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Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A thermophilic Campylobacter grows best at an incubator temperature of:

A

A. 25 °C
B. 35 °C
C. 37 °C
D. 42 °C

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2
Q

Aerobic

A

A. Best growth at reduced O2 tension
B. Best growth in O2
C. Best growth without O2
D. May grow in O2 or without O2

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3
Q

Microaerophillic

A

A. Best growth at reduced O2 tension
B. Best growth in O2
C. Best growth without O2
D. May grow in O2 or without O2

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4
Q

Anaerobic

A

A. Best growth at reduced O2 tension
B. Best growth in O2
C. Best growth without O2
D. May grow in O2 or without O2

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5
Q

Facultative

A

A. Best growth at reduced O2 tension
B. Best growth in O2
C. Best growth without O2
D. May grow in O2 or without O2

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6
Q

The temperature required for autoclave sterilization is:

A

A. 15 °C
B. 37 °C
C. 100 °C
D. 121 °C

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7
Q

Differential media

A

A. Inhibits normal flora, pathogens may grow
B. Differentiate bacteria by appearance on plate
C. Complex media, allow only growth of one or two organisms
D. None of the above

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8
Q

Selective media

A

A. Inhibits normal flora, pathogens may grow
B. Differentiate bacteria by appearance on plate
C. Complex media, allow only growth of one or two organisms
D. None of these

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9
Q

The best media for transport of specimens suspected of containing Neisseria:

A

A. Cary-Blair
B. Stuart’s
C. Transgrow
D. None of these

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10
Q

The following specimen must be processed immediately. Not refrigerated:

A

A. Urine
B. Stool
C. Sputum
D. CSF

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11
Q

The purpose of an ARD in a blood culture bottle:

A

A. Anticoagulant
B. Remove antibiotics from sample
C. Osmotic stabilizer
D. Increase CO2 content

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12
Q

A stool culture should be inoculated onto media selective for:

A 
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Neisseria
D. Haemophilis
E. A & B
F. C & D
G. All of the above
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13
Q

Organism(s) suspected to be found in CSF:

A 
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Neisseria
D. Haemophilis
E. A & B
F. C & D
G. All of the above
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14
Q

Less than 25 WBC’s and greater than 10 epithelial cells describes class _______ sputum and should be _______.

A

A. I, accepted
B. I, rejected
C. III, accepted
D. III, rejected

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15
Q

The following specimen should be inoculated with a calibrated loop in order to count CFU’s:

A

A. Urine
B. Respiratory
C. Stool
D. Wound

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16
Q

Resazurin is:

A

A. White in presence of O2, blue in absence
B. Blue in presence of O2, white in absence
C. Red in presence of O2, white in absence
D. White in presence of O2, red in absence

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17
Q

Mordant in the gram stain procedure:

A

A. Crystal violet
B. Gram’s iodine
C. Alcohol
D. Safranin

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18
Q

Basic dye in the gram stain procedure:

A

A. Crystal violet
B. Gram’s iodine
C. Alcohol
D. Safranin

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19
Q

Decolonizer in the gram stain procedure:

A

A. Crystal violet
B. Gram’s iodine
C. Alcohol
D. Safranin

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20
Q

Counterstain in the gram stain procedure:

A

A. Crystal violet
B. Gram’s iodine
C. Alcohol
D. Safranin

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21
Q

Gram negative organisms stain _____ with the gram stain.

A

A. Purple
B. Red or pink
C. Colorless
D. None of the above

22
Q

The following is not an anaerobic technique:

A

A. PRAS roll tube
B. Glove-box
C. Anaerobic jar
D. CO2 incubator

23
Q

A direct smear of CSF reveals gram-positive, lancet-shaped diplococci. The organism is most likely:

A 
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Haemophilis influenzae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Streptococcus pneumonia
24
Q

On blood agar plates, gamma type streptococcal colonies are surrounded by an area of:

