Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Which NFPA® standard gives direction for establishing a driver/operator training program?
A
1451
2
Q
In general, to what vehicular statutes, laws, and ordinances is the driver/operator subject?
A
All statutes, laws, and ordinances that govern any vehicle operator
3
Q
What is the main purpose of the fire department pumper?
A
Providing water at an adequate pressure for fire streams
4
Q
Which type of pumper can be used to apply fire streams to the lower floors of a building?
A
Pumpers with elevating water devices
5
Q
An apparatus must carry at least ___ gallons (L) to be considered a mobile water supply apparatus.
A
1,000 gallons (4 000 L)
6
Q
Wildland fire apparatus:
A
are lightweight, highly maneuverable vehicles that can go places inaccessible to larger apparatus.
7
Q
What type of inspection begins at the driver’s door on the cab and works around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern?
A
Walk-around method
8
Q
Which of the following terms is defined as “the distance that the pedal must be pushed before the throw-out bearing actually contacts the clutch release fingers”?
A
Clutch free play
9
Q
On apparatus equipped with air brakes, the air pressure should build to a sufficient level to allow vehicle operations within ___ seconds of starting.
A
60
10
Q
What is the purpose of an apparatus electrical load management system?
A
Preventing an overload of the vehicle’s electrical generation system
11
Q
What is the function of an load sequencer?
A
Turning on various lights at specified intervals to prevent start-up overloading
12
Q
Before placing it back in service, what should the driver/operator do any time a fire pump has been operated at draft from a static water supply?
A
Flush the pump and piping.
13
Q
Which of the following statements about driving regulations is TRUE?
A
A. Fire apparatus driver/operators are exempt from rules and regulations governing other vehicle operators.
B. Emergency vehicles are exempt from laws requiring vehicles to stop for school buses that are flashing signal lights.
C. In some jurisdictions, statutes may exempt emergency vehicles from driving regulations when returning to quarters from an alarm.
D. If a driver/operator does not obey driving regulations and is involved in a collision, both the driver/operator and the fire department may be held responsible.*
14
Q
The first element in learning to drive safely is to:
A
develop a safety-conscious attitude.
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT an exception to the NFPA® 1500 seated and belted requirement?
A
A. When loading hose back onto a fire apparatus
B. When riding in enclosed cages on the front of a brush truck*
C. When providing patient care in the back of an ambulance
D. When performing training for personnel learning to drive a tiller
16
Q
Which of the following statements about backing a fire apparatus is TRUE?
A
A. Whenever possible, the driver/operator should avoid backing the apparatus.*
B. It is often faster to back the apparatus than to drive around the block and start again.
C. It is safer and easier to back the apparatus than to drive around the block and start again.
D. When backing is necessary, there should be at least two firefighters assigned to communicate with the driver/operator.
17
Q
What should be done if a driver/operator does not have or cannot see the spotters?
A
Do not back the apparatus.
18
Q
Which of the following defensive driving techniques is TRUE?
A
A. Know the rules that govern the general public when emergency vehicles are responding with warning lights and audible devices operating.*
B. It is safe to proceed into intersections if you have tripped the traffic signals and are certain that they are in your favor.
C. When proceeding through an intersection, wait for a go-ahead signal from each of the other drivers before proceeding.
D. Rely on warning sires, lights, and signals because they are most easily distinguishable from other warning devices and street noises.
19
Q
Which of the following is visual lead time?
A
A. The sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance
B. The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop
C. The scanning by driver/operators far enough ahead of the apparatus to ensure that evasive action can be taken if necessary*
D. The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping
20
Q
Which of the following is reaction distance?
A
A. The sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance
B. The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop
C. The scanning of driver/operators far enough ahead of the apparatus to ensure that evasive action can be taken if necessary
D. The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping*
21
Q
If the apparatus arrives at a location where no fire conditions are evident, where should the apparatus be positioned?
A
Near the main entrance to the occupancy
22
Q
What is the first tactical priority at any fire incident?
A
Life safety
23
Q
What size is the collapse zone?
A
One and one-half times the height of the building
24
Q
Which of the following is NOT an indicator of imminent building collapse?
A
A. Bulging walls
B. Large cracks in the exterior
C. Falling bricks, blocks, or mortar
D. Old and/or poorly maintained buildings*
25
When are drafting operations required?
When a pumper is going to be supplied from a static water supply
26
What is the difference between dual pumping and tandem pumping?
In tandem pumping the pumpers are positioned closely together
27
The boundary between the wildland and structural development is often referred to as:
wildland/urban interface.
28
Which of the following is a function of the rescue/squad apparatus?
