Final Exam Flashcards
(235 cards)
1
Q
Protons are pumped by mitochondria during active electron transport outside ___
A
outside the inner mitochondrial membrane
2
Q
As electrons from NADH pass through the e- transport system ___
A
protons are pumped across the mitochondrial membrane to create a pH gradient
3
Q
Which statement is true of the mitochondrial e- transport system?
A
All electrons in the chain end up on O2 to produce water
4
Q
Which is not involved in the transfer of reducing equivalents from succinate to molecular oxygen (O2)?
A
complex I
5
Q
What active site cofactor is found in the e- transport system protein called cytochrome c?
A
heme
6
Q
The structure of the e- transport system protein called cytochrome c is highly conserved in nature because the __
A
protein plays an important role in the e- transport system and in other critical cellular pathways such as apoptosis
7
Q
What enzyme uses the proton motive force for its driving force?
A
ATP synthase
8
Q
The first enzyme in the e- transport system is referred to as complex I, otherwise known as
A
NADH-ubiquinone oxioreductase
9
Q
The catalytic headpiece of the ATP synthase enzyme is primarily composed of which subunits?
A
a hexameric a3B3 ring
10
Q
ATP synthesis occurs
A
at the ATP synthase complex after ADP and Pi are transported into the mitochondria
11
Q
What is the driving force for ATP synthesis by the ATP synthase enzyme?
A
The pH gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
12
Q
Which part of the native ATP synthase enzyme is stationary and does NOT rotate during ATP synthesis?
A
the catalytic headpiece
13
Q
Which one of the following statements about the glycerol phosphate shuttle is true?
A
It involved the transfer of electrons from cytoplasmic NADH to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) to yield glycerol phosphate
14
Q
What is the effect of oligomycin, an ATP synthase inhibitor, on the mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation pathway?
A
The proton gradient is formed, but no ATP synthesis can occur
15
Q
What type of antibody or antibodies is/are found in the plasma of a person with type A blood?
A
anti-B
16
Q
What would happen if mitochondria were treated with a proton gradient uncoupler, such as 2,4-dinitrophenol?
A
protons would be pumped by the mitochondrial ETC, although no ATP would be synthesized
17
Q
Brown adipose tissue is brown in color because of
A
increased numbers of mitochondria
18
Q
Which tissue types are affected the most by inherited mitochondrial disorders?
A
those tissues with the highest levels of mitochondria and high levels of activity
19
Q
The O2 generated from photosynthesis is derived from
A
water molecules that directly reduce PSII*
20
Q
For photosynthesis, sunlight energy drives e- transfer. Where are the e- ejected from when light is absorbed?
A
Light-harvesting pigments in PSI and PSII
21
Q
Which of the following is an e- transfer molecule in photosynthesis light reactions?
A
plastoquinone
22
Q
Which enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway is regulated to control flux through the pathway?
A
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
23
Q
The photosynthetic Z scheme describes the
A
movement of e- driven by the absorption of light energy
24
Q
What group in photosystem II (PSII) directly reacts with H2O during its light-driven oxidation?
A
oxygen evolving center
25
Which is NOT a correct analogy between the photosynthetic PQ cycle and the mitochondrial ETC Q cycle?
Photosystem I is analogous to Complex I
26
Which complex in the photosynthetic ETC pumps protons as electrons pass through it?
cytochrome b6f
27
The third stage of the three-stage Calvin cycle
regenerates a C5 sugar for the Calvin cycle to continue
28
The five step mechanism of ribulose diphosphate carboxylase (rubisco) __
adds a CO2 molecule to a C5 ribulose sugar yielding an unstable C6 molecule that cleaves into two C3 molecules
29
Under what condition(s) do the wasteful side of run of O2 with rubisco become significant?
increased temperature and intense light
30
In C3 plants CO2 is first incorporated into ___, whereas in C4 and CAM plants the CO2 is first incorporated into ___
- 3-phosphoglycerate
| - oxaloacetate
31
Which cell type in C4 plants is isolated from O2 exposure as they perform Calvin cycle rxns?
bundle sheath cells
32
Which molecule allosterically activates pyruvate carboxylase?
acetyl-CoA
33
What is the cellular location of the plant glyoxylate cycle?
glyoxysome
34
Which of the following is true of the glyoxylate cycle?
