Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Science IB grade 9 > Final Exam Flashcards > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Cochlea

A

This is the transformer for the ear because it transforms vibrations into nerve impulses. The vibrations are passed along from the stirrup to the fluid inside the cochlea. Tiny hairs in the cochlea (cilia) are stimulated by the vibrations. Each hair reacts to its own frequency to determine pitch and more hairs are stimulated as a sound gets louder. Vibrations are transformed into nerve impulses that are sent through the auditory nerve and to the brain for analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Semicicular Canals

A

They are three rings filled with fluid and each oriented along a different axis (x, y and z). When movement takes place, the information on the body’s orientation (balance) is captured by receptor cells that react to the motion of the liquid inside the canals. This information travels through the vestibular nerve to the cerebellum for interpretation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Vestibule

A

It is the entrance to the cochlea and contains nerve cells that detect body position and are sensitive to gravity The cells produce nerve impulses that are sent to the cerebellum to help keep our bodies balanced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Eustachian Tube

A

Also part of the middle ear, this channel is used to balance out the air pressure on either side of the ear drum so that the ear drum can vibrate properly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Ossicles

A

The smallest bones in the body that transmit vibrations from the ear drum to the inner ear. Vibrations are transmitted from the ear drum, to the hammer, to the anvil, to the stirrup and finally to the liquid in the inner ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Ear Drum

A

Part of the middle ear, it is a sensitive tissue that vibrates when stimulated by a sound wave. It transmits the vibrations to the ossicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Auditry Canal

A

It is also part of the outer ear and it carries sound to the ear drum. It secretes cerebum (wax) to protect the ear drum from small insects, bacteria and dust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sensory Receptors

Function of Pinna

A

The pinna captures sound and is part of the outer ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sensory Receptors

Name the parts of the ear:

A
  • Pinna
  • Auditory Canal
  • Ear Drum
  • Ossicles
  • Eustachian Tube
  • Vesitibule
  • Semicircular Canals
  • Cochlea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nervous System

Decribe a voluntary nerve impulse:

A

Voluntary nerve impulses:
Have to travel up to your brain for interpretation, unlike involuntary nerve impulses…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nervous System

Decribe a involuntary nerve impulse:

Reflexes

A

Reflexes don’t have to travel up to your brain for interpretation and for this reason, they happen quickly. A reflex action involves a simple nervous pathway called a reflex arc (see above). It starts off with receptor cells being excited and then sending a signal along a sensory nerve to the spinal cord, which then passes it along to a motor nerve. A muscle receives the signal and contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nervous System

What is the function of nerves?

A

The transmission of nerve impulses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nervous System

What is the role of the peripheral nervous system? Simplified:

A

Transportation of nerve impulses from the senses to the brain, and from the brain to the muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nervous System

What is the role of the peripheral nervous system?

A

The peripheral nervous system is divided into two main parts: Autonomic nervous system (ANS): Controls involuntary bodily functions and regulates glands. Somatic nervous system (SNS): Controls muscle movement and relays information from ears, eyes and skin to the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nervous System

What is the role of the central nervous system?

A

It controls intelligence, memory, personality, emotion, speech, and ability to feel and move.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nervous System

Idenitify the parts of the nervous system:

A
  • Brain
  • Cerebellum
  • Brain Stem
  • Spinal Cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Materials

What are the properties of metals?

A
  • Thermal conductivity
  • Electrical conductivity
  • Malleablity
  • Ductility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Materials

Explain the property of resilience in relationship to wood:

A

When wood has adequate moisture content it is resilient and resistant to breakage. When wood is dry , it breaks easily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Materials

Explain the property of resilience in relationship to wood:

A

When wood has adequate moisture content it is resilient and resistant to breakage. When wood is dry , it breaks easily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Materials

Explain the property of elasticity in relationship to wood:

A

Wood usually has good elasticity. It can suffer many impacts without becoming permanently deformed. Defects and rot in wood will reduce its elastcity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Materials

Explain the property of hardness in relationship to wood:

A

As the name suggests hardwood is harder than softwood. Healthy trees have a highe rlevel of hardness. Moisture content and cold temperatures also increase hardness. Rots also effects hardness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Materials

What are the properties of wood?

A
  • Hardness,
  • Elasticity,
  • Relisience,
  • Tensile Strength,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Materials

What is fiberboard?

A

A type of modified wood:
* Made by: first separating wood fibers, using smaller bits than those used to make other modified wood. Fibers are then bonded with various products.
* Uses: insulation, floating floors, furniture, various kinds of construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Materials

What is particleboard?

A

A type of modified wood:
* Made by: bonding the particles (of woodchips and woodwaste produced by wood and plywood industries) using various chemicals.
* Uses: trunks, toys, building construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Materials

What is plywood?