Provide extra manpower on the fire scene
29
Where should mobile air supply apparatus be positioned?
Far away from the command post, so that firefighters are not in the way
30
Where should the EMS vehicle position on incidents where there are victims requiring intervention?
In the vicinity of the triage and treatment area
31
Level I staging is:
used for the initial response to a fire or other incident involving more than one responding company.
32
Level II staging is:
used when a large number of emergency vehicles are responding to the same incident.
33
Which of the following statements about responding to highway operations is TRUE?
A. Driver/Operators should never turn off all warning lights.
B. The siren should be used the entire time the apparatus is responding to the scene.
C. All warning lights should be used at the scene to prevent causing another accident.
D. The use of warning lights and sirens may create traffic conditions that actually slow the fire unit's response.*
34
Which hazardous materials control zone is also known as the support zone?
Cold zone
35
Which hazardous materials control zone is exposed to the gases, vapors, mists, dusts, or runoff of the material?
Hot zone
36
Which of the following statements about operating near railroads is TRUE?
A. Always treat a railroad track as a potentially active line.*
B. Only position the apparatus on the railroad tracks in emergencies.
C. Position the apparatus on the opposite side of the tracks as the incident when possible.
D. In extreme emergencies, stretch attack or supply lines across the railroad tracks.
37
Water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen formed when:
two hydrogen atoms combine with one oxygen atom.
38
For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is generally considered to weigh:
8.33 lb/gal (1kg/L)
39
What is specific heat?
A measure of the heat-absorbing capacity of a substance
40
What is a Btu?
The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1ºF
41
The latent heat of vaporization is:
The quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes from a liquid to a vapor
42
What is viscosity?
The tendency of a liquid to possess internal resistance to flow
43
What is specific gravity?
The density of liquids in relation to water
44
Force is defined as:
a measurement directly related to the force of gravity.
45
Elevation is:
the center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level.
46
Altitude is:
the position of an object above or below sea level.
47
What is water hammer?
The sudden stopping of water moving through a hose or pipe resulting in an energy surge being transmitted in the opposite direction, often at many times the original pressure
48
A fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is known as a:
dead-end hydrant.
49
A fire hydrant that receives water from two or more directions is known as a:
looped line.
50
What is the function of a valve in a water distribution system?
To provide a means for controlling the flow of water through the distribution piping
51
What is defined as “a stream of water or other extinguishing agent after it leaves a nozzle until it reaches the desired point”?
Fire stream
52
Which of the following is the formula for determining the flow from a solid stream nozzle?
29.7 × d2 × √NP (0.067 × d2 × √NP)
53
Which of the following is defined as “the line bounding a rounded surface”?
Periphery
54
Which type of fog nozzle maintains approximately the same nozzle pressure and pattern even if the gallonage supplied to the nozzle changes?
Automatic nozzles
55
Which type of fog nozzle has a number of constant flow settings, enabling the firefighter to select a flow rate that best suits the existing conditions?
Manually adjustable nozzles
56
Which type of fog nozzle supplies the selected flow at the rated nozzle discharge pressure?
Manually adjustable nozzles
57
hich type of fog nozzle develops a fog stream with considerable forward velocity but delivers a relatively low volume of water?
High-pressure nozzles
58
Which type of fog nozzle serves as a pressure regulator for the pumper as lines are added or shut down, ensuring that all available water may be used continuously?
Automatic nozzles
59
What is the definition of a master stream?
Any fire stream that is too large to be controlled without mechanical aid
60
Which type of master stream nozzle is mounted on a fire apparatus deck and is connected directly to the pump by permanent piping?
Turret pipes
61
Which type of master stream nozzle has preplumbed waterways instead of hose?
Elevated master streams
62
Which type of master stream nozzle has a siamese connection at the supply end?
Deluge sets
63
Which type of special purpose nozzle is commonly used in aircraft fire fighting and to apply water to areas that are otherwise inaccessible to water streams?
Piercing nozzle
64
Which type of special purpose nozzle produces a fan-shaped stream intended to protect combustible materials from the heat of an adjacent fire?
Water curtain nozzle
65
Which type of special purpose nozzle produces a very fine, misty fog cone?
Chimney nozzle
66
Nozzle reaction is:
the force pushing back on firefighters as water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure.
67
Which of the following is the formula for calculating nozzle reaction for solid stream nozzles?
A. 1.57 × d2 × NP (0.0015 × d2 × NP)*
B. 29.7 × d2 × √NP (0.067 × d2 × √NP)
C. 14.3 × Q × √NP (0.048 × Q × √NP)
D. 0.0505 × Q × NP (0.0156 × Q × NP)
68
Which of the following is the formula for calculating nozzle reaction for fog stream nozzles?
