Final Exam Cumulative Flashcards
(262 cards)
1
Q
A group of cells with a similar function that work together are called
A
Tissues
2
Q
Which cavities are present within the abdominopelvic cavity?
A
The pelvic cavity and abdominal cavity
3
Q
The organ system that gives your body structure is the
A
Skeletal system
4
Q
The back is ____ to the abdomen
A
Dorsal
5
Q
This kind of section separates right and left portions of the body in anatomical positions but misses the midline.
A
Parasagittal section
6
Q
Most of the ascending colon is in the _____ region
A
Right lumbar
7
Q
Which of the following functions of the epithelial tissue aids in digestion?
A
Secretion and release of mucus and specific chemical compounds
8
Q
Tissue that connects muscle to bone
A
Tendon
9
Q
Having a matrix is a characteristic of which type of tissue?
A
Connective
10
Q
The urinary bladder is an organ that due to its function is required to be constantly contracting and expanding (relaxing). What type of epithelium is present therefore in this organ?
A
Transitional epithelium
11
Q
When epithelial cells are flat they are referred to as ____ cells.
A
Squamous cells
12
Q
The epidermis consists of stratified squamous epithelium. Which cell type found within these layers are a type of macrophage?
A
Langerhan cells
13
Q
Karen was outside in the hot Miami weather. When she came into the Green Library, she felt a rush of cold air, developing shivers and goosebumps. What structure caused these goosebumps?
A
Arrector pili muscles
14
Q
How many layers of dermis is present in thick skin
A
2
papillary layer and reticular layer
15
Q
If a needle pokes your skin and results in instant bleeding, which skin layer has the needle reached?
A
Papillary layer of the dermis
16
Q
Which is the last layer of skin in which the cells are still living?
A
Stratum granulosum
17
Q
Layers of the epidermis form the deepest to most superficial are:
A
stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
18
Q
When a fracture is not given the correct medical treatment and therefore does not heal properly, bone formation begins to form at the area of fracture. What cell contributes to this bone formation?
A
Osteoblasts
19
Q
What is the correct order of events for bone remodeling?
A
resorption, deposition, osteocyte mineralization
20
Q
In an adult, the epiphysis is separated from the diaphysis by the:
A
Epiphyseal line
21
Q
Estrogen is a hormone that aids in the absorption of calcium. When a woman reaches menopause, the production of estrogen is greatly reduced. Mary recently reached menopausal age and was advised to take a calcium supplement to reduce her risk of Osteoporosis. How can menopause affect Mary’s bones?
A
Osteoclasts will begin to break down calcium stored within the bone which can cause osteoporosis
22
Q
The functional unit of a bone is known as an
A
osteon
23
Q
Which bone feature is where one can find the olfactory nerve and what bone can it be found on?
A
Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
24
Q
Amanda was recently driving and was involved in a T-bone car accident. As the other car struck her passenger side, Amanda’s head hit against the side window located on the driver’s door. Which part of the skull would, most likely, be the areas where she could have sustained injuries?
A
Temporal and parietal bones
25
Which two bones/ bone features come together to form the nasal septum?
The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and the vomer
26
The ____ suture separates the frontal and parietal bones of the skull.
The coronal suture
27
Scoliosis occurs from
over-curvature laterally
28
Which bone has the linea aspera as one of the bone features?
femur
29
The head of the femur articulates with the
acetabulum
30
The head of the fibula articulates with the
posterior proximal part of the tibia
31
Which of the following bone(s) articulates with the femur?
tibia
fibula does not!
32
Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia?
talus
33
Joints and upper limb skeleton
*****
34
Which protein covers the active sites of the thin filaments, and therefore prevents muscle contraction?
Tropomyosin
35
Which statement defines etensibility?
The ability to continue to contract over a range of resting lengths
36
Which of the following is a main characteristic of a skeletal muscle fiber?
Striated appearance
37
The perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that:
Divides the muscle into a series of internal compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fasicle
38
Aponeurosis connects
Muscle to muscle as well as muscle to bone
39
The orbicularis oris muscle is an example of a
Circular muscle
40
The ____ muscle, named for its two bellies, opens the mouth
Digastric
41
Which of the following muscles raises the upper limb?