A

A type of modified wood:
* Made by: gluing small large sheets of wood together so that the fibers of one are at right angles to those below them.
* Uses: work tables, building construction – primarily floors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Materials

What is laminated wood?

A

A type of modified wood:
* Made by: gluing small pieces of wood together.
* Uses: snowshoes, building structures, tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Materials

What is treated wood?

A

A type of modified wood:
* Made by: heating wood to a high temperature or dipping in a copper based chemical product.
* Uses: Objects are structures where corrosion resistance is important – exposed to rain or snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Materials

What is modified wood?

A

Treated wood or wood mixed with other substance:
* Wood chips and sawdust are pressed or glued together
* Better properties that naturel wood - - - more rigid etc.
* Examples include: plywood, particle board, fiberboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Changes

How to determine final volume of particles in a substance in a solid, liquid, or gaseous form?

What is the equation?

A

(C1)(V1) = (C2)(V2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Changes

Define Radiant Energy

A

It is the form of energy contained in light and other electromagnetic waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Changes

Define Radiant Energy

A

It is the form of energy contained in light and other electromagnetic waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Changes

Define Thermal Energy

A

It is a form of energy cause by the motion of the particles in matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Changes

Define Mechanical Energy

A

It is a form of energy related to motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Changes

Define Chemical Energy

A

It is a form of energy found in the bonds that keep the atom of a molecule together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Changes

What are the 4 forms of energy?

A
  • Chemical Energy
  • Mechanical Energy
  • Thermal energy
  • Radiant Energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Changes

Arrangement of particles in a gas:

A

The particles in gases are widely spaced and randomly arranged, meaning they can be easily compressed or squashed. The particles in a gas have enough energy to overcome the forces of attraction between the particles, so are free to move in any direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Changes

Arrangement of particles in a liquid:

A

In liquids, particles are quite close together and move with random motion throughout the container. Particles move rapidly in all directions but collide with each other more frequently than in gases due to shorter distances between particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Changes

Arrangement of particles in a solid:

A

In a solid, the particles pack together as tightly as possible in a neat and ordered arrangement. The particles are held together too strongly to allow movement from place to place but the particles do vibrate about their position in the structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Changes

Explain dilution in terms of concentration and voume:

A

Dilution is the addition of solvent, which decreases the concentration of the solute in the solution. Concentration is the removal of solvent, which increases the concentration of the solute in the solution.

  • Dilution = more solvent, less solute
  • Concentration = less solvent, more solute
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Changes

What is particle model?

A

Atoms are connected by a line or touching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Changes

Define ‘Joule’

A

The unit of measurement for energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Changes

Define the particle model:

A

A means of representing the beheaviour of matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cardiovascular System

Main role of the circulatory system:

A

The circulatory system delivers oxygen and nutrients to cells and takes away wastes. The heart pumps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood on different sides.

Gas exchange, carries nutrients and oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cardiovascular system

What are viens?

A
  • Less elastic than arteries
  • Lowers blood pressures
  • returns blood to the heart
  • valves - one way
  • viens need help from muscle contractions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cardiovascular system

What are capillaries?

A
  • Small blood vessels
  • Walls - one row of cells
  • Diffusion, absorbs nutrients & o2
  • carry WBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cardiovascular system

What are arteries?

A
  • Thick muscular walls (pressure enduring)
  • Largest artery = aorta
  • Smoothe interior
  • Take blood out of the heart
  • Divides into smaller arteries – aterioles — capillariesx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cardiovascular system

Heart is

A
  • muscle
  • pump
  • 60+ contractions / min
  • size of fist
  • between lungs
  • protected by rib cage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cardiovascular system

What is the circulatory system made of

Review Drawing in notes min. 10x

A
  • blood vessels: Capillaries, viens, arteries.
  • blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cardiovascular System

What are White Blood Cells?

A
  • Only blood cells with a nucleus
  • Rounded shape
  • Bigger than red blood cells
  • Few in quantity that red blood cells
    Increases with infection
  • Protect
  • Neutralize pathogens
    Bacteria and viruses
  • Destroy dead / damaged cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cardiovascular System

What are red blood cells?
Produced where…

A
  • Most common solid component of blood
  • Biconcabe shape; flexible
  • turn sharp corners
  • squeeze into small blood vessels (capillaries)
  • If deformed (sickle cell anemia)
    accumalate
    block blood flow (clot)
  • Live approx. 120 days
  • constantly produced in bone marrow
  • contain hemoglobin
    Proteins
    Transports o2
    Gives blood its colour
  • Reaches alveoli:
    Gas exchanged co2 – o2
    o2 = Bright red
    co2 = Dark red (brownish)
    Represented as blue, ITS NOT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cardiovascular System

How do platelets work?

