hydrogens in energy rich food and the
final electron destination is oxygen.
c. In photosynthesis the electron source is water and the final destination is oxygen.
d. Both b and c.
B
126
Which of the following statements provides the best evidence that there is a common genetic code that demonstrates the unity of life?
a. Bees, birds, and bats all have wings and fly.
b. Bacteria, mushrooms, and cats all have DNA.
c. Many insects can pollinate only a particular species of plant due to many generations of evolutionary adaptation.
d. Through genetic engineering, a gene from a firefly can be inserted into a bacterium to make it glow
D
127
During a discussion about ecosystems, a student says, "Plants eat sunlight, and animals eat other organisms." Which of the following responses to the student's comment is most accurate?
a. Plants don't eat sunlight; they eat sugars that they get from the soil.
b. Plants don't eat sunlight; they use it to make sugars.
c. Plants eat sunlight, but they also eat other organism such as decomposers.
d. Plants eat sunlight, but animals also eat bacteria, which are not considered organisms
B
128
There are hundreds of different enzymes in a cell—each with a unique three-dimensional shape. Why do cells have so many different enzymes?
a. Each enzyme molecule can only be used once.
b. The shape of an enzyme’s active site generally fits a specific substrate.
c. The substrate molecules react with enzymes to create new enzymes.
d. Enzymes are randomly in thousands of different shapes so that one is likely to work.
B
129
If you expose a photosynthesizing plant to water that contains both radioactive H and radioactive O, in which of the products of photosynthesis will the radioactive H and O show up?
a. H and O both in glucose
b. H in glucose; O in water
c. H in water; O in glucose
d. H in glucose and water; O in O2
D
130
When you add acid to a solution, ___________.
a. The hydrogen ion concentration increases and lowers the pH.
b. The hydrogen ion concentration increases and raises the pH.
c. The hydrogen ion concentration decreases and raises the pH.
d. The hydrogen ion concentration decreases and lowers the pH.
A
131
Which of the following processes contributed the most to the increased mass of the “Light,Water” treatment?
a. Absorption of mineral substances from the dish via the roots.
b. Absorption of CO2 gas from the atmosphere into molecules by green leaves.
c. Absorption of H20 from the dish into molecules by green leaves.
d. Absorption of solar radiation into the leaf.
B
132
Unsaturated fats:
a. Have double bonds in their fatty acid chains.
b. Have fewer fatty acid molecules per fat molecule.
c. Are associated with greater health risks than are saturated fats.
d. Are more common in animals than plants.
A
133
The membranous compartmentalization of a cell
a. divides the cell into two equal-sized halves.
b. allows different chemical conditions to be maintained in different parts of the cell.
c. requires the presence of a cell wall.
d. is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B
134
Macromolecules are polymers composed of monomers. For example, polysaccharides like ____ are made of the repeating monomer_____.
a. Nucleic acids, amino acids
b. Cellulose, glucose
c. Triglycerides, fatty acids
d. Amino acids, nucleotides
B
135
If you consume 1 g of each of the following, which will yield the most ATP?
a. fat
b. glucose
c. protein
d. starch
A
136
Plant cells
a. lack mitochondria and chloroplasts.
b. lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts.
c. have mitochondria but do not have chloroplasts.
d. have mitochondria and chloroplasts.
D
137
Two proteins have the same number and type of amino acids. How is it that they can have different shapes and therefore different functions?
a. The proteins were made at different times within the cell.
b. The proteins have been chemically modified.
c. The order in which the amino acids are arranged differs between the two proteins.
d. The proteins were made in different locations in the cell.
C
138
Insulin is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstream. Which of the following options correctly lists the order of the structures through which insulin passes from its production to its exit from the cell?
a. rough ER, transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles, cell membrane
b. rough ER, lysosomes, transport vesicles, cell membrane
c. rough ER, Golgi apparatus, smooth ER, cell membrane
d. rough ER, transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, vacuole, cell membrane
A
139
Proteins differ from one another because
a. the peptide bonds linking amino acids differ from protein to protein.
b. the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein.
c. each protein contains its own unique sequence of sugar molecules.
d. the number of nucleotides found in each protein varies from molecule to molecule.
B
140
The energy that excites the photosystems is supplied by
a. Photons
b. NADPH
c. ATP
d. Electrons passing down the electron transport chain
A
141
________ cells lack a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
a. Plant
b. Prokaryotic
c. Eukaryotic
d. Fungal
B
142
Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ its concentration gradient.
a. energy... down
b. transport proteins... down
c. energy and transport proteins... against
d. transport proteins... against
B
143
Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely
a. result in cell death.
b. force the cell to rely on lipids for energy.
c. force the cell to rely on ADP for energy.
d. have no effect on the cell.
A
144
In an ecosystem, energy
a. cycles along with chemical nutrients.
b. typically flows from consumers to producers to decomposers.
c. typically flows from producers through a series of consumers.
d. comes ultimately from bacteria.
C
145
You have a friend who recently lost 15 pounds of fat on a diet. Where did the mass/fat go?
a. The mass was converted to urine and feces and then eliminated from the body.
b. The mass was released as CO2 and H2O
c. The mass was converted to energy and used up.
d. The mass was converted into ATP molecules.
e. The mass was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body.
B
146
Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing
a. chemical energy into kinetic energy.
b. chemical energy into potential energy.
c. kinetic energy into potential energy.
d. kinetic energy into thermal energy
A
147
The active site of an enzyme is
a. the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme.
b. the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various
reactions.
c. the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate.
d. the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme
C
148
The endomembrane system includes ______.
a. ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum
d. Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
D
149
What are the three functions of nervous systems?
```
Sensory input (detect information), integration and analysis of sensory input, and
motor output (stimulate muscles)
```
150
What determines whether a neuron is affected by a specific neurotransmitter?
To be affected by a particular neurotransmitter, a neuron must have specific receptors for that neurotransmitter
151
Anesthetics block pain by blocking the transmission of nerve signals. Which of these three chemicals might work as anesthetics? (choose all that apply)
a. A chemical that prevents the opening of sodium channels in membranes
b. A chemical that inhibits the enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters
c. A chemical that blocks neurotransmitter receptors
A and C are correct because they would prevent action potentials from
occurring. B would increase action potentials.
152
```
A drug that holds Na+ channels open would result in _________ action potentials, and
would have a ___________ effect.
a. Fewer/paralysis
b. More/seizures
c. Fewer/seizures
d. More/paralysis
```
a
153
```
If TTX blocks voltage-gated sodium ion
channels, which part of the action potential graph be impacted most? (look at graph)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
```
a
154
Which of the following sensory receptors is incorrectly paired with its category?
a. Hair cell...mechanoreceptor
b. Taste receptor...chemoreceptor
c. Rod...electromagnetic receptor
d. Olfactory receptor...electromagnetic receptor
c
155
How does your brain determine the volume and pitch of sounds?
The ear converts air pressure waves to action potentials that are perceived as sound. Louder sounds generate more action potentials, different pitches stimulate different regions of the organ of Corti
156
What is meant by sensory transduction?
The conversion of a stimulus signal to an electrical signal (a receptor potential) by a sensory receptor cell.
157
Cone cells detect....
a. Red light
b. Chemicals
c. Sounds
d. Vibrations
a
158
Describe what a person would perceive in a noisy environment if neurons connecting the ear with the brain were cross-wired with the taste center in the brain
The noise is perceived as taste sensation
159
What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?
A Its binding to a regulatory protein causes the protein to move, exposing actin binding sites to the myosin heads
B It provides energy for contraction
C It blocks contraction when the muscle relaxes
D It forms the heads of the myosin molecules in the thick filaments inside a muscle fiber
a
160
What happens to muscles if there is no supply of ATP?
Muscles stiffen because there is no ATP to release myosin from actin—after death it is called rigor mortis.
161
Which correctly matches a hormone to the gland from which it is produced and to its effect on target cells?
a. Thyroxine; anterior pituitary; metabolism
b. Prolactin; anterior pituitary; raises blood calcium levels c. Androgens; thyroid; promotes male characteristics
d. None of the above
d
162
The thyroid gland...
a. Produces roxine which regulates daily biorhythms
b. Produces melatonin which stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. Produces thyroxine which regulates metabolism
d. Produces insulin which regulates blood sugar levels
c
163
True or false:
| Peptide hormones stimulate every target cell
T
164
Cardiac muscle...
a. Is striped
b. Has electrical connections between muscle cells
c. Has cells that spontaneously produce action potentials d. All of the above
d
165
In an open circulatory system
a. The blood and interstitial flued are separate
b. The blood and interstitial fluid are the same
c. The capillaries are connected to the veins
d. The heart is missing
b
166
Movement of fluid between capillary and interstitial fluid is a balance between
a. Systolic pressure and diastolic pressure
b. Blood pressure and osmotic pressure
c. Chemical exchange by diffusion and osmosis
d. None of the above
b
167
How do you calculate blood pressure, and what does it tell you?
Systolic pressure (pressure when ventricles contract) over diastolic pressure (pressure when ventricles are at rest.
168
What are common treatments for hypertension
Diuretics (promote water loss) and beta andrenergic blocking agents (lower
heart rate, amount of blood the heart pumps out, and the force of heartbeat)
169
What is the primary feedback used by the brain to control breathing?
a. Heart rate
b. Partial pressure of 0xygen
c. Blood pH, which indicates oxygen level
d. Blood pH, which indicates carbon dioxide level
d
170
True or False, increasing the respiratory surface will improve gas exchange.
T
171
The inhalation of air into the lungs is due to:
a. Relaxation of the diaphragm
b. Contraction of the diaphragm
c. Relaxation of rib muscles
d. None of the above
b
172
True or false, oxygen is transported in the blood in a form bound to hemoglobin.
T
173
Affect a molecule's function by participating in chemical reactions
Functional groups
174
A phospholipid is composed of
1 glycerol, 1 phosphate group, and 2 fatty acid tails
175
What can move a solute against its concentration gradient?
Active transport
176
Heat inactivates enzymes by
changing the enzyme's 3-D shape (denaturation)
177
Stages of cellular respiration
glycolysis, citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation
178
Oxidation is _____ and reduction is ______.
loss; gain
179
Glycolysis occurs in
the cytoplasm
180
In which direction can the daughter DNA strand grow?
5' to 3'
181
Mitosis is similar to
Meiosis II
182
Are tumor suppressor genes inherited or not?
Inherited
183
Are Proto-oncogenes inherited or not?
Not
184
Which mutation changes an amino acid codon into a stop codon?
Nonsense
185
A male peacock's huge display of feathers is an example of
Sexual dimorphism
186
A factor that includes all living organisms in the area is called
biotic
187
Broad leaf trees dominate which biome
Temperate forests
188
In an operon the promoter acts as an on and off switch?
False--operator acts as on and off switch
189
What is the function of DNA helicase?
Acts as a zipper, unwinds the double stranded DNA
190
The diaphragm separates the abdominal cavity from the .... cavity
true
191
Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in the
alveoli
192
What part of your brain controls your breathing rate?
medulla oblongata
193
Oxygen binds with _____ in the blood
hemoglobin
194
Humans have a _____ circulatory system
Closed
195
Humans have double circulation?
True
196
Systole is when heart is _____ and diastole is when heart is ______.
contracting; relaxed
197
What hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
198
At what place on the neuron is the chemical/electrical signal transmitted to other neurons
synapse
199
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body for
fight or flight
200
What are the 2 photoreceptors in human retina
rods and cones
201
What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction
exposes actin binding sites to myosin heads
202
Dr. Westwood experienced numbness (sensory inactivity) after eating the pufferfish meal, because TTX causes:
A. motor neurons to fire continuously, overloading the brain with signals, resulting in numbness.
B. motor neurons to stop firing, preventing communication with the brain, resulting in numbness.
C. sensory neurons to stop firing preventing communication with the brain, resulting in numbness.
D. sensory neurons to fire continuously, overloading the brain with signals, resulting in numbness.
c
203
```
If tetrodotoxin (TTX) blocks voltage- gated sodium ion channels, which part of the action potential graph would be impacted most?
A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D
```
b
204
At peak of AP, Na+ voltage-gated channels close, and K+ voltage-gated channels open in response to positive membrane potential. To return cell to its negative resting potential quickly:
A. K+ will diffuse along its concentration gradient INTO cell.
B. K+ will diffuse along its concentration gradient OUT of cell.
C. Na+ will reverse its direction of diffusion OUT of cell.
D. Sodium-potassium pump will move Na+ OUT of cell and K+ INTO the cell.
E. None of the above would return the cell to its negative resting potential quickly.
b
205
At the point of stimulation the membrane becomes more permeable to Na+.
If resting potential is (-70mv), and then is stimulated:
A. Membrane voltage will become more negative, because Na+ will move OUT of the cell.
B. Membrane voltage will become less negative, because Na+ will move OUT of the cell.
C. Membrane voltage will become more negative, because Na+ will move INTO the cell.
D. Membrane voltage will become less negative, because Na+ will move INTO the cell.
d
206
Why did Dr. Westwood experience paralysis (muscle inactivity) after eating the pufferfish meal?
A. TTX causes motor neurons to fire continuously, overloading the brain with signals, resulting in paralysis.
B. TTX causes motor neurons to stop firing, preventing communication with the muscles, resulting in paralysis.
C. TTX causes sensory neurons to stop firing preventing communication with the brain, resulting in paralysis.
D. TTX causes sensory neurons to fire continuously, overloading the brain with signals, resulting in paralysis.
E. None of the above explain why Dr. Westwood experienced numbness after his pufferfish meal.
b
207
You experiment with higher concentrations of BTX and find cases when the cell could not repolarize at all or, if it began to repolarize, it immediately depolarized again. This tells you that the toxin:
A. Prevents voltage-gated K+ channels from opening.
B. Increases the speed that Na+ ion channels open.
C. Prevents Na+ ion channels from closing.
D. Makes Na+ ion channels close too soon.
E. Doesn’t affect the Na+ ion channels at all, it affects the sodium-potassium pump instead
c
208
Pitohui birds contains BTX in most of their internal organs.
What do you expect is the physiological reason that this bird is not killed by its own BTX?
A. The bird has no VgNaChs in its nerve cells.
B. The bird has BTX-resistant VgNaChs.
C. The bird uses TTX to counteract the effect of BTX.
D. The bird ignores the sensory numbness.
E. Answer B and C
b
209
```
TEA is a drug that
also affects the Action Potential.
See result below.
What mechanism explains these result?
A. TEA blocks the VgNaCh
B. TEA blocks the VgKCh
C. TEA keeps the VgNaCh open
D. TEA keep the VgKCh open.
```
b