It allows plants to produce glucose from fats and two-carbon molecules like acetate
35
Unlike plant cells, animal cells lack the glyoxylate enzymes
isocitrate lyase and malate synthase
36
Which glycan is a major component of plant cell walls?
cellulose
37
Which simple sugar major group ranges in size from 3-20 branched and unbranched sugar residues
ogliosaccharides
38
Which glucose homopolymers is generated during daylight hours in plants?
starch
39
Which of the following ogliosaccharides are found in high abundance in some types of vegetables and have been known to cause intestinal distress?
verbascose
40
Chylomicrons are produced in
intestinal epithelial cells
41
What is the blood type of a person who fails to express either the GTA or GTB glycosyltransferases?
O
42
What type of antibody or antibodies is/are found in the plasma of a person with type AB blood?
neither anti-A or anti-B
43
Compared with Gram neg bacteria, gram pos bacteria have a
thicker peptidoglycan layer
44
Gram neg bacteria contain which potent inflammatory agent in animals?
lipopolysaccharide
45
Which enzyme does penicillin target in bacteria?
transpeptidase
46
Which functional group on penicillin forms a complex with transpeptidase of the bacterial wall?
carbonyl
47
Which technique can identify N-linked glycans in a mixed sample?
mass spectrometry
48
Which membrane lipids are derivatives of long chain amino alcohols synthesized from palmitate and serine?
sphingosines
49
To detect lectins on the surface of pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria, ___ would be used.
a glycan array
50
Which of the following is NOT a role played by the pentose phosphate pathway?
converting pyruvate into TCA cycle intermediates
51
Which molecule activates the pentose phosphate pathway?
NADP+
52
Which enzyme uses cellular NADPH to regenerate reduced glutathione?
glutathione reductase
53
Which steroid hormone is synthesized in the ovaries?
estradiol
54
Which of the following metabolites is NOT a gluconeogenesis substrate in humans?
acetate
55
Which pathway is opposite to gluconeogenesis?
glycolysis pathway
56
The gluconeogenesis pathway
converts two 3C sugars into a 6C sugar
57
IN the rxn catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase (the first rxn in gluconeogenesis), CO2 is
activated by ATP energy
58
How many more enzymes does the oxidation of a polyunsaturated fat such as linoleoyl-CoA (18:2) require than the oxidation of sterol-CoA (18:0)?
2
59
Which pair of opposite enzymes in the glycolysis and gluconeogenesis pathway are not allosterically regulated but rather regulated by compartmentalization?
hexokinase/glucose-6-phosphatase
60
What triggers the cori cycle?
oxygen limited working muscle cells
61
What class of biomolecule is glycogenin?
enzyme
62
How many acetyl-CoAs per ketone body are delivered to cells in need of energy?
2
63
The activation of glycogen phosphorylase will lead to a(n) ___ in blood glucose concentrations and is stimulated bu the hormone ___
- increase
| - glucagon
64
What is the name of the enzyme that removes phosphate groups from the regulated glycogen metabolism enzymes to reverse their activity?
protein phosphatase 1
65
A fatty acid that has more than one double bond is referred to as
polyunsaturated
66
Resonance energy transfer from one chlorophyll in the photosystems result in
a neighboring chlorophyll in an excited state
67
During the process of saponification, fatty acid molecules are released from triacylglycerols by treatment(s) with a strong
base and heat
68
In comparison with gangliosides, the structure of phosphatidylcholine contains a
glycerol moiety
69
Which enzyme in the photosynthetic Z scheme catalyzes the PQ cycle, which is analogous to Complex III and the Q cycle in the mitochondrial ETC?
cytochrome b6f
70
The inner layer of the plasma membrane of human erythrocytes contains mostly ___ lipids
phosphatidylserine
71
One of the functions of the lipid rafts is to
coordinate cell signaling
72
Snake venom often secretes phospholipase A2 enzymes, which cleave
glycerophospholipids
73
If the ration of NADP+ to NADPH were high, the
pentose phosphate pathway oxidative phase would be activated
74
Which type of fatty acid plays important roles in cell recognition such as in ABO blood groups?
gangliosides
75
Which of the following is NOT required to activate rubisco?
binding of the biotin factor
76
The addition of phosphocholine to ceramics generates
sphingomyelin
77
Which of the following amino alcohols act as the functional group attached to a phosphate in a glycerophospholipid?
serine
78
What is the name of the plant leaf openings that open during the night and close during the day in CAM plants?