A

Accumulate in damaged blood vessel
Produce fibrous filaments (to seal the wound).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cardiovascular System

What are platelets?

A
  • Pieces of blood cells
  • No defined shape
  • No nucleus
  • Life span of approx. 10 days
  • Form scabs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cardiovascular System

Percentages of each component in the blood?

A
  • 55% Plasma
  • 45% Red Blood Cells
  • Less than 1% White Blood Cells
  • Less than 1% Platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cardiovascular System

What is plasma?

A

Liquid component of blood
Mostly water
Transports
* RBC,
* WBC,
* Platelets,
* Nutrients,
* Antibodies,
* Hormones,
* Waste (Urea, co2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Respiratory System

Read NOTES

Not a question. Every time yoh recieve this question, reread notes.

Read notes once - 1
Read notes twice - 2
Read notes 3x - 3
Read notes 4x - 4
Read notes 5x or + - 5

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the Alveoli:

7

A
  • Small bags surrounded by capillaries
  • Gas Exchange
  • Around 300 million
  • Alveoli & Capillaries have very thin membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the Bronchioles:

6

A
  • Divide progressivley until ending in alveoli.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the Bronchi:

5

A
  • Trachea splits into 2 bronchi – left and right
  • Made with cartiage
  • Cila and mucous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the Trachea:

4

A
  • Connects Layrynx to bronchi
  • Tube
  • Aiway
  • Rings of cartilage
  • Lined with mucous and cila
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the larynx:

3

A
  • Mostly cartilage
  • Connects pharynx to trachea
  • Epigolottis - door
  • Voice box - Air vibrations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the pharynx:

2

A
  • Part of the digestive system and the respiratory system
  • Passage for air and food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the function of the nasal cavities:

1

A
  • Air goes in
  • 2 chambers in the nose
  • Cila, filter dust etc.
  • Blood vessels - warm air
  • Muscous, moistens air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Respiratory System

Explain the role of the respiratory system:

A

Gas exchange, exhaling carbon dioxide, repleninshing / inhaling oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Respiratory System

Name the main parts of the respiratory system:

A
  1. Nasal Cavities
  2. Pharynx
  3. Larynx
  4. Trachea
  5. Bronchi
  6. Bronchioles
  7. Alveoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Digestive System

What is peristalsis?

Explain

A

The involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine or another canal, creating wave-like movements that push the contents of the canal forward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Digestive System

What is churning?

Explain

A

(with reference to liquid) move or cause to move about vigorously.
In other words mixing!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Digestive System

What is the purpose and function of Liver glands?

Explain

A

The liver (gland) secretes bile which is stored in the gall bladder and emulsifies fats (separates fats from water) (physical transformation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Digestive System

What is the purpose and function of Pancreatic glands?

Explain

A

The pancreas secretes pancreatic juices that break down carbohydrates into smaller molecules of glucose (chemical transformation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Digestive System

What is the purpose and function of Intestinal glands?

Explain

A

When food enters the small intestine, the
intestinal glands secrete intestinal juices that transform proteins into amino acids and fats into smaller molecules like glycerol (chemical transformations).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Digestive System

What is the purpose and function of Intestinal glands?

Explain

A

When food enters the small intestine, the
intestinal glands secrete intestinal juices that transform proteins into amino acids and fats into smaller molecules like glycerol (chemical transformations).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Digestive System

What is the purpose and function of gastric glands?

Explain

A

Gastric juices that come from the glands along the stomach’s walls help to break down proteins (chemical transformation). In addition to breaking down food, gastric juices also help kill bacteria that might be in the food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Digestive System

What is the purpose and function of salivary glands?

Explain

A

Salivary glands (a gland is a group of cells that produce secretions) produce saliva. Each day, these glands secrete (make) 1 to 1.5 L of saliva. Saliva helps to transform the complex molecules in carbohydrates in to simpler molecules (chemical transformation). It also has antibacterial properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Digestive System

Name all the glands:

Explain

A
  • Salivary glands
  • Gastric glands
  • Intestinal glands
  • Pancreatic juices
  • Liver glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Digestive System

Name all the glands:

Explain

A
  • Salivary glands
  • Gastric glands
  • Intestinal glands
  • Pancreatic juices
  • Liver glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Digestive System

What is the function of the large intestine?

Explain

A

This is where most water, vitamins and minerals are absorbed into the bloodstream. Removing water from a liquid mixture transforms it into solid waste that is later expelled through the anus (physical transformation). The walls of the large intestine are lined with mucous that acts as lubrication to facilitate the passage of solid waste.

76
Q

Digestive System

What is the large intestine?

Explain

A

The large intestine is about 6.5 cm in diameter and 1.5 m in length.