Levator labii superioris
42
The largest muscle of the upper back is the
Trapezius
43
Amanda has dimples. Dimples are an inherited trait caused by a shortened muscle which leads to a small depression in the flesh, either one that exists permanently or one that forms in the cheeks when one smiles. Which muscle causes this efffect?
Zygomaticus major
44
Dorsiflexion of the foot involves the
Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus and the extensor hallucis longus
45
What bone feature does the gluteus maximus insert on?
Gluteal tuberosity
46
Flexion at the knee involves which muscle?
Semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris, sartorius
47
in addition to flexing the knee, the sartorius:
flexes and laterally rotates the hip
48
In addition to flexing the knee, the sartorius:
Flexes and laterally rotates the hip
49
Adduction at the wrist involves contraction of the
flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris
50
Adduction at the wrist involves contraction of the
Flexor carpi ulnaris & extensor carpi ulnaris
51
Which action is performed by most of the muscles located on the anterior compartment of the forearm
Flexion
52
Which of the following retracts the scapula?
Rhomboid minor
53
The glial cells that destroy microorganisms in the CNS are:
microglia
54
The glial cells that destroy microorganisms in the CNS are:
Microglia
55
The glial cells that help to form cerebrospinal fluid are the
Ependymal cells
56
When the membrane potential of a cell membrane becomes more positive than the resting potential, one can say that the membrane has become
depolarized
57
When the membrane potential of a cell membrane becomes more positive than the resting potential, one can say that the membrane has become
Depolarized
58
Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system is:
Faster and more specific
59
Which of these is NOT a region of the spinal cord?
lumbar
thoracic
pelvic
cervical
Pelvic
60
In the spinal cord, the somas of the lower motor neurons are found in the:
Anterior horns
61
The ______ is the outermost meninx, and forms supportive and protective partitions between some portions of the brain
dura mater
62
The ______ is the outermost meninx, and forms supportive and protective partitions between some portions of the brain
Dura mater
63
The longest nerve that innervates the digestive system is the:
vagus nerve
64
The longest nerve that innervates the digestive system is the:
Vagus nerve
65
The superior trunk originates from the branches of which cervical nerve
C5 and C6
66
The sciatic nerve eventually branches into which nerves?
common fibular and tibial nerves
67
The inferior trunk gives rise to which cords?
medial and posterior
68
Which of the following structures connects the third and fourth ventricles?
aqueduct of the midbrain
69
Which structure communicates the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
Interventricular foramen
70
Which of the following separates the motor information from sensory information?
Central sulcus
71
The axon of the Purkinje cells are located in the
Granular cell layer
72
The cell body of the Purkinje cells are located in the
Purkinje cell layer
73
Which cranial nerve has a cranial root and a spinal root
Accessory nerve CNXI
74
Which cranial nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid?
Accessory
75
This nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle:
Trochlear nerve CN IV
76
The abducens nerve supplies innervation to the
lateral rectus muscle of the eye
77
The larger the receptive field, the ____ it is to localize the simulus
more difficult
78
Which of these types of receptors responds to pain stimuli
nociceptors
79
Which type of general sense receptor detects pressure changes in walls of blood vessels and in portions of the digestive, reproductive and urinary tracts?
Mechanoreceptors
80
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by:
nociceptors
81
Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are:
Externoreceptors
82
Which structure contains the utricle and saccule?
Vestibule
83
Olfactory glands function to:
secrete mucus
84
The scientific term for "blind spot" is
optic disc
85
The area of the eye with the greatest visual acuity (sharpest vision) is the
fovea centralis
86
The receptors of olfaction are found in the:
olfactory epithelium
87
Ventricular systole happens:
in a wave that begins at the apex and spreads toward the base
88
The "lubb" sound heard with a stethoscope is caused by:
Turbulence in the blood when the AV valves close
89
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
closure of the heart valves
90
Which of the following is NOT part of the conduction system of the heart?
AV valve
AV node
SA node
Bundle of His
AV valve
91
Where are pacemaker cells found?