stomata
79
Which of the following amino alcohols act as the functional group attached to a phosphate in a glycerophospholipid?
ethanolamine
80
The conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) in gluconeogenesis
occurs in two steps and is catalyzed by the enzymes pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
81
Tay-Sachs disease, Fabry disease, and Niemann-Pick disease are all symptomatic because of
defects in sphingolipid metabolism
82
25-Hydroxyvitamin D3 is converted to 1,25-hydroxyvitamin D3 by
P450C1 hydroxylase
83
Which eicosanoid controls platelet formation?
prostacyclin
84
Which eicosanois acts as an inflammatory mediator that also regulates smooth muscle contraction?
leukotriene
85
How many more passes through B oxidation does the saturated fat stearic acid (18:0) require, compared with the monounsaturated fat oleic acid (18:1)?
0
86
The B-oxidation of mono-and polyunsaturated fatty acids
involves isomerization and in some cases reduction of the double bonds before the continuation of B-oxidation
87
The structure of raffinose, stachyose, and verbascose differ in the number of __ units attached to a ___
- galactose
| - sucrose
88
What molecule is the odd chain fatty acid product propionyl-CoA converted into?
succinyl-CoA
89
Because of antibody recognition, which of the following blood types can donate to a person with typee O blood
O
90
Which is found in the ketone body pathway?
hydroxybutyrate
91
Glycogenic amino acids give rise to which molecule?
pyruvate
92
Both the synthesis and B-oxidation of saturated fatty acids
involve acetyl-CoA
93
The outer membrane of gram neg bacteria contains glycolipids called
lipopolysaccharides
94
Which of the following do beta-oxidation and fatty acid synthesis have in common?
the presence of an oxidized fatty acyl B-carbon with a hydroxyl or carbonyl group as a pathway intermediate
95
What class of enzyme is the human desaturase enzyme?
oxioreductase
96
Which correctly described the synthesis of phosphatidylethanolamine?
Phosphatidylserine is decarboxylated
97
Both methicillin and penicillin are inactive when exposed to
variant transpeptidase
98
The acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis comes from the
mitochondria via the citrate shuttle
99
The regulation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase is
stimulated by citrate
100
Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis?
HMG-CoA reductase
101
Which lipid is thought to give rise to the plaques that can clog arteries
LDL
102
LDLs are referred to as "bad cholesterol" because
they are blood serum particle with the highest concentration of cholesterol
103
A nitrogen of a pyrimidine ring arises from which amino acid?
aspartate
104
The sterol regulatory element (SRE) is a(n) ___ and the sterol regulatory element binding protein (SREBP) is a(N) ___
- DNA promoter
| - transcription activator
105
All of the following genes are activated by the interaction of the SREBP with the SRE, EXCEPT for
cholesterol esterase
106
How many moles of NADH are required in gluconeogenesis to convert 2 moles of pyruvate molecules into 1 mole of glucose?
2
107
Nitrogen in biological compounds ultimately comes from what source
nitrogen gas
108
Order the following steps involving the regeneration of ribonucleotide reductase that occurs in most animals so that it may carry out the formation of deoxyribonucleotides.
1. Reduction of thioredoxin
2. Reduction of ribonucleotide reductase
3. Oxidation of thioredoxin reductase
4. Reduction of thioredoxin reductase
4, 1, 2, 3
4. Reduction of thioredoxin reductase
1. Reduction of thioredoxin
2. Reduction of ribonucleotide reductase
3. Oxidation of thioredoxin reductase
109
To increase the efficiency of the nitrogenase reaction, some plants have symbionts. The plant increases the efficiency of the reaction by providing ___, whereas bacteria provide(s) ___.
- fumerate and malate
| - additional NH3
110
Bacteria in the genus Nitrosomonas are able to oxidize ammonia to what final pdt?
NO2-
111
Glutamine synthetase uses ammonia to convert glutamate into
glutamine
112
Adenylylation of Try397 regulates glutamine synthetase by
inhibiting activity
113
Metabolic homeostasis relies on maintaining
optimal metabolite concentrations
114
Nitrogen balance is best described as when the daily intake of __ equals the amount of ___ lost by excretion
- nitrogen
| - nitrogen
115
Which intermediate is shared by the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle?
argininosuccinate
116
The recycling of fumigate helps offset the energy cost of the urea cycle because fumerate helps generate
oxaloacetate to produce NADH, which can generate 2.5 ATP
117
In the breakdown of glycogen by glycogen phosphorylase, the immediate predominant product is
glucose-1-phosphate
118
If there was a loss of efficiency in the urea cycle, there would be a buildup of
glutamine
119
A no-protein diet with high doses of L-arginine helps patients with argininosuccinase deficiency because it __ the concentration of ___.