77
Q

Digestive System

What transformations occur in the small intestine? Glands, secretions etc.

Explain

A

Both physical and chemical.
* When food enters the small intestine, the intestinal glands secrete intestinal juices that transform proteins into amino acids and fats into smaller molecules like glycerol (chemical transformations).
* The liver (gland) secretes bile which is stored in the gall bladder and emulsifies fats (separates fats from water) (physical transformation).
* The pancreas secretes pancreatic juices that break down carbohydrates into smaller molecules of glucose (chemical transformation).
* The small intestine also churns and moves the food along through peristalsis (physical transformation).

78
Q

Digestive System

What is the small intestine lined with?

A

The small intestine is lined with microscopic folds (villi) to increase the surface area through which various nutrients can be absorbed into the bloodstream.

79
Q

Digestive System

Small Intestine: what is it?

A

The small intestine is a 3 m long muscular tube that has a diameter of 2 cm. It is folded several times and attaches to the large intestine.

80
Q

Digestive System

Stomach, how does it work?

A
  • Mixes, churns and mashes food in to balls of bolus (mush).
  • Gastric juices from the glands along the stomach walls help to break down proteins and kill bacteria (chemical change).
  • Stomach wall is lined with mucous to protect it from is own acids.
81
Q

Digestive System

Stomach, Functions

A

Purposes
- Store food that has been eaten
- Break down larger molecules to simpler ones
- Slowly empties mixture into small intestines

82
Q

Digestive System

Esophagus, Function and structure

A

Like a pipe (around 10 inches long). Moves food from back of throat to stomach by muscle contractions, known as peristalsis (physical change).

83
Q

Digestive System: Hints Secreted by, has ______ properties, function.

Saliva more in-depth

A

Saliva is secreted by the salivary gland. The purpose of saliva is to break down carbohydrates, however it also acts as a anti-bacterial.

84
Q

Digestive System

Mouth, Parts and Functions

A
  • Teeth (break apart food, physical change)
  • Tongue (moves food around and breaks it apart, physical change)
  • Saliva (Breaks down Carbohydrates, chemical change)
85
Q

Digestive System

Name the Components of the Digestive:

A
  • Mouth
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach
  • Small Intestine
  • Large Intestine
86
Q

Digestive System

What food contains a significant source of fibre? Name 5.

A
  • Beans
  • Broccoli
  • Berries
  • Avocados
  • Popcorn
  • Whole Grains
  • Apples
  • Dried Fruits
87
Q

Digestive System

What food contains a significant source of Minerals? Name 5.

A
  • Meat
  • Cereals
  • Fish
  • Milk and Dairy
  • Fruits
  • Vegetables
  • Nuts
88
Q

Digestive System

What food contains a significant source of vitamins? Name 5.

A
  • Animal fats (A, D, E, and K)
  • Vegetable oils (A, D, E, and K)
  • Dairy products (A, D, E, and K)
  • Liver (A, D, E, and K)
  • Oily fish (A, D, E, and K)
  • Fruits (C&B)
  • Vegetables (C&B)
  • Grains (C&B)
  • Milk and Dairy (C&B)
89
Q

Digestive System

What food contains a significant source of proteins? Name 5.

A
  • Eggs
  • Chicken
  • Beef
  • Pork
  • Fish
  • Nuts
  • Seeds
  • Beans
  • Peas
  • Lentils
  • Tofu
90
Q

Digestive System

What foods contain a significant source of fats? Name 5.

A
  • Red Meat
  • Butter
  • Cheese
  • Ice cream
  • Avocados
  • Fish
  • Whole eggs
  • Chia Seeds
  • Dark Chocolate
91
Q

Digestive System

What foods contain a significant source of carbohydrates?

A
  • Breads
  • Grains
  • Pasta
  • Nuts
  • Legumes
  • Starchy Vegetables
  • Milk
  • Yogurts
  • Fruits
92
Q

Digestive System

What function does fibre serve us?

A

It cleans the digestive system.

93
Q

Digestive System

What function does water serve to us?

A

A pure substance that makes up 60% of the body. It is important to many chemical reactions, regulates metabolism, and helps to carry substances to different parts of the body.

94
Q

Digestive System

What function do minerals serve to us?

A

They are simple chemical elements. Minerals make up various tissues like cartilage, teeth, bones, and nerves.

95
Q

Digestive System

What function do vitamins serve to us?

A

They are vital for various body functions and to help regulate metabolism and chemical reactions in the body. There are 13 kinds of vitamins.

96
Q

Digestive System

What function do proteins serve us?

A

They are big molecules made of long chains of amino acids. They allow the body to repair and build cells. They also provide energy when there are not enough fats or carbohydrates.

97
Q

Digestive System

What function do fats serve us?