A. 1.57 × d2 × √NP (0.0015 × d2 × √NP)
B. 29.7 × d2 × √NP (0.067 × d2 × √NP)
C. 14.3 × Q × √NP (0.048 × Q × √NP)
D. 0.0505 × Q × √NP (0.0156 × Q × √NP)*
69
Why is it necessary to know the amount of friction and pressure loss in fire hose?
To produce effective fire streams
70
Which of the following is the equation for determining friction loss?
A. 0.5H
B. CQ2L*
C. 29.7 × d2
D. Flow rate (gpm or L/min) ÷ 100
71
Elevation pressure is created by elevation differences between:
the nozzle and the pump.
72
Which of the following is the equation for determining pump discharge pressure?
A. PDP = NP – TPL
B. PDP = NP + TPL*
C. PDP = NP × TPL
D. PDP = NP ÷ TPL
73
Which of the following is the equation for determining net pump discharge pressure?
A. PDP – Intake reading*
B. PDP + Intake reading
C. PDP × Intake reading
D. PDP ÷ Intake reading
74
Which of the following statements about hydraulic calculators is TRUE?
A. They are particularly advantageous when supplying hoselines or master stream devices equipped with automatic nozzles.
B. They make it possible for driver/operators to pump the correct volume of water to nozzles without having to know the length of hoseline.
C. They make it possible to feed a supply line without having to know the number of gallons (liters) flowing from the pumper receiving the water.
D. They enable the driver/operator to determine the pump discharge pressure required to supply a hose layout without having to perform tedious mental hydraulic calculations.*
75
What is the first step in developing a pump chart?
Identifying all nozzles, devices, and hose layouts used by the department
76
What is the GPM flowing method used to estimate?
Friction loss
77
To what size hoselines may the Condensed “Q” formula be applied?
2½-, 3-, 4-, and 5-inch
78
Positive displacement pumps have largely been replaced by ___ for use as the main fire pump on modern fire apparatus.
Centrifugal pumps
79
The operation of a centrifugal pump is based on the principle that:
a rapidly revolving disk throws water introduced at its center toward the outer edge of the disk.
80
What is changeover?
The process of switching between the pressure and volume position
81
Which pumps are powered by a gasoline or diesel engine independent of an engine used to drive the vehicle?
Auxiliary engine-driven pumps
82
Which pumps are supplied power through the use of a split-shaft gear case located in the drive line between the transmission and the rear axle?
Midship pumps
83
Piping systems must be able to withstand a hydrostatic test of ___ psi (kPa) before being placed into service.
500 psi (3 450 kPa)
84
Which types of automatic pressure control devices are sensitive to pressure change and have the ability to relieve excessive pressure within the pump discharge?
Discharge pressure relief valves
85
Which types of automatic pressure control devices relieve excess pressure that is generally caused by shutting down one or more operating hoselines?
Pressure governors
86
Which type of primer primes the pump by connecting a line from the intake manifold of the engine to the intake of the fire pump with a valve connected in the line to control it?
Vacuum primers
87
Which pump panel instrument provides an indication of the vacuum present at the intake of the pump during priming?
Master intake gauge
88
Which pump panel instrument shows that an adequate supply of oil is being delivered to the critical areas of the engine that is powering the fire pump?
Pumping engine oil pressure indicator
89
Which pump panel instrument indicates actual pressure applied to hoselines?
Pump pressure indicator
90
The process for making the fire pump operational begins:
after the apparatus has been properly positioned and the parking brake has been set.
91
Which of the following is a danger of operating at negative pressure from a fire hydrant?
Increases the possibility of damage to the source pumper due to cavitation
92
The best hydrants are located:
on large water mains that are interconnected in a grid pattern.
93
A reverse lay is used so that ___ can be made before laying a supply line.
size-up
94
The most important factor in the choice of the draft site is the ___ of water available.
amount
95
The most common cause of inability to prime is:
an air leak.
96
Which of the following is a problem that may occur while operating from a draft?
Air leak on the intake side of the pump
97
The water supply for sprinkler systems is designed to supply ___ of the total number of sprinklers on the system.
only a fraction
98
For what type of structure are standpipes commonly used to speed fire attack?
Multistory or single-story buildings with large floor areas
99
Which of the following is the equation for determining pressure correction?
A. Lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 2.3 (lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 0.1)*
B. Lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 3.2 (lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 0.7)
C. Lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 4.5 (lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 1.2)
D. Lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 5.4 (lift + total intake hose friction loss ÷ 2.1)
100
Which of the following is the equation for determining net pump discharge pressure at draft?
```
A. PDP + Intake pressure correction*
B. PDP – Intake pressure correction
C. PDP × Intake pressure
orrection
D. PDP ÷ Intake pressure correction
```
101
Which of the following is the equation for determining the adequacy of a small stream?
A. 1.13Hg ([0.013 56][Hg])
B. A × V × 7.5 (A × V × 1 000)*
C. L × W × D × 7.5 (L × W × D × 7.5)
D. 14.3 × Q × √NP (0.048 × Q × √NP)
102
A depth of ___ feet (meters) of water is suggested above and below a barrel-type strainer.
2 feet (0.6 m)
103
Which of the following is the equation for determining the capacity of a square/rectangular pool?
A. A × V × 7.5 (A × V × 1 000)
B. L × W × D × 7.5 (L × W × D × 1 000)*
C. × r2 × D × 7.5 ( × r2 × D × 7.5)
D. 14.3 × Q × √NP (0.048 × Q × √NP)
104
Which of the following is the pumper connected to the water supply at the beginning of the relay operation?
A. Source pumper*
B. Relay pumper
C. In-line pumper
D. Attack pumper
105
Which of the following is the pumper connected within the relay that receives water from the source pumper, boosts the pressure, and then supplies water to the next apparatus in the relay?
A. Source pumper
B. Relay pumper*
C. Supply pumper
D. Hose tender
106
Which of the following enhance firefighter safety and reduce the possibility of damage to the pump caused by water hammer?
A. LDH valves
B. Bleeder valves
C. In-line relay valves
D. Intake pressure relief valves*
107
A relay operation is based on which two things?
Amount of water required and distance from the scene to water
108
What is the maximum distance relay method?
A method that involves flowing a predetermined volume of water for the maximum distance that it can be pumped through a particular hose lay
109
Which of the following equations is used to calculate the number of pumpers needed to relay a given amount of water?
A. (Relay distance ÷ Distance from Table 13.1 or 13.2) + 1*
B. (Relay distance × Distance from Table 13.1 or 13.2) + 1
C. (Relay distance + Distance from Table 13.1 or 13.2) + 1
D. (Relay distance – Distance from Table 13.1 or 13.2) + 1
110
What is the constant pressure relay method?
A method that provides the maximum flow available from a particular relay setup by using a constant pressure in the system
111
Which of the following is an advantage of the constant pressure relay method?
A. Speeds relay activation*
B. Reduces amount of water needed
C. Increases radio traffic between pump operators
D. Requires complicated calculations that simplify pressure regulation
112
A relay pumping operation always begins with the:
source pumper.
113
Which of the following statements about water shuttle operations is TRUE?
A. Water shuttle operations may create a dramatic hose failure.
B. Water shuttle operations are safer than relay pumping operations.
C. Water shuttle operations are less labor intensive than relay pumping operations.*
D. Water shuttle operations provide a more reliable continuous water supply than relay pumping operations.
114
Which type of apparatus are positioned at the water supply source and used to fill empty water tenders?
Fill site pumpers
115
Which type of tank discharges employ the use of a small diameter in-line discharge that is inserted into the piping of the large tank discharge?
Jet-assisted dumps
116
Which of the following is NOT a decision that must be made at the beginning of an incident?
Route of travel between station and incident
117
The best fill and dump sites are those in which the water tenders:
drive straight in from one direction, fill or dump, then proceed straight out.
118
The route of travel selected for a shuttle operation should reflect:
both safety and operational efficiency.
119
The ideal fill position is one that:
allows the driver/operator to enter and exit the fill site without turning around or backing up.
120
When should the fill site be shut down?
When the decision has been made that the operation is no longer necessary and all tenders participating in the shuttle have been refilled
121
Which of the following is the equation for determining the travel time of a shuttle operation?
A. 0.65 + (1.7)(Distance in miles) [0.65 + (1.06)(Distance in km)]*
B. 0.82 + (1.48)(Distance in feet) [0.82 + (2.56)(Distance in m)
C. 0.17 + (6.5)(Average travel speed) [0.17 + (8.2)(Average travel speed)]
D. 0.65 + (1.07)(Maximum travel speed) [0.65 + (1.60)(Maximum travel speed)]
122
Which of the following is the device that introduces foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution?
A. Foam
B. Foam solution
C. Foam concentrate
D. Foam proportioner*
123
Which of the following is the mixture of foam concentrate and water before the introduction of air?