- increases
| - ornithine that is needed to maintain flux through the urea cycle
120
Alanine, cysteine, glycine, and serine are all considered ___ amino acids
glucogenic
121
A patient is found to have a mutated enzyme that results in fewer branch points in glycogen. Which one of the following would best characterize the way in which the patient’s glycogen is altered relative to normal glycogen?
a decreased ratio of nonreducing to reducing ends
122
Group 2 pathways can be correctly described as pathways that
degrade alanine.
123
What might be the outcome of a mutation that causes the adiponectin receptor to be constitutively activated?
insulin resistance
124
Arginine, leucine, and lysine are all essential amino acids. This means that they are
only available from a person’s diet.
125
Which of the following is a benefit of nucleotide salvage pathways compared with de novo synthesis?
reduced energy expenditure
126
The nitrogen atoms of a purine originate from all of the following amino acids EXCEPT
cysteine.
127
The total content of __________ is approximately the same in both the inner and outer layer of the plasma membrane of human erythrocytes.
cholesterol
128
A person is carrying out in vitro synthesis of uric acid from GMP. He or she wants to include all substrates and enzymes necessary. All EXCEPT __________ should be included in the reaction mixture.
adenosine deaminase
129
Marine invertebrates express enzymes that allow for the conversion of uric acid to NH4+. What is the correct order of the action of enzymes in this pathway?
1. Urate oxidase
2. Allantoicase
3. Urease
4. Allantoinase
1; 4; 2; 3
1. Urate oxidase
4. Allantoinase
2. Allantoicase
3. Urease
130
The numerical value of a food that indicates how quickly glucose is released into the blood is called the
glycemic index.
131
Nonprimate mammals convert uric acid to allantoin. This reaction, catalyzed by urate oxidase, also generates which of the following products?
H2O2
132
The conversion of hypoxanthine to IMP is catalyzed by __________, which is deficient in __________.
HGPRT; Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
133
Consider a cell that is provided aspartate in which all carbons are radioactively labeled. Compounds in the cell are analyzed after the biosynthesis and subsequent breakdown of pyrimidines. Which of the following compounds would display no radioactivity signal during the analysis?
glutamine
134
A patient is having problems regulating blood pressure and has poor kidney function. Which steroid could be responsible for this?
aldosterone
135
Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencies exist in approximately __________ of humans and can result in complications when 5-fluorouracil is administered as a __________ therapy.
- 5%;
| - cancer
136
When analyzing the production of dTMP by thymidylate synthase in a cell-free system, which of the following compounds would be found as an additional product of this enzyme?
7,8-dihydrofolate
137
Reduction in dTMP biosynthesis is NOT dependent upon __________.
dihydrofolate
138
Which of the following would cause a genetic mutation?
telomere duplication
139
Which organ is responsible for regulating physiological levels of glucose?
liver
140
Skeletal muscle can use all of the following as metabolic fuel EXCEPT
chylomicrons.
141
The blood-brain barrier results from __________, which allow glucose and __________ to enter the brain.
- astrocytes;
| - ketone bodies
142
Which tissue participates in the triacylglycerol cycle in order to maintain metabolic homeostasis?
liver
143
Lynch syndrome is a genetic deficiency in __________ repairs.
mismatch
144
The pancreatic cell type that is responsible for the production of somatostatin is the __________ cells.
alpha
145
Which of the following is NOT one of the three peroxisome proliferator–activated receptor nuclear receptor proteins that function in metabolic homeostasis?
PPARbeta
146
Membrane phospholipids are synthesized in which cellular location?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
147
PPARs have a variety of functions in lipid metabolism that include all EXCEPT
decreasing insulin sensitivity.
148
Anorexigenic neurons express the __________ receptor.
Y2
149
TNF-alpha causes the __________ of insulin signaling in __________.
- inhibition;
| - muscle cells
150
Which of the following RNA molecules has the LEAST number of different sequences in a given organism?
rRNA
151
Serum levels of high-molecular-weight adiponectin are __________ in obese individuals, in part because of __________ suppression of adiponectin expression.