A

They provide the body with energy and store it. They also insulate the body and protect vital organs. Fats that come from an animal source are called saturated fats. Saturated fats can raise the cholesterol level if eaten in large quantities. Unsaturated fats come from plant sources and are a healthier source of fats.

98
Q

Digestive System

What function do carbohydrates serve to us?

A

They contain starches or other substances that release sugars during digestion. They are quickly transformed into energy by the body.

99
Q

Digestive System

Name the nutrients we need:

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Fats
  • Proteins
  • Vitamins
  • Minerals
  • Water
  • Fibre (Not a nutrient)
100
Q

Organization

What is a hetergeneous mixture?

A

A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture in which the composition is not uniform throughout the mixture. A phase is any part of a sample that has a uniform composition and properties. By definition, a pure substance or a homogeneous mixture consists of a single phase. A heterogeneous mixture consists of two or more phases.

101
Q

Organization

What is a homogenous mixture?

A

A homogeneous mixture is a mixture in which the composition is uniform throughout the mixture. All solutions would be considered homogeneous because the dissolved material is present in the same amount throughout the solution.

102
Q

Organization

Explain the difference between elements and compounds.

A

Elements are pure substances which are composed of only one type of atom. Compound are substances which are formed by two or more different types of elements that are united chemically in fixed proportions.

103
Q

Organization

Define a pure substance:

A

Substance made up of a single type of atom or molecule

104
Q

Solutions

Solute

Vocabulary

A

Minor component is a solution
(Dissolve-d)

105
Q

Solutions

Solution

Vocabulary

A

“A mixture in which the minor component (solute) is uniformly distributed withiun the major component (solvent)”.

106
Q

Solutions

Solvent

Vocabulary

A

Major component is a solution
(Dissolve-r)

107
Q

Solutions

Saturation

Vocabulary

A

Max. potential for a solute to dissolve within a solvent.

108
Q

Solutions

Converting Units!

mL to L & kg to g & mg to g & mL to g

A

mL / 1000 = L
kg x 1000 = g
mg / 1000 = g
mL = g

109
Q

Solutions

Formula for concentration

A

c=m/v
c - concentration (g/L)
m - mass (g)
v - volume (L)

110
Q

Solutions

Expressing a solution as a percent:

A

Shows amount of solute per 100 mL of solution. (Displayed as a percent)

111
Q

Solutions

Expressing Concentration

A
  • g/L
  • %
112
Q

Solutions

What is concentration?

A
  • Ration between a solute and solution
  • Higher concentration = more solute or less solution
  • Lower concentration = less solute or more solution
113
Q

Characteristic Properties

Solubility and Temperature

A
  • Higher Temperature – More Soluble
  • Lower Temperature – Less soluble
114
Q

Characteristic Properties

Define Solubility

A

In chemistry, solubility is the ability of a substance, the solute, to form a solution with another substance, the solvent.

115
Q

Charcteristic Properties

Formula for Density

A

Mass/Volume = Density
g/mL = Density

116
Q

Charcteristic Properties

Define Density

A

Degree of consistency measured by the quantity of mass per unit volume.

117
Q

Materials

List the types of other Properties:

Physical Properties

A
  • Thermal conductivity
  • Electrical conductivity
  • Boiling point
  • Melting point
  • Freezing point
118
Q

Materials

List the types of Mechanical Properties:

A
  • Hardness (resists penetration)
  • Elasticity (returns to original shape)
  • Resilience (resists physical impacts)
  • Ductility (stretches without breaking)
  • Malleability (flattens or bends without breaking)
  • Tensile strength (resists tension, elastic)
119
Q

Materials

What is a Mechanical Property?

A

A mechanical property determines how a material will react when it is subjected to one or more mechanical constraints.

120
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function,Components,Use of Motion Transformation

Slider-crank mechanism

(Systems)

A
  • Contains a crank, slider, and guide.
  • Reversible, crank and slider can switch which is driver/driven
  • Crank rotates like wheels, slider translates like a piston
  • Motion Transformation System : Rotation - translation (& vice versa)
  • Should be lubricated
121
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function,Components,Use of Motion Transformation

Cam and follower system

(Systems)

A
  • Contains a cam (egg shaped piece), and a follower (a stick that bobs).
  • NOT Reversible, Cam is ALWAYS driver
  • *Follower follows…lol…. It is driven.
  • Cam rotates, Follower translates
  • Motion Transformation System : Rotation - translation
  • Should NOT be lubricated
122
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function,Components,Use of Motion Transformation

Screw-Gear System

(Systems)

A
  • Contains a screw and a nut
  • Irreversible; nut rotates and transforms into the translational motion in the screw. The nut it always the driver
  • Motion Transformation System : Rotation - translation
  • Should be lubricated
123
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function,Components,Use of Motion Transformation

Rack and Pinion system

(Systems)

A
  • Contains at least one gear called a pinion, and a straight, teethed bar called a rack,
  • Reversible
  • Motion Transformation System : Rotation - translation (& vice versa)
  • Should be lubricated
124
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function,Components,Use of Motion Transformation

Name the motion transformation systems:

(Systems)

A
  • Rack and Pinion
  • Screw-Gear
  • Cam & Follower
  • Slider Crank
125
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Speed Change!