SA Node
92
Foramen Ovale
connects the two atria in a fetal heart
93
Which structure prevents backflow into the left atrium?
bicuspid valve
94
Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the:
papillary muscles
95
Which structure is known as AV valve with two flaps?
bicuspid valve
96
Which structure prevents backflow into the left ventricle?
aortic valve
97
The femoral artery originates from the:
external iliac artery
98
The left internal carotid artery carries blood from the:
Common carotid artery to the brain
99
A special feature of fenestrated capillaries is that they have:
Pores
100
The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the:
Descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum
101
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning blood circulation?
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
102
A thick midline ridge in the thyroid cartilage that is sometimes referred to as the Adam's apple is technically named the:
Laryngeal prominence
103
The ridge found at the bifurcation of the trachea is called the:
Carina
104
The larynx is composed of _______ big pieces of cartilage: ____ ______ cartilage, and ____ _______ cartilage.
3: 2 hyaline and 1 elastic
105
The __________ separates the nasal and oral cavities.
Palate
106
The ___________ is lined by squamous epithelium.
Oropharynx
107
The ___________ is lined by squamous epithelium.
Oropharynx
108
What salivary gland is responsible for producing a majority of our saliva and what kind of saliva is produced?
Submandibular; serous and mucous
109
In the muscular layer of the digestive system, which of the following stimulate contraction?
Myenteric neural plexus
110
Which structure of the teeth is most similar to bone?
Dentine
111
Which mesentery attaches the liver to the diaphragm?
Falciform ligament
112
Which layer of the esophagus is exposed to the lumeb?
Mucosa
113
The greater omentum is attached to the ______ of the stomach.
Greater curvature
114
Within the stomach lining, ____ cells secrete hydrochloric acid.
Parietal
115
The bile originating from the right and left hepatic ducts must pass through which ducts to reach the gallbladder?
Common hepatic duct, common bile duct, cystic duct
116
Production of bile is one of several important functions of the
Liver
117
Which three components make up the Porta Hepatis
Hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein, common bile duct
118
What structure transports urine from the kidney to the bladder?
Ureter
119
Which muscle compresses the urinary bladder to remove the urine inside?
Detrusor muscle
120
The _____ is the functional unit of the kidney
Nephron
121
Which structure anchors the kidney to surrounding structures?
Renal fascia
122
The renal pyramids are located within the
Medulla
123
What collects spermatozoa from the rete testis and transports them into the head of the epididymis:
Efferent ductules
124
Outline the correct pathway of sperm to travel.
1. Rete Testis
2. Epididymis
3. Seminiferous Tubules
4. Ejactulatory Duct
5. Vas Deferens
6. Efferent Ductules
3 --> 1 --> 6 --> 2 --> 5 --> 4
125
Frank has been outside playing basketball in 101°F weather. Describe the appearance of his testicles from your understanding of their muscular anatomy.
They are father from his body and smooth because the muscles are relaxed.
126
Which is the main gland responsible for neutralizing the acidity of the urethra and the vagina?
Seminal gland
127
The ________ hormone triggers the contraction of smooth muscles in the walls of lactiferous ducts & sinuses, which eject milks out of the nipple.
Oxytocin
128
Fertilization most likely occurs at the
Ampulla of the uterine tubule
129
This structure in females is homologous to the corpus cavernosum in males:
Citoris
130
This phase consists of the destruction of the endometrium. Arteries of the region will constrict blood flow and cause cells of endometrium to die. Which phase is it?
Menstruation
131
A person falls on the lateral side of his thigh. Which of the following bone features are most likely to have fractured?
Greater trochanter of the femur
132
Using long bone features, how could you determine the age of an individual?
Using the epiphyseal plate
133
Which bone represents the smallest portion of the orbit?
Palatine
134
Which bone feature does the head of the rib articulate with?
Superior costal facet
135
Choose the type of rib and number of ribs that matches
Vertebrosternal; 7
136
Which of the following include only facial bones?
Maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatic, lacrimals
137
The sagittal suture is the boundary between which bones?
Left and right parietal bones
138
Which of the following vertebral curvatures is (are) convex anteriorly?
Both cervical and lumbar
139
Which of the following is false when discussing the vertebrae?