A

A. Total hemolysis
B. Greenish discoloration
C. No change
D. Blackening

25
A gram stain of CSF revealed gram-negative diplococci. The most likely organism would be:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Listeria monocytogenes
26
The pathogenic bacterium most frequently isolated from throat cultures is:
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Streptococcus pyogenes
27
A gram+ cocci showing hemolysis on blood agar and exhibiting the production of catalase and coagulase would be:
``` A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Group A Beta Strep E. None of the above ```
28
Bacitracin susceptibility is an aid in the identification of:
A. Enterococcus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Alpha Strep D. Beta Strep (group A)
29
The best characteristic for distinguishing Streptococcus pneumoniae from Alpha Strep (Streptococcus viridans) is:
A. Colonial morphology B. Hemolysis on blood agar C. Coagulase D. Optochin susceptibility
30
The indophenol oxidase test is important in the identification of:
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Brucella abortus C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Listeria monocytogenes
31
A good way to distinguish between Staph and Strep biochemically is:
A. Coagulase B. Catalase C. Bile esculin hydrolysis D. Optochin
32
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a fastidious bacterium which may be difficult to isolate. What media would be most helpful?
A. Chocolate B. Blood C. Thayer-Martin D. Loeffler’s serum
33
Neisseria meningitidis is an important pathogen which may be identified by the following criteria:
``` A. Oxidase + , glucose + B. Oxidase - , glucose - C. Oxidase + , glucose + , lactose + D. Oxidase - , glucose + , maltose + E. Oxidase + , glucose + , maltose + ```
34
Delayed sequelae or allergic type phenomena such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis are most often related to repeated infections with:
A. Group A streptococci B. Group B streptococci C. Staphylococci D. Pneumococci
35
The following antibiotic is not present as an inhibitor in modified Thayer-Martin media:
A. Penicillin B. Vancomycin C. Nystatin D. Colistin
36
The following test is used to detect organisms resistant to penicillins:
A. Bacitracin B. Optochin C. Oxidase D. Beta-lactamase
37
What is a characteristic of Neisseria?
A. Needs chocolate agar for growth B. Needs high CO2 content for growth C. Needs high humidity for growth D. All of the above
38
Gram positive cocci in chains would most likely be:
A. Staph B. Strep C. Neisseria D. Branhamella
39
Organism that belongs to Lancefield Group B:
A. S. agalactiae B. S. pyogenes C. S. faecalis D. S. bovis
40
This organism may exhibit the PYR reaction:
A. S. pneumoniae B. S. pyogenes C. S. agalactiae D. S. aureus
41
This may be used to differentiate Enterococcus from non-enterococcus Group D Strep:
``` A. Salt tolerance B. Antibiotic susceptibility C. PYR D. A & B E. All of the above ```
42
This organism would best be isolated on a Manntiol salt plate:
A. S. pneumoniae B. S. pyogenes C. S. epidermidis D. S. aureus
43
The lowest concentration of antibiotic that prevents the in vitro growth of bacteria is:
A. MBC B. MIC C. SBL D. None of the above
44
On MacConkey agar, the colonies of lactose fermenters will be:
A. Pink B. Blue C. Yellow D. Clear
45
The best biochemical test for differentiating between Enterobacter and Klebsiella:
A. Indole B. Citrate C. Motility D. TSI reaction
46
A typical E. coli reaction would be:
A. TSI: A/A, citrate (+), indole (+), motile B. TSI: A/A, citrate (-), indole (+), variable motility C. TSI: A/A, citrate (-), indole (-), nonmotile D. TSI: ALK/A, citrate (-), indole (+), variable motility
47
A colony on blood agar exhibiting a brick-red pigment is probably:
A. E. coli B. Serratia C. Klebsiella D. Enterobacter
48
Situation: A gram-negative rod has produced an alkaline slant and acid butt on triple sugar iron agar. What sugar has been fermented?
A. Glucose B. Sucrose C. Lactose D. Maltose
49
An enteric gram-negative bacillus which produces colorless colonies on MacConkey and an alkaline slant and acid butt on TSI DOES NOT ferment:
A. Glucose B. Lactose C. Sucrose D. Maltose
50
Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae characteristically:
A. Are oxidase positive B. Ferment glucose C. Hydrolyze urea D. Utilize citrate
51
Proteus vulgaris is differentiated from Proteus mirabilis by:
A. Phenylalanine deaminase B. H2S production C. Indole D. None of the above

Medical Microbiology (1 decks)

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