(Systems)

A

Increase: Driver is bigger/has more teeth than driven
Decrease: Driven is smaller/has less teeth than driven
No Change: Driver and driven are the same in size/teeth

126
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Wheel and Worm-Wheel System

(Systems)

A
  • Components of a wheel and worm-wheel system include a worm-wheel (screw), whose rotation is transmitted to one or more wheels.
  • In a wheel and worm-wheel system both the wheel and worm-wheel both rotate in the same direction.
  • NOT reversible, the worm-wheel is ALWAYS the driver
  • Motion Transmission system: rotation - rotation
  • Should be lubricated
127
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Belt and Pulley system

(Systems)

A
  • Components of a belt and pulley system include pulleys (gears without teeth), and a belt.
  • In a belt and pulley system pulleys within the belt turn one way, and pulleys outsides the belt turn the opposite direction.
  • Reversible
  • Motion Transmission a system: rotation - rotation
  • Should NOT be lubricated
128
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Friction gear system

(Systems)

A
  • Components of a friction gear system include and driver, and a follower, sometimes they also include intermediates.
  • In a friction gear system each gear turns opposite in direction to the gear(s) directly beside it
  • Reversible
  • Motion Transmission system: rotation - rotation
  • Should NOT be lubricated
  • Diameter = teeth (equivalent to gear train)
129
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Chain and Sprocket systems:

(Systems)

A
  • Components of a chain and sprocket system include gears, and a chain .
  • In a chain and sprocket system gears within the train turn one way, and gears outsides the chain turn the opposite direction.
  • Reversible
  • Motion Transmission system: rotation - rotation
  • Should be lubricated
130
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Gear Train:

(Systems)

A
  • Components of a gear train include and driver, and a follower, sometimes they also include intermediates.
  • In a gear train each gear turns opposite in direction to the gear(s) directly beside it
  • Reversible
  • Motion Transmission system: rotation - rotation
  • Should be lubricated
131
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Function, Components, Use of Motion Transmission

Name the motion transmission systems:

(Systems)

A
  1. Gear Train
  2. Chain and Sprocket
  3. Friction Gears
  4. Belt and Pulley
  5. Wheel and Worm Wheel
132
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Types of Linking

A
  • Direct or Indirect
  • Rigid or Flexible
  • Removable or Permanent
  • Complete/Fixed or Partial/Removable
133
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Kinds of Linking

A
  • Fixed
  • Sliding
  • Rotating
  • Spherical
  • Sliding Rotating
  • Helical
134
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a fixed link:

A

No movement between parts.

135
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a sliding link:

A

One part translates (slides) into another.

136
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a rotating link:

A

One part rotates on an axis.

137
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a spherical link:

A

Rotates in all directions.

138
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a sliding rotating link:

A

Slides then rotates (seperate movements)

139
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a helical link:

A

Screws into/onto something.

140
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Types of guiding:

A

Rotational, Translational, Helical

141
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Definition of seal:

A

Prevents a gas or liquid from escaping.

142
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Definition of lubrication:

A

Reduces friction by technical means.

143
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a guide:

A

Forces a part to follow a certain guiding motion (translation/rotation)

144
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

Define a link:

A

Links are used to connect 2 or more parts of an object.

145
Q

Mechanical Engineering: Typical Functions & Mechanical Links

What are the 4 mechanical functions?

A
  • Link
  • Guide
  • Lubrication
  • Seal
146
Q

Graphical Language: Orthogonal Projections

Define exploded view:

A
  • Shows various parts of an object seperated from eachother.
147
Q

Graphical Language: Orthogonal Projections

Define a multiview projection:

A
  • 2-D representation of every view of an object, at least 3!
  • Views: Usually front, right, top. Can also include left, bottom, and back.
  • Mug-shot views
  • Must be consistent and line up
148
Q

Graphical Language: Orthogonal Projections

What is an isometric projection?

A
  • A 3-D representation of an object placed so that 3 sides of the object are visible
  • Visible views are generally front, side, top
  • Visual lines in isometric projections are perpendicular to the paper.
149
Q

Graphical Language: Orthogonal Projections

Name 3 types of projections:

A
  1. Isometric
  2. Multiview
  3. Exploded View
150
Q

Earth & Space

Define a fossil:

A

Traces of an organism preserved mostly in sedimentary rock.