A. Foam
B. Foam solution*
C. Foam concentrate
D. Foam proportioner
124
Which of the following is NOT needed to produce quality fire fighting foam?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Vacuum pumps*
D. Mechanical aeration
125
Which method of proportioning uses an external pump or head pressure to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the correct ratio in comparison to the flow?
Injection
126
Which of the following foam storage methods are found on municipal and industrial pumpers, foam tenders, and ARFF apparatus?
A. Pails
B. Totes
C. Barrels
D. Apparatus tanks*
127
Which of the following would be a typical use for Class B foam?
A. Structure fire
B. Coal mine fire
C. Wildland fire
D. Combustible liquid fire*
128
Which of the following is based on fluoroprotein foam technology with AFFF capabilities?
A. Fluoroprotein foam
B. High expansion foam
C. Aqueous film forming foam
D. Film forming fluoroprotein foam*
129
Which of the following has a low water content, which minimizes water damage?
A. Fluoroprotein foam
B. High expansion foam*
C. Aqueous film forming foam
D. Film forming fluoroprotein foam
130
Which of the following is completely synthetic?
A. Fluoroprotein foam
B. Regular protein foam
C. High expansion foam
D. Aqueous film forming foam*
131
Which of the following operate on the same principle as the in-line eductor, but the eductor is built into the nozzle rather than into the hoseline?
A. Jet ratio controllers
B. In-line foam eductors
C. Foam nozzle eductors*
D. Self-educting master stream foam nozzles
132
Which of the following are designed to be either directly attached to the pump panel discharge or connected at some point in the hose lay?
A. Jet ratio controllers
B. In-line foam eductors*
C. Foam nozzle eductors
D. Self-educting master stream foam nozzles
133
Which of the following consist of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump?
A. Batch mixing
B. Around-the-pump proportioners*
C. Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioners
D. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection systems
134
Which of the following use the same principles of operation as do portable in-line eductors, but are attached to the apparatus pumping system?
A. Batch mixing
B. Installed in-line eductor systems*
C. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection systems
D. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioners
135
Which of the following have a variable-speed mechanism that drives a foam concentrate pump?
A. Batch mixing
B. Installed in-line eductor systems
C. Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection systems
D. Variable-flow demand-type balanced pressure proportioners*
136
Which of the following is an advantage of CAFS?
A. A CAFS produces large air bubbles.
B. A CAFS does not add expense to a vehicle.
C. A CAFS provides a safer fire suppression action.*
D. A CAFS does not require additional training for personnel.
137
Which portable foam application devices are limited to Class A, CAFS applications?
Smoothbore nozzles
138
Which portable foam application devices break the foam solution into tiny droplets and use the agitation of water droplets moving through air to achieve the foaming action?
Fog nozzles
139
Which portable foam application devices are required to deliver adequate amounts of foam on large-scale flammable and combustible liquid fires?
Master stream foam nozzles
140
Which foam application technique may be employed when a vertical surface is near or within the area of a pool of ignitable liquid?
Bank-down method
141
Which foam application technique directs the foam stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pool or spill?
Roll-on method
142
T or F: The primary concern to the environment of Class A and Class B foams is the impact of finished foam after it has been applied to a fire or spill.
True
143
Durable agents are:
water-absorbent polymers.
144
If the requirements of NPFA® 1901 are included in the apparatus bid specifications, which two tests must be performed by the manufacturer?
The road test and the hydrostatic test
145
In a road test, the apparatus must accelerate to ___ mph (km/h) from a standing start within 25 seconds.
35 mph (56 km/h)
146
In a road test, the apparatus must come to a full stop from 20 mph (32 km/h) within ___ feet (m).
35 feet (10.7 m)
147
Which of the following is the equation for determining the correct pump discharge pressure during pumper service tests?
A. Lift (ft.) + intake hose friction loss ÷ 2.3 [Lift (m) + intake hose friction loss ÷ 0.1]*
B. Lift (ft.) + intake hose friction loss ÷ 3.2 [Lift (m) + intake hose friction loss ÷ 1.0]
C. Lift (ft.) – intake hose friction loss ÷ 2.3 [Lift (m) – intake hose friction loss ÷ 0.1]
D. Lift (ft.) × intake hose friction loss ÷ 2.3 [Lift (m) × intake hose friction loss ÷ 0.1]
148
Which service test is performed to check the priming device, pump, and hard intake hose for air leaks?
Vacuum test
149
Which service test checks the overall condition of the engine and the pump?
Pumping test
150
Which service test ensures that the piping between the water tank and pump is sufficient to supply the minimum amount of water specified by NFPA® 1901?
Tank-to-pump flow test