Thoracic vertebrae contain transverse foramen
140
Lumbar vertebrae can hold the ___ weight
most
141
The intervertebral disc between the atlas and axis
does not exist
142
All thoracic vertebrae have
costal facets
143
Which of the following cell type is found in the epidermis?
Langerhan cells
NOT mast cells, eosinophils, neutrophils, or fibroblasts
144
Which of the following functions of the skin is correct?
Pain is a cutaneous sensation that is caused by tissue damage
145
Melanie has darker skin than Michael. What is likely the explanation for this?
Melanie spends more time in the sun than Michael because it can not be caused by more melanocytes/ more melanin produced by melanocytes
146
Julia explains to her friend that the integument is composed of skin and its derivatives, like hair, nails, and glands. That the skin is formed by the epidermis, dermis and hypodermis, She describes the epidermis as having four layers in thin skin and the dermis as having a papillary and reticular region. She asserts that the dermis is located above the subcutaneous layer. What is incorrect about this statement?
She inaccurately describes the formation of the skin
147
An accident report submitted by an officer who is a former anatomy student contains the following statement: "The victim suffered a severe blow to the brachial region." This means
The victim was struck in the arm
148
In regards to the abdominopelvic region, which of the following is correctly matched?
Epigastric region and gallbladder
149
In clinical settings several diagnostic techniques may be used. Which of the ones listed below is commonly used to check if your immune system has been activated due to a viral infection?
Palpitation
150
Which life process listen below is used to describe what happens to the sperm as it searches for the egg inside of the female body?
Movement
151
Phalanges are considered to be ___ to the humerus
distal
152
A ____ section of the body or organ would reveal its right and left side.
Sagittal
153
Which of the following are examples of irregular bones?
vertebrae, coxal bone, calcaneus
154
The function of an osteoprogenitor cell in osseous tissue is to:
Produce new osteoblasts
155
What is the mechanism of marrow cavity enlargement in a long bone?
As bone matrix is added to the external surface, osteoclasts remove matrix in the center of the bone to enlarge the cavity
156
The connective tissue covering the inner surface of a bone is (the)
endosteum
157
Which of the following works with calcitriol to maintain bone homeostasis
Parathyroid hormone
158
Which of the following bone markings are present in the articulation between two bones?
Condyles, facets and heads
159
Which of the following is false regarding ossification?
Intramembranous ossification is a much more complicated process than endochondral ossification
160
Stuart has a bacterial infection. What cell type(s) will most likely have high concentrations?
Neutrophils, macrophages, and mast cells
161
An oncologist biopsied a portion of a patient's stomach to determine if cancer was present. When looking under a microscope what would constitute normal stomach tissue?
Single layer of rectangle-like cells***
162
Which of the following type of exocrine gland releases fluid through exoytosis?
Eccrine
163
Which connective tissue cell will secrete the ground substance?
Fibroblasts
164
Which of the following statements about epithelial tissue is true?
Unlike epithelial tissue, connective tissue is highly vascularized
165
Which cell junction is formed by the presence of connexons which allow the passage of ions in muscle tissue?
Gap junctions
166
Directing immediate response to stimuli, usually by coordinating the activities of other organ systems is the function of the
nervous system
167
The skin is formed by
epidermis and dermis
168
Which of the following is the highest level of organization?
Organs
169
The basement membrane is formed by
Basal and reticular lamina
170
The urinary bladder is located in which cavity
Pelvic
171
Which structure is located in the central canal of the osteon?
Blood vessels
172
Which pairing of organ system and organ is correct?
Digestive; pharynx
173
The mandibular fossa articulates with the ____ located in the ____ bone
Mandibular condyle; mandible
174
In compact bone, osteocytes are present inside structures called:
Lacuna
175
Muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limbs are organized into all of the following groups except:
muscles that move the pectoral girdle
176
Which statement about the intercostals is correct?
The internal intercostals depress the ribs when it contracts
177
The superior articular facet of the atlas articulates with which bone?
Occipital condyles
178
Which epidermal layer is found in thick skin only?
Stratum lucidum
179
What type of epithelium makes up the endothelium of blood vessels?
Simple squamous
180
Which of the following structures can most easily be felt dorsally?
Spinous process
181
Which of the following is a tendon characteristic
Consists of collagen fibers
182
When pedaling your bike, which of the following movements are NOT being performed?
Abduction at the hip
183
The olecranon articulates with the ___ when it is in the ____ position
olecranon fossa; extended
184
Which of the following is paired correctly with regards to the structure that forms the joint?
Cranial suture, fibrous
185
The lateral femoral condyle will articulate with which bone feature?
lateral tibial condyle
186
Which of the articulations below are considered to be biaxial?
saddle and condylar
187
Muscles located below the hyoid bone and that insert on the hyoid bone will most likely perform
depression of the hyoid bone
188
Listed below are origin (first); insertion (second) of muscles. Which of these are impossible to be present in any muscle found in our body?
fibula; femur
189
Which type of motion is found between the phalanges?
hinge
190
Which articulation of flexed elbow is incorrect?
olecranon; olecranon fossa (this happens during extension)
191
Which of the following inaccurately describes the pectoral and pelvic girdles
the pectoral girdle is formed by 1 bone and the pelvic girdle is formed by 3 bones
192
Which statement about the diaphragm openings is correct?
The aorta, azygos vein and thoracic duct pass through the aortic hiatus
193
Which bone feature of the humerus is always articulating with the radius, independent if the forearm is flexed or extended?
Capitulum
194
The pelvis includes which bone of the axial skeleton?
Sacrum
195
Which of the movements below is exclusively found on the body part listed and nowhere else?
inversion; ankle
196
Which lateral muscle belongs to the group known as the hamstrings?
biceps femoris
197
Which torso muscles are involved in lateral flexion of the abdomen?
external oblique, internal oblique, quadratus lumborum
198
In regards to the arrangement of fascicles, which of the following is correctly matched?
Multipennate, deltoid
199
Where is huge amounts of Ca2+ store prior to muscle contraction?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
200
Together, the quadriceps femoris will work to
Extend the knee
201
Which muscles will work together to adduct the wrist?
Flexor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi ulnaris
202
Choose the bone features that belong to the bone of your arm and are located distally
medial and lateral epicondyles, coronoid and radial fossa
203
The fibula
provides lateral stability to the ankle
204
Which muscles could cause dorsiflexion?
Gastrocnemius, soleus, and tibialis posterior
205
Which muscle causes adduction at the hop
adductor longus
206
Which bone(s) articulate with the distal portion of the radius?
Carpals and ulna
207
Which section of the sarcomere only contains thin filaments?
I band
208
Which muscle is just inferior to the scapular spine and is part of the rotator cuff muscles?
Infraspinatus
209
While driving to school to take an anatomy test, Peter gets in a car accident and breaks the clavicle on the steering wheel. Which of the following muscles is the most likely damaged?
Omohyoid
210
When the statue of liberty is lifting her arm up, she is
flexing at the shoulder
211
Which of the following muscles is used to look to the right with the left eye?
Medial rectus
212
Julia is teaching her peers about the characteristics of smooth muscle, which statement is correct
smooth muscle tissue fibers are not organized into sarcomeres
213
Which of the following muscle rules is correct?
Muscles always cross at least one joint
214
Which bone head is the only one that is distal?
Ulna
215
A muscle that extends the neck will most likely have its origin in which bone?
cervical vertebrae
216
Which action is performed by most muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm?
Extension
217
The articulation between the left and right parietal bones is the
sagittal suture
218
The term thick and thin skin refers to the relative thickness of the:
epidermis only
219
A muscle is classified functionally as an agonist when:
It is the main muscle that contracts to produce a particular movement
220
At each end of a long bone is an expanded, knobby region called the
epiphysis
221
Which neuron below is considered a sensory neuron?
Unipolar neuron***
222
Which of the following are most closely involved with somatic sensory neurons?
proprioceptors****
223
Which statement is correct about neurogenesis
astrocytes create a physical barrier****
224
Which glial cell population would you expect to increase during a brain infection?
microglia
225
What happens to calcium during a chemical synapse?
Enters the pre-synaptic terminal
226
A patient receives spinal fusion surgery on their spine which rods and screws are inserted in order to correct lateral abnormalities. After the surgery the patient realized that they could not feel their arms. What is the most probable cause for this symptom?
There was damage to the posterior horn at the level of C5-T5
227
The denticulate ligaments in the spinal cord attach the _____ to the _____
pia mater to the arachnoid mater
228
The white matter of the spinal cord mainly contain
neuronal axons
229
In which plexus is the median nerve found?
Brachial plexus
230
Which muscle would you expect the deep fibular nerve to innervate
tibialis anterior
231
Coordinating skeletal muscle movement and maintaining equilibrium are two of several important functions of the
cerebellum
232
Which structure produces cerebrospinal fluid in each ventricle?
choroid plexus
233
The cerebral hemispheres are separated by the
longitudinal fissure
234
Which region of the diencephalon controls the body temperature, carious emotions and behavioral drives, and is known as the center of homeostasis?
hypothalamus
235
Which cerebral cortical is involved with the planning of motor activities?
premotor cortex
236
The blood-brain barrier of the CNS is missing or markedly reduced in which location?
choroid plexus, hypothalamus, and the pineal gland
237
There are ocular misalignment conditions called "palsy's" in which there is paralysis of the extrinsic eye muscles. These conditions can cause drooping of the eyelid and misalignment of the yes. Which cranial nerve could NOT be involved in such cases?
Optic nerve
238
After we put on our clothes we forget about it. Which of the following correctly pairs the receptors involved in this phenomena
Phasic and mechanoreceptors
239
Which of the following sensory information reach the cerebral cortex without first passing through the thalamus
olfactory
240
The sensory cells responsible for hearing are located in the
cochlea
241
Which of the statements below is true regarding our eyes?
Rods and cones are photoreceptors located in the neural layer of the retina with black/white and colorvision, respectively
242
The taste receptors located on our tongue are activated by chemicals. Taste receptors are found on the ____ belonging to ______ which ultimately activate nerve fibers that transmit the signal to our gustatory cortex located on the _________
taste hairs, gustatory ells, insula ****
243
What is the function of the auditory tube?
It serves to equalize the pressure in the middle ear cavity with external, atmospheric pressure
244
The inferior, conical end of the heart is called the
apex
245
Pulmonary veins carry ____ blood from the _____ to the ______
oxygenated; lungs; heart
246
Which structures prevent the AV valves from everting and flipping into the atria when the ventricles contract?
chordae tendineae and papillary muscles
247
Which of the following statements regarding the cardiovascular system is true
When the heart beats, both atria contract at the same time followed by the contraction of both ventricles
248
A patient comes into the hospital suffering from chest pains. After careful examination by the doctors, it was determined that the right ventricle of the heart was over-expanding. Which of the following structures is most likely failing?
Moderator band
249
What are the three layers of the heart wall, in order from external to internal
epicardium, myocardium, endocardium ***
250
The rapidly depolarizing cells, called pacemaker cells, are found in the ____, which is embedded in the posterior wall of the ____
SA node; right atrium
251
______ and ______ can circumvent blockages maintaining and/or restoring blood flow to deprived areas
collateral arteries; anastomosis
252
From superior to inferior direction, these are unpaired blood vessels branching off the abdominal aorta
celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery
253
Valves found inside veins are functionally similar to which cardiac structure
semilunar valves because they close when the blood falls on them
254
Very large blood vessels require blood supply to their walls, and this is provided by a network of small blood vessels found on the tunica adventitia of these blood vessels. These blood vessels are called
Vasa vasorum
255
The choroid plexus of the ventricles in the brain, ciliary body of the eyes, and hypothalamus contain _____ capillaries
fenestrated
256
What are the three main arterial branches that emerge from the aortic arch
brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid, left subclavian artery
257
The _______ artery splits in to the external and internal carotid arteries and contain the ____ which detects O2 and CO2 levels in the blood
common carotid and carotid body
258
All of the following are functions of Nurse cells except
healing injured sperm cells wounded by immune cells
259
Which of the following structure contains a serosa layer?
Stomach
260
The ____ zone included the trachea, while the ____ zone includes alveoli
conducting, respiratory
261
Which mechanisms allows respiration to occur?
intrathoracic pressure decreases
262
If you were describing the bones in the hand to a friend, which two types of bones would your descriptioninclude?
sesamoid and short bones