151
Q

Earth & Space

Define a fossil:

A

Traces of an organism preserved mostly in sedimentary rock.

152
Q

Earth & Space

The Cenozoic Era (Lasted 65 million years and is still happening)

A
  • MAMMALS CONTINUE TO THRIVE
  • Appearance of primates and HOMINIDS
153
Q

Earth & Space

The Mesozoic Era (lasted 185 million years)

A
  • Warm climate favored the appearance of large REPTILES.
  • MASS EXTINCTION DUE TO A METEORITE IMPACT OR VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS CAUSED 50% OF MARINE LIFE TO DISAPPEAR
  • MASS EXTINCTION DUE TO A METEORITE IMPACT IN YUCATA, MEXICO. THIS EVENT CAUSED THE DISAPPEARANCE OF THE DINOSAURS
154
Q

Earth & Space

The Palaeozoic Era (lasted 300 million years)

A
  • VERY COLD CLIMATE CAUSED A MASS EXTINCTION; HALF OF THE ANIMALS DISAPPEARED
  • MAJOR EXTINCTION DUE TO VARIOUS EVENTS CAUSED 70% OF MARINE SPECIES TO DISAPPEAR (not amphibians—- marine life)
  • LARGEST MASS EXTINCTION CAUSED BY GLACIATION, VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS (ACID RAIN AND GREENHOUSE EFFECT) AND DESTRUCTION OF OZONE LAYER; 96% OF MARINE SPECIES DISAPPEARED AND 75% OF LAND SPECIES DISAPPEARED
155
Q

Earth and Space

The Precambrian Era: (lasted 4 billion years)

A
  • During the 1000 million years, the solar system + Earth were formed
  • Rodinia was the first continent to form
  • Appearance of first life formes: PROKARYOTES (cells with no nuclei), and bacteria
  • Appearance of bacteria that can do PHOTOSYNTHESIS and release oxygen into the atmosphere
  • Appearance of EUKARYOTES (cells with nucleus); worms, soft coral, jellyfish
  • Appearance of the EDIACARAN FAUNA; animals capable of digesting and reproduction
156
Q

Earth & Space

Methods of dating fossils: Absolute dating

A
  • Absolute dating is the process by which the age of the fossils or rock layers can be calculated using carbon dating.
  • It is the most precise of the 3 methods of dating fossils.
  • Absolute dating calculates the amount of carbon-14 or Uranium present in rocks to determine an approximate age.
  • Carbon-14 decays at a predictable rate
157
Q

Earth & Space

Methods of dating fossils: Relative dating

A
  • Relative dating is based on superposition. It is used to determine the order in which events took place but not prove the exact age of the rock layer:
  • WHEN A FAULT IS RUNNING THROUGH THEM!
158
Q

Earth & Space

Methods of dating fossils: Superposition

A
  • The principle of superposition states that the oldest layer is always found at the bottom and the youngest layer is always found at the top: this means that fossils found in lower layers comes from an era previous to the one above it.
  • If rocks are UNDISTURBED
159
Q

Earth & Space

What are layers or strata?

A
  • Layers/strata are the sedimentary rock that are usually arranged in layers
  • A stratigraphic layer is made of sedimentary deposits with the same characteristics (colour, particle size, type of rock).
  • Stratigraphy is important because it allows science to explain the various events that happened in the Earths history.
160
Q

Cell Division

Each —— produced during meiosis contains only ——– chromosome(s) of each —— so they can combine during fertilization to produce a ——— ——- of chromosomes

A
  • daughter cell
  • one
  • pair
  • complete
  • Pair
161
Q

Cell Division

Meiosis in males starts at —- in the ——- and continues until ——-.

A
  • Puberty
  • Testicles
  • Death
162
Q

Cell Division

Meiosis in females happens in the ——— (in the ———) and ——— (———-) are only mature enough to be fertilized starting at ————–

A
  • Uterus
  • in the womb
  • egg cells
  • ova
  • puberty
163
Q

Cell Division

What is meiosis?
Produces …. #
They are also called ________ what does this term refer to

A

Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces four different cells that are genetically different from the original mother cell. Reproductive cells are also called gametes; sperm cells (spermatozoa) and egg cells (ova) that unite during fertilization.

164
Q

Cell Division

Function/Purpose of mitosis:

A
  • Growth and repair of damaged tisses
  • (Replacement of dead blood cells)
  • (Repairement of cuts, fractures, muscel etc.)

Neurons are the only cells incapable of dividing or repairing themselves

165
Q

Cell Division

In mitosis the daughter cells each contain ____ ____ chromosomes.

A
  • 23
  • Pairs of
166
Q

Cell Division

Mitosis is a cell division that results in…. ___________ ___________ daughter cells

A
  1. Two
  2. Identical
167
Q

Cell Division

What is mitosis?