- decreased;
| - TNA-alpha
152
Metformin is a(n)
AMPK stimulator.
153
Thiazolidinedione activates PPARmc162-1.jpg in adipose tissue. This results in the upregulation of
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.
154
Orlistat and olestra can both lead to undigested lipids in the colon, yet they do so by contrasting mechanisms. Orlistat __________, whereas olestra __________.
- inhibits pancreatic lipase;
| - is a fat substitute that is not a substrate for pancreatic lipase
155
The 10 amino acids that animals need to take in through their diet are called the __________ amino acids.
common
156
Eukaryotic transcription promoters
require multiple DNA binding regions.
157
Which of the following functions by specifically targeting neuronal control of food consumption?
lorcaserin
158
Most fad diets do not work because
40% of people do not “stick to it.”
159
What are the concentrations of glucose that would be expected of a healthy individual after an 8-hour fast and after consuming a large soft pretzel?
80 mg/dL; 130 mg/dL
160
What fuel source will last the longest before being depleted during intense exercise?
adipose tissue fatty acids
161
During intense exercise, muscle ATP stores will be depleted in about
3 seconds.
162
The best definition for DNA replication is when a cell copies its __________ genome and is __________ cell division.
- entire;
| - a required element of
163
Which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer for DNA replication?
DNA primase
164
What is a major function of prokaryotic DNA polymerase I besides replication?
checking for exonuclease activity
165
Which prokaryotic polymerase is mainly responsible for DNA proofreading?
Pol I
166
The two key elements of the oriC include
three 13-bp repeats and four 9-bp repeats with enriched A-T pairs.
167
Which is the correct order of mRNA degradation?
(1) poly(A) tail removal; (2) 7-methylguanosine cap removal; (3) RNA hydrolysis
168
Which of the following is the most common type of DNA damage?
deamination of cytosine
169
Spending time in the sun is a possible cause of DNA damage because UV radiation
produces photoproducts.
170
The DNA alkylation of guanine is possible because the __________ of guanine is __________ and reacts rapidly with __________ alkylating agents.
- N-7;
- nucleophilic;
- electrophilic
171
Base excision repair removes which kind of bases?
those damaged by ROS
172
What is NOT a likely repair system used if a strand of DNA has a pyrimidine dimer?
mismatch repair
173
Methenyltetrahydrofolate (MTHF) absorbs light to form *MTHF. What does the star on MTHF signify?
excited
174
How many potential codons does the following mRNA sequence contain?
CUCUCUCUCUCUC
2
175
In what stage of the cell cycle does homologous recombination largely occur?
meiosis
176
An advantage of viral DNA using LTR to produce a four-nucleotide overhang on the 3′ end is to
help with alignment of the viral DNA to the host DNA.
177
Which class of RNA molecule is typically the shortest in length?
micro RNA
178
How are RNA structures different from protein structures?
RNA adopts less defined tertiary structures than proteins.
179
RNA is a dynamic biomolecule because it can
be a component in protein synthesis, regulate protein synthesis, and be synthesized and function in cell nucleus.
180
Of the following protein synthesizing RNA molecules, which codes for a protein?
mRNA
181
Long noncoding RNA (lncRNA) is generated from
the transcription of genomic DNA.
182
It has been estimated that as much as __________ % of the human genome is transcribed into noncoding RNA, whereas __________ % of the E. coli genome is noncoding RNA.
- 10;
| - 90
183
Ribosomal rRNA interacts with all EXCEPT __________ during the process of translation.
PABP
184
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase
has a common core structure resembling that of prokaryotic RNA polymerase.
185
The function of DNase I is that it
cuts double-stranded DNA by cutting phosphodiester bonds.
186
Approximately how many different types of RNA promotors are needed in eukaryotic systems?
3
187
In which direction is mRNA synthesized by RNA polymerase?
in the 5'-3' direction
188
Prokaryotic transcription could terminate by
RNA with GC stem loop structures.
189
A difference between transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes is the
addition of a poly(A) tail.
190
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase II facilitates the
addition of 7-methylguanylate cap.
191
Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism for modifying transcription factor activity?
ionic modification
192
Most post-transcriptional RNA processing reactions are catalyzed by
ribozymes.
193
Group I and group II introns are similar in their
requirement for metal ion cofactors.
194
The roles of U1, U2, U4, U5, and U6 in the spliceosome complex are to
bind mRNA and facilitate the splicing reaction.
195
More than 100 different RNA base modifications have been identified, and most of those are found in
tRNA.
196
Which is central to the addition of the 7-methylguanosine cap to mRNA?
guanine-N7 methyltransferase
197
Which enzyme is responsible for adding the poly(A) tail to mRNA?
poly(A) polymerase
198
Which enzyme degrades the poly(A) tail in the degradation of mRNA?
CCR4
199
Allolactose acts as a(n)
inducer by binding to the lac repressor and causing it to dissociate.
200
Many noncoding RNAs are involved in gene silencing. Gene silencing refers to
mechanisms inhibiting gene expression.
201
Which RNA molecule is expressed in the genome to regulate gene expression?
miRNA
202
Which of the following mRNA codons would NOT be recognized by a tRNA that is charged with an amino acid?
UAA
203
An analysis of noncanonical base pairings between the mc211-1.jpg-position of the tRNA anticodon and the mc211-2.jpg-position of the mRNA codon would show the pairing
I-U.
204
In yeast, the sugar galactose is converted to what molecule to enter glycolysis?
glucose-6-phosphate
205
Which component of the Nirenberg-Leder experiment, that assigned triplet codons to specific amino acids, was radioactively labeled?
aminoacyl-tRNA
206
The prokaryotic ribosome contains __________ subunits. The eukaryotic ribosome contains __________ subunits.
- 30S and 70S;
| - 40S and 60S
207
tRNA interacts with ribosomes at one of three sites: the E site, the P site, and the __________ site.
A
208
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence of mRNA base pairs with the __________ rRNA within the prokaryote __________ ribosomal subunit.
- 16S;
| - 30S
209
Stem cells can undergo two different pathways: cell __________ and cell __________.
- proliferation;
| - differentiation
210
tRNAs interact with the ribosome only after
the small and large subunits have come together.
211
What characteristics of eukaryotic mRNA are recognized through specific interactions during the formation of the translation initiation complex?
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
212
Prokaryotic mRNA will directly interact with __________ during translation.
release factors
213
Release factor hydrolyzes GTP during the __________ step of translation.
termination
214
Secondary downstream of the cap structure in the mRNA is unwound during the __________ step of translation.
initiation
215
After the initiation complex is complete, what occurs next in the process of translation?
EF-Tu.GTP AA-tRNA AA binding
216
All glycoproteins have __________ covalently added posttranslationally.
carbohydrates
217
Which protein would initially have been translated on free ribosomes?
histone subunit H2A
218
The phrase trans-acting factors is short for __________ factor protein.
transcription
219
The best description of how allosteric regulation works is that a ligand __________ the transcriptional regulatory protein, which __________ the protein’s affinity for DNA.
- binds to;
| - causes conformational changes that affect
220
Which of the following best describes when a pattern of gene expression is altered without change in the DNA sequence?
epigenetic states
221
IPTG causes the lac repressor to
dissociate from the DNA.
222
What by-product can be measured for in a cell if lacZ is being used as a reporter gene?
B-galactosidase
223
When running an assay for luciferase, what reporter gene has been inserted into the plasmid?
luc
224
A reporter gene can be defined as a gene that
has a product that is easy to detect.
225
Operons can be defined as units of DNA containing _________ gene(s) under control of __________ promotor(s).
- multiple;
| - one
226
When LexA is autocleaved by RecA*, the SOS genes
are activated.
227
Transcriptional elongation is favored by the trp operon when tryptophan levels are
low.
228
Which amino acid residues on histones are acetylated?
lysine
229
Histone acetylation leads to transcriptional activation by
decreasing the interaction between the histone tail and DNA.
230
When the lysine side chain in a histone is acetylated, the amino group is now
neutral.
231
The proteins encoded by GAL1, GAL2, GAL7, and GAL10 are all needed for converting __________ to glucose-6-phosphate.
galactose
232
Introducing Oct4, Sox2, c-Myc, or Klf4 into a differentiated cell causes
a pluripotent state.
233
What are the two main types of stem cells?
somatic and embryonic
234
iPS cells can be defined as __________ cells.
dedifferentiated
235
What are two medical applications that iPS could be used for?
type 1 diabetes and Parkinson’s