A

Mitosis is a type of cell division used to make identical copies of cells.

168
Q

Excretory System

Role of sweat glands in homeostasis:

A

Sweating that happens through either type of sweat gland serves a purpose. It maintains homeostasis, a stable equilibrium, of the skin and regulates body temperature. When our core temperature gets high enough through physical activity or high temperatures, sweating kicks off and cools you down while it evaporates.
Give you a higher concentration in terms of blood, releases water.

169
Q

Excretory System

Role of lungs during homeostasis:

A

The role of the lungs in homeostasis is to maintain a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. When we breathe in, oxygen diffuses from the alveoli in the lungs to the blood. Carbon dioxide in the blood diffuses from the blood to the alveoli and we exhale.

170
Q

Excretory System

Role of kidneys during homeostasis:

A

The kidneys regulate the fluid and electrolyte balance of the body by continually filtering the blood.

171
Q

Excretory System

Explain how homeostasis works:

A

For example, when we drink a lot of liquids, there is too much water in the blood, making the volume of blood increase. The pituitary gland sends a message (less anti diuretic hormone) to the kidneys which will remove (or in other cases refrain from removing) water from the blood, resulting in a more diluted urine (less solute per volume of urine). Therefore, the concentration of mineral salts in the blood will return to normal level. If we eat too much salty food, the large intestine will absorb a lot of minerals, and the concentration of minerals in the blood will be too high. The pituitary gland sends a signal (more ADH) to the kidneys to hold on to water. Therefore, the kidneys remove less water and more mineral slats from the blood, resulting in a more concentrated urine (more solute per volume of urine).

172
Q

Excretory System

What is homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis is the body’s ability to maintain balance (mineral salts in blood, blood pH, water, temperature, etc.).

173
Q

Excretory System

All about the bladder:

A

The bladder is a stretchy bag made of muscles and it stores urine before it is expelled. A sphincter (circular muscle) located at the bottom of the bladder contracts to stop the flow of urine and relaxes to expel it.

174
Q

Excretory System

Kidneys! How do they work?

A

The kidneys filter blood through millions of nephrons, which are small filtration units. The kidneys receive blood from the renal artery, which is connected through capillaries surrounding the nephrons. As blood circulates in the capillaries, the nephrons filter it by removing excess substances through the process of diffusion.

175
Q

Excretory System

What is the function of the urinary system?

A

The main function of our urinary system is to filter blood to remove waste and excess substances such as water, minerals, and cellular waste. The urinary system also eliminates this waste, a process called urination.

176
Q

Excretory System

What are the main parts of the urinary system?

A
  • Kidneys
  • Ureters
  • Bladders
  • Urethra
177
Q

Lymphatic System

Explain the process of a vaccine:

A
  1. Identify invading pathogen, read antigen
  2. Duplicate white blood cell
  3. Produce antibodies against the invading pathogen
  4. Produce white blood cells to engulf pathogen
  5. Memorize/remember pathogen, and antibodies necessary
178
Q

Lymphatic System

Explain the process of a vaccine:

A
  1. Identify invading pathogen, read antigen
  2. Duplicate white blood cell
  3. Produce antibodies against the invading pathogen
  4. Produce white blood cells to engulf pathogen
  5. Memorize/remember pathogen, and antibodies necessary
179
Q

Lymphatic System

Explain the process of a vaccine:

A
  1. Identify invading pathogen, read antigen
  2. Duplicate white blood cell
  3. Produce antibodies against the invading pathogen
  4. Produce white blood cells to engulf pathogen
  5. Memorize/remember pathogen, and antibodies necessary
180
Q

Lymphatic System

What is a genetically engineered vaccine?

A
  • Modifies a pathogens genes
  • Fights: Covid-19 vaccine, Hepatitis A&B
181
Q

Lymphatic System

What is an inactivated vaccine?

A
  • Dead pathogen
  • Stimulate immune system
  • Fights: Whooping cough, typhoid, etc.
182
Q

Lymphatic System

What is an attenuated vaccine?

A
  • Weakened
  • Doesn’t cause the disease
  • Recogmized by the body
  • Fights MMR: Mumps, measles, rubella
183
Q

Lymphatic System

3 kinds of vaccines:

A
  • Attenuated vaccine
  • Inactivated vaccine
  • Genetic engineering
184
Q

Lymphatic System

What are the 2 ways to produce anti-bodies?

A
  1. Vaccine
  2. Disease
185
Q

Lymphatic System

What is a vaccine?

A

Weak or dead pathogens.

186
Q

Lymphatic System

Uses of vaccines:

A
  • Stimulate the immune system
  • Make specific antibodies
  • Prevent disease

Science IB grade 9 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions