Final Exam Material Flashcards

(586 cards)

1
Q

What is oxidative stress?

A
  • Reactive oxygen species and other reactive species oxidize (= ‘steal electrons’) from DNA, protein, lipids, etc.
  • Oxidation = chemical reaction that produces free radicals, leading to chain reactions that may cause damage to cells and tissues.
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2
Q

What is an antioxidant?

A

Protectors to oxidative stress

Antioxidant = molecule that inhibits the oxidation of other molecules

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3
Q

List some reactive species.

A
  • Highly reactive, oxygen containing molecules often free radicals with unpaired electrons e.g., superoxide radical, hydroxyl radical, and hydrogen peroxide.
  • Reactive, nitrogen species e.g., nitric oxide
  • Other reactive species e.g., thiyl RS, trichloromethyl
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4
Q

How are reactive species generated? [2]

A
  • Exposure to exogenous substances
    • Chemicals in environment (pollutants)
    • Smoking
    • Drugs
    • Radiation
  • Physiological processes
    • Enzymatic reactions, oxidases
    • Electron transport chain
    • Immune defense (superoxide = antimicrobial)
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5
Q

Discuss the consequences of PUFA oxidative damage. [3]

A

(Membrane) lipid peroxidation → (1) loss of membrane fluidity, (2) receptor functions, and potentially (3) cellular lysis

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6
Q

Discuss the consequences of protein degradation by oxidative damage. [3]

A

(1) Cross-linking; (2) inactivation; (3) denaturation

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7
Q

Discuss the consequences of carbohydrate oxidative damage. [2]

A

Altered glycoprotein function → (1) hormonal and neurotransmitter receptors, (2) cell recognition

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8
Q

Discuss the consequences of nucleic acid oxidative damage. [3]

A

(1) DNA damage; (2) Mutations; (3) Carcinogenesis

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9
Q

Discuss oxidative stress and disease.

A

Oxidative stress may play a role in multiple chronic diseases.

  • Atherosclerosis → development of plaque in vessels
  • Cancer
  • Cataracts → clouding of lens due to protein oxidation
  • Autoimmune diseases
  • Lung damage
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10
Q

Discuss oxidative stress and aging.

A
  • Free-radical theory of aging = aging process due to cumulative oxidative damage to cells → minimizing ROS/free radicals may be ‘key’ to anti-aging
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11
Q

Name antioxidant systems in the body [2] and give three examples in each category.

A
  • Enzymes
    • Catalase (contains 4 heme groups)
    • Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase (SOD)
    • glutathione peroxidase (selenium)
  • Micronutrients
    • Vitamin C
    • Vitamin E
    • Beta-carotene (pre-cursor to vitamin A)
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12
Q
A

Answer → D

Catalase contains 4 heme groups

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13
Q

List the main food sources and forms of zinc in the diet.

A
  • Food sources → meat and seafood
    • Zinc content of foods often associated with protein content of foods.
    • Plant sources have less zinc and zinc is less well absorbed from plant sources.
  • Forms in diet → Zn2+
    • Usually bound to protein or nucleic acid
    • Supplements = zinc salts (e.g., zinc sulfate, zinc gluconate)
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14
Q

Explain the digestion of zinc.

A
  • Most zinc bound to proteins & nucleic acids → first step in digestion is to release zinc form proteins & nucleic acids
  • Zinc released from proteins and nucleic acids by HCl (denatures protein) and enzymes (proteases, nucleases) in the stomach and small intestine
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15
Q

Explain the absorption of zinc.

A
  • Carrier-mediated through ZIP-4 = major transporter of zinc across brush border
  • ZIP-4 degraded with high Zn status = mechanism for maintaining Zn homeostasis
  • Minor pathways;
    • DMT1
    • With amino acids via amino acid carriers
    • Paracellular diffusion at high intakes (>20 mg)
  • No passive diffusion for uptake of zinc because free zinc has a charge → charged elements do not diffuse across phospholipid bilayer
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16
Q

Explain the transport of zinc.

A
  • In plasma → bound to proteins (e.g., albumin) or amino acids.
  • Tissue uptake via transporter → ZIPs as importers (also DMT1); zinc transporters (ZnTs) as exporters
  • Within cells → zinc bound to proteins
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17
Q

Explain the storage of zinc.

A
  • Bound to metallothionein → storage complex for zinc → metallothionein synthesis stimulated by zinc
  • Total body zinc = 1.5-3 grams → mostly in (1) liver, (2) kidneys, (3) muscle, (4) skin and (5) bones
  • Metallothionein is involved in short-term storage of zinc, and it has other functions
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18
Q

Explain the excretion of zinc. [2]

A
  • Fecal excretion (main) → increases with increasing zinc intake
    • Unabsorbed zinc
    • Digestive enzymes secreted from pancreas → some may be reabsorbed
    • Purposeful intestinal excretion of zinc
      • Transport of zinc from blood across basolateral membrane into enterocyte, through brush border membrane into lumen.
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19
Q

Describe factors influencing zinc bioavailability.

A
  • Less absorption with higher intakes
  • Animal sources > plant sources
  • Enhancers → a.a. organic acids, higher acidity
  • Inhibitors → phytic acid, oxalic acid, polyphenols, non-heme iron (found in plant-based food sources, hence lower bioavailability of plant-based zinc)
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20
Q

Discuss how whole body zinc homeostasis is maintained.

A
  • Zinc homeostasis is maintained by decreased absorption and increased excretion at high intakes and status
    • Decrease absorption through decreased ZIP-4
    • Increased excretion through transport of zinc from blood into the lumen of the gut
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21
Q

Describe the main functions of zinc. [6]

A
  • Component of metalloenzymes (>300)
  • Gene expression → zinc fingers → gene transcription
  • Membrane stabilization
  • Insulin response and glucose tolerance → signalling and release; impaired glucose tolerance in zinc deficiency
  • Immune function → development and differentiation of immune cells
  • Sexual maturation → fertility, reproduction and development
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22
Q

Discuss nutrient-nutrient interactions for zinc. [4]

A
  1. Iron → zinc and iron absorbed by DMT1 in intestine; high zinc intake can decrease iron absorption
  2. Calcium → zinc supplements may interfere with calcium absorption (particularly at low calcium intake)
  3. Copper → high zinc intake may ‘trap’ copper bound to metallothionein
  4. Vitamin A → zinc needed for conversion of retinol to retinal → zinc needed in synthesis of retinol-binding protein that transports vitamin A in the blood
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23
Q

Discuss the symptoms of zinc deficiency in children [3], adults [6], and symptoms shared by both children & adults [3].

A
  • Children
    • Growth retardation (stunting)
    • Skeletal abnormalities
    • Delayed sexual maturation
  • Adults
    • Anorexia
    • Lethargy
    • Blunting of sense of taste
    • Vision problems
    • Impaired immune function
    • Glucose intolerance
  • Both
    • Diarrhea → exacerbates zinc deficiency through faecal losses in a positive feedback loop → must interrupt this cycle to address underlying cause
    • Poor wound healing
    • Skin rash/lesions/dermitisis
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24
Q

Discuss the risk factors for developing a zinc deficiency. [4]

A
  • (1) Inadequate intake → low/no intake of animal source food e.g., vegetarian diet, low socioeconomic status
  • (2) Older adults → reduced gastric acidity, often poorer nutrition
  • (3) Alcohol consumption → reduces intestinal zinc absorption and increases urinary zinc excretion
  • (4) Diseases/conditions that cause malabsorption e.g., IBD, chronic diarrhea, sickle cell disease)
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25
Describe the symptoms of zinc toxicity, both acute (3) and chronic (2).
* **Acute toxicity** * Vomiting * Abdominal cramps * GI distress * **Chronic toxicity** * Copper deficiency * Anemia → copper is needed for the transport of iron
26
Discuss current evidence for use of zinc in prevention or treatment of common colds.
* Zinc is important for immune function. * Overall, research suggests that high dose zinc supplements taken at the onset of a cold (i.e., the start of noticeable symptoms) may reduce onset and duration.
27
What is zinc?
Zinc is an **essential micromineral,** or trace element Mostly occurs in the body in the form of Zn2+
28
Zinc content of foods often associated with protein content of foods. True or False?
True.
29
Zinc content of foods often associated with CHO content of foods. True or False?
False. * Zinc content of foods often associated with protein content of foods.
30
Plant sources have less zinc and zinc is less well absorbed from plant sources. True or False?
True.
31
Plant sources have more zinc and zinc is better absorbed from plant sources. True or False?
False. * Plant sources have less zinc and zinc is less well absorbed from plant sources.
32
Describe the DRI for zinc.
RDA → based on amount needed maintain balance as well as on estimates of zinc absorption and body losses Tolerable Upper Intake Level = 40mg/day
33
Answer → C
34
What are three minor pathways for zinc absorption? (i.e., not ZIP-4)
* Minor pathways; * DMT1 * With amino acids via amino acid carriers * Paracellular diffusion at high intakes (\>20 mg)
35
What is a mechanism for maintaining zinc homeostasis?
ZIP-4 degraded with high Zn status
36
What is the overall absorption rate of zinc? What influences this rate? [2]
* 20-50% of ingested zinc is absorbed * Absorption rate is influenced by zinc **intake** and **enhancers/inhibitors**
37
Describe how zinc intake affects its absorption rate.
* Less absorption with higher intakes * 100% absorbed at intake levels \<1mg * 30-40% absorbed at intake level of about 12mg
38
What are enhancers of zinc bioavailability? [2]
* Amino acids, organic acids → form soluble complexes with zinc * Higher acidity
39
What are inhibitors of zinc bioavailability? [4]
* (1) Phytic acid, (2) oxalic acid, (3) polyphenols → form complexes with zinc that are not absorbed * (4) Non-heme iron (particularly at high doses)
40
What are the 3 possible fates of zinc absorbed into an enterocyte?
* Used intracellularly for biochemical functions * Stored, or sequestered in vesicles or Golgi network * Transported through the cytosol bound to proteins, across the basolateral membrane (through ZnT1)
41
Zinc is transported in free form in plasma. True or False?
False. Zinc is bound to proteins (e.g., albumin) or amino acids in plasma.
42
How is zinc transported in the blood?
Bound to proteins (e.g., albumin) or amino acids
43
How is zinc taken up into cells?
* ZIPs as importers; also DMT1 * Zinc transporters (ZnTs) as exporters
44
How is zinc transported within cells?
* Zinc is bound to proteins in: * Nucleus (30-40%) * Cytosol (50%) * Cell membrane (10%)
45
Metallothionein has a higher affinity for zinc than copper. True or False?
False. Metallothionein has a higher affinity for copper than zinc → copper bound to metallothionein in enterocyte become ‘trapped’ → higher zinc in the body stimulates synthesis of **metallothionein in enterocyte** → *zinc-induced copper deficiency possible*
46
Metallothionein has a higher affinity for copper than zinc. True or False?
True. Copper bound to metallothionein in enterocyte become ‘trapped’ → higher zinc in the body stimulates synthesis of **metallothionein in enterocyte** → *zinc-induced copper deficiency possible*
47
What are the functions of metallothionein? [5]
* Storage complex for zinc * Intracellular transport of zinc * Detoxifying heavy metals * Stabilizing membranes * Antioxidant
48
A copper-induced zinc deficiency is possible. True or False?
False. * A zinc-induced copper-deficiency is possible because higher zinc in the body stimulates metallothionein synthesis in enterocyte → metallothionein has a higher affinity for copper than zinc
49
A zinc-induced copper deficiency is possible. True or False?
True. A zinc-induced copper-deficiency is possible because higher zinc in the body stimulates metallothionein synthesis in enterocyte → metallothionein has a higher affinity for copper than zinc
50
Answer → A Amino acids and organic acids can form soluble complexes with zinc that enhance absorption.
51
Answer → B Zinc is not excreted through biliary excretion mechanisms.
52
How does zinc function as a component of \>300 metalloenzymes?
Zn2+ provides **structural integrity** to enzymes and participates in reaction at **catalytic site**.
53
Give examples of zinc function through its cofactor role in metalloenzymes. [5]
* Antioxidant function through role in Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase (SOD) * Synthesis and degradation of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, DNA and RNA → zinc functions as cofactor for various enzymes including kinases, phosphorylases, polymerases * Digestion of nutrients (e.g., folate hydrolase, alkaline phosphatase) * Wound healing (matrix metalloproteinase) * Taste (gustin)
54
Describe the role of zinc in gene expression.
* Zinc fingers → structural role regulating gene transcription (e.g., estrogen receptor; glucocorticoid receptor
55
Answer → D
56
Answer → C
57
Answer → D Impaired copper absorption is an effect of zinc toxicity not deficiency.
58
Zinc has a UL. True or False?
True. 40 mg/day
59
Zinc does not have a UL. True or False?
False. Zinc UL = 40mg/day
60
Describe the physiological implications of Menke's disease.
* ATP7A is needed to release Cu from the enterocyte into the blood. * Lack of ATP7A leads to impaired release of copper from enterocytes (= decreased absorption → **copper deficiency**) * Impaired uptake of copper across blood-brain barrier by the brain which leads to neurological deficits that cannot be corrected. * ***Deficiency symptom** → implicated metalloenzyme* * **Steely depigmented hair** → tyrosinase * **Ruptured arteries** → lysyl oxidase * **Reduced bone mineral density** → lysyl oxidase * **Brain & cognitive abnormalities** → decreased synthesis and degradation of neuropeptides due to impaired transport across BBB and also cytochrome C oxidase is important in synthesis of myelin
61
Describe the physiological effects of Wilson's disease.
* Impaired excretion of copper in bile (= **copper toxicity**) * Impaired secretion of ceruloplasmin (= main copper transporter → lower transport in blood despite toxicity)
62
List good food sources of copper.
* Meats (organ meats), shellfish, legumes, nuts, and seeds * In food → mainly Cu2+ bound to a.a./proteins * In supplements → copper sulfate and other complexed forms
63
Explain the processes involved in copper digestion.
* Release of Cu2+ from food components via digestive enzymes in stomach and small intestine * Reduction of Cu2+ → Cu+ (main absorption form = Cu+) * Occurs in stomach (low pH) and * By reductases in the small intestine
64
Explain the processes involved in copper absorption.
* Where → mainly duodenum * How → mainly as cuprous (Cu+) * (1) Carrier mediated through Copper transporter 1 (Ctr1) → synthesis may be inversely related to status * (2) DMT1 * Overall absorption rate → absorption efficiency inversely related to dietary intakes and body copper status
65
Explain the processes involved in copper transport.
* **Intracellular movement of copper via chaperone proteins** → prevents pro-oxidant effects of copper; transfers copper to various enzymes * **ATP7A** → transport of copper through the basolateral membrane of enterocyte; release of copper from most cells (except liver); transport of copper across blood-brain barrier * **ATP7B** → transport of copper into golgi for synthesis of copper containing enzymes & ceruloplasmin; export of copper into bile duct for excretion
66
Explain the processes involved in copper metabolism.
* Shuttled and transferred into Golgi network via **ATP7B** → incorporation into **ceruloplasmin** and other **copper-metalloenzymes** * With excess copper, ATP7B moves Cu+ to vesicles → into **bile** duct for secretion into intestine * **Storage**, bound to **metallothionein**
67
Explain the processes involved in copper excretion.
* Fecal (95%) * Biliary excretion as homeostatic mechanism * Copper bound to bile components, cannot be reabsorbed! * Copper excretion into bile involves ATP7B
68
Explain the importance of hepatic metabolism of copper.
* Shuttled and transferred into Golgi network via ATP7B → incorporation into ceruloplasmin and other copper-metalloenzymes * With excess copper, ATP7B moves Cu+ to vesicles → into bile duct for secretion into intestine * Storage, bound to metallothionein
69
Describe seven functions of copper in the body.
1. Antioxidant function: Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase (SOD) 2. Iron transport: ceruloplasmin and hephaestin 3. Electron transport chain 4. Pigment (melanin) synthesis: tyrosinase 5. Collagen synthesis (in lysyl oxidase) 6. Hormone activation 7. Neurological roles
70
Discuss important nutrient-nutrient interactions for copper. [3]
* High **zinc** intake stimulates intestinal metallothionein which binds copper and prevents absorption (= zinc induced copper deficiency) * Copper is needed for **iron** transport through ceruloplasmin or hephaestin which oxidize iron so that it can bind transferrin * **Vitamin C** (a.k.a. ascorbic acid) maintains copper in reduced state for enzyme function
71
Discuss risk factors for developing copper deficiency. [3]
* Menke's genetic disorder * High zinc intake * Impaired absorption (e.g., atrophic gastritis, IBD)
72
Explain the physiological implications of copper deficiency. [4]
* ***Deficiency symptoms** → Cu-metalloenzyme activity* * **Anemia** → lower hephaestin or ceruloplasmin → lower iron oxidation and transport * **Weakened bones** → decreased lysyl oxidase → decreased collagen and elastin * **Vascular dysfunction** → decreased lysyl oxidase → decreased collagen and elastin which are important in arterial function * **Depigmentation of skin and hair** → decreased tyrosinase which produces melanin → reduced melanin synthesis
73
List methods for assessing copper status.
* No consensus on best biomarker to use → partially because of efficient homeostasis of tissue copper concentrations * (1) Serum/plasma copper and (2) serum ceruloplasmin → reliable only for severe deficiency; not sensitive enough to detect marginal Cu-deficiency * (3) Erythrocyte superoxide dismutase activity → more sensitive indicator of copper depletion than serum copper or ceruloplasmin
74
Describe the manifestations of copper toxicity.
* Copper has a UL = 10mg/day * Acute toxicity → abdominal pain; nausea; vomiting * Chronic toxicity (rare) → liver damage
75
Answer → B
76
Menke's is a genetic disorder resulting in copper deficiency. True or False?
True.
77
Menke's is a genetic disorder resulting in copper toxicity. True or False?
False. Menke's is a genetic disorder resulting in copper deficiency.
78
Wilson's is a genetic disorder resulting in copper deficiency. True or False?
False. Wilson's is a genetic disorder resulting in copper toxicity.
79
Wilson's is a genetic disorder resulting in copper toxicity.
True.
80
Describe the signs of Menke's disease. [5]
Steely depigmented hair Ruptured arteries Reduced BMD Anemia Brain & cognitive abnormalities
81
Describe the signs of Wilson's disease. [2]
Liver disease Impaired motor control and brain damage if untreated
82
Describe the onset & prognosis of Menke's disease.
Onset at birth Poor prognosis with life expectancy \<10 years
83
Describe the onset and prognosis of Wilson's disease.
Onset between 5 - 35 years With treatment normal & healthy life
84
Chelating agents are a treatment for Menke's disease. True or False?
False. There is no treatment for Menke's disease
85
Chelating agents are a treatment for Wilson's disease. True or False?
True.
86
What is copper, and what is the chemical structure of copper?
Copper is an **essential** **micromineral**, or trace element Occurs in two forms: Cu2+ (cupric) Cu+ (cuprous)
87
What are the DRI for copper and what are they based on?
RDAs for copper Depletion/repletion studies and on studies estimating obligatory losses of copper over a range of intake allowed the estimation of requirements
88
Answer → A ## Footnote **1 milligram (mg) is equal to 1000 micrograms (μg)**
89
The overall absorption rate of copper is directly related to dietary intakes and body copper status. True or False?
False. Absorption efficiency of copper is inversely related to dietary intakes and body copper status.
90
Absorption efficiency of copper is inversely related to dietary intakes and body copper status. True or False?
True.
91
Copper transporter 1 synthesis may be inversely related to copper status. True or False?
True.
92
Copper transporter 1 synthesis may be directly related to copper status. True or False?
False. Copper transporter 1 synthesis may be **inversely** related to copper status.
93
Answer → D Legumes, nuts, seeds
94
Describe copper transport from intestine to liver.
* Passage through basolateral membrane via **ATP7A,** a copper transporting ATPase (= active transport) * Transport through hepatic portal blood bound to proteins (mostly albumin) * Liver uptake via multiple carrier proteins, such as Ctr1, Ctr2, DMT1, and other unidentified carriers.
95
What is the role of ATP7A?
* Transport of copper through basolateral membrane of enterocyte * Release of copper from most cells (except liver) * Transport of copper across the blood-brain barrier
96
What is the role of ATP7B?
* Transport of copper into golgi for synthesis of copper containing enzymes & ceruloplasmin * Export of copper into bile duct for excretion
97
What is ceruloplasmin?
* Secreted from liver * Main transporter of copper in blood plasma
98
Briefly describe the cellular uptake, transport, and metabolism of copper. [4]
* Uptake of ceruloplasmin into tissues via receptors * In cells, bound to chaperone proteins * Use for: biochemical needs, storage, or transport out * Release of copper from cells via ATP7A (expressed in most body cells, except liver)
99
Where is the main site for copper storage and controlling copper homeostasis?
Liver
100
Describe the storage of copper.
* Bound to metallothionein * Copper influences hepatic, renal, and brain metallothionein synthesis, but not intestinal metallothionein synthesis.
101
Copper influences hepatic, renal, and brain metallothionein synthesis, but not intestinal metallothionein synthesis. True or False?
True.
102
Copper influences hepatic, renal, brain, and intestinal metallothionein synthesis. True or False?
False. Copper influences hepatic, renal, and brain metallothionein synthesis, but not intestinal metallothionein synthesis.
103
Answer → C
104
Describe the antioxidant function of copper.
Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase (SOD)
105
Describe the role of copper in iron transport.
Ceruloplasmin (= liver) and hephaestin (= basolateral membrane) → oxidation of iron, which is required for cellular iron release and binding to transferrin * Ceruloplasmin is also important for: * Transport of copper in plasma * Antioxidant - important in inflammatory process
106
Describe the role of copper in the electron transport chain.
Cytochrome c oxidase = terminal oxidation step in ETC
107
Describe the role of copper in pigment synthesis.
Melanin synthesis → tyrosinase
108
Describe the role of copper in collagen & elastin synthesis.
Via lysyl oxidase * Iron and vitamin C required for hydroxylase * Copper required for lysyl oxidase → **cross-linking of tissue proteins**
109
Describe the role of copper in hormone activation.
Cu required for amidation of peptide hormones → crucial for hormone function Hormones include: gastrin, cholecystokinin, calcitonin, thyrotropin, vasopressin, etc.
110
Describe why suboptimal copper status may result in neurological and physiological manifestations [3].
* Biogenic amine degradation (in **amine oxidases**) * Including histamine, dopamine, serotonin, norepineprhine * Norepinephrine synthesis (**dopamine monooxygenase**) * **Cytochrome C oxidase** is important in synthesis of myelin.
111
Answer → D
112
Describe the prevalence of copper deficiency.
Rare in adults → more likely with high Zn intake (\>40mg/day) or conditions/medications that reduce Cu absorption
113
Answer → B
114
Compare the lab findings of Menke's vs Wilson's disorder.
* ATP7B is required for secretion of ceruloplasmin from liver, deficiency decreases its concentration → inability to secrete it means the liver will store more with metallothionein
115
Copper does not have a UL. True or False?
False. Copper UL = 10mg/day
116
Copper has a UL. True or False?
True. Copper UL = 10mg/day
117
Discuss the physiological implications of vitamin C deficiency. [7]
**Scurvy →** first vitamin deficiency to be prevented (1753 ‘*Treatise on the Scurvy*') * **Fatigue and weakness** → may be related to reduced carnitine synthesis * **Impaired collagen synthesis** leading to: [5] * Small, red skin discolouration caused by ruptured small blood vessels * Easy bruising * Swollen, bleeding, necrotic gums * Loose decaying teeth * Impaired wound healing * **Fatal**, if untreated * *Development of scurvy in as little as 1 month!*
118
Discuss risk factors for vitamin C deficiency. [3]
1. **Inadequate intake** → limited food variability 2. **Smoking** (accelerates the depletion of the body's ascorbic acid pool) → smokers need more vitamin C 3. **Certain diseases** 1. GI diseases/conditions that cause malabsorption 2. Some types of cancer → increased vitamin C turnover 3. Diabetes → increased urinary excretion
119
List the forms of vitamin C.
* Vitamin C = **ascorbic acid** (reduced & active form) * **Dehydroascorbic acid** (oxidized form → can be reduced to ascorbic acid) * No endogenous synthesis of vitamin C in humans (cats can synthesize it!)
120
Describe the functions of vitamin C. [7]
1. **Antioxidant activity** → neutralizes ROS 2. **Co-substrate for enzymes/reducing agent [4]** 1. Collagen synthesis 2. Carnitine synthesis 3. Neurotransmitter synthesis 4. Hormone synthesis 3. **Other functions [2]** 1. Possible role in gene expression 2. Enhances immune function
121
Discuss nutrient-nutrient interactions for vitamin C.
1. Vitamin C and **_iron & copper_** interactions 1. Vitamin C = reducing agent 2. Vitamin C enhances the intestinal absorption of non-heme iron (Fe3+) and copper by reducing them into appropriate oxidation state for absorption, i.e., Fe2+, Cu+ 2. Vitamin C and **_vitamin E & niacin_** 1. Vitamin C = reducing agent
122
List the main food sources of vitamin C and its forms.
* **Food sources** → fruits and vegetables * **Forms in food** → ascorbic acid (main), dehydroascorbic acid * **Forms in supplements** → ascorbic acid, calcium ascorbate, sodium ascorbate, dehydroascorbate → absorption does not appear to differ between forms
123
Explain the processes involved in vitamin C digestion.
None required!
124
Explain the processes involved in vitamin C absorption.
* **Where** → small intestine, especially proximal jejunum * **How** * _(1) Ascorbic acid_ → **sodium-dependent** vitamin C transporters (SVCT1 and SVCT2) → SVCT1 = main → down-regulated by vitamin C * _(2) Dehydroascorbic acid_ → glucose transporters (GLUT) * **In enterocyte** → rapid reduction of dehydroascorbic acid → ascorbic acid * **From enterocyte** → ascorbic acid diffuses through ion channels in the basolateral membrane → capillaries → hepatic portal vein → liver (just like other water-soluble vitamins)
125
Explain the processes involved in vitamin C transport.
* Transport of vitamin C from liver to extrahepatic tissues → in **free form** in blood as ascorbic acid (main) or dehydroascorbic acid (minor) * Cellular uptake/tissue uptake * Ascorbic acid via SVCT1 and SVCT2 * Dehydroascorbic acid via GLUTs (i.e., glucose transporters) → reduced intracellularly to ascorbic acid via glutathione-dependent reductase
126
Explain the processes involved in vitamin C metabolism.
* Oxidized to dehydroascorbic acid * Further metabolized to oxalic acid and other products * Oxalic acid contributes to formation of kidney stones → at high intakes
127
Explain the processes involved in vitamin C excretion.
* Excretion through urine * Intact or catabolized, depending on level of vitamin C intake and status * Reabsorbed through SVCT1 * When SVCT1 in renal tubules saturated = upper limit of renal absorption
128
Describe the manifestations of excess vitamin C.
* **No serious adverse effects** * Most common symptoms: * Diarrhea * Nausea * Abdominal cramps * Other GI disturbances → due to the osmotic effect of unabsorbed vitamin C in the GI tract * Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) for vitamin C = 2000mg/day (2g/day) for adults
129
Discuss whether high-dose vitamin C supplements can prevent or treat cold symptoms.
Clinical evidence: * No benefit of pharmacological doses \>1-2 g per day * Regular use does not prevent colds * Regular usage (≤ 1 g/day) **may decrease** the **duration** and **severity** of symptoms * Regular use may decrease incidence of colds in individuals under extreme physical stress (e.g., marathon runners, soldiers exposed to extreme temperatures, etc.) * Note → intravenous vitamin C is often used when people are hospitalized to mitigate cytokine storms
130
Jessica, a 22 year old female, eats a wide variety of foods, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and describes herself as generally healthy. Jessica is very worried about getting sick as she ‘cannot afford to miss work’. She decides to start taking a vitamin C supplement as she heart these may help prevent colds and hopes they may help keep her healthy through the pandemic.
Answer → C
131
Jessica, a 22 year old female, eats a wide variety of foods, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and describes herself as generally healthy. Jessica is very worried about getting sick as she ‘cannot afford to miss work’. She decides to start taking a vitamin C supplement as she heart these may help prevent colds and hopes they may help keep her healthy through the pandemic.
Answer → C
132
Jessica, a 22 year old female, eats a wide variety of foods, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and describes herself as generally healthy. Jessica is very worried about getting sick as she ‘cannot afford to miss work’. She decides to start taking a vitamin C supplement as she heart these may help prevent colds and hopes they may help keep her healthy through the pandemic.
Answer → D
133
Jessica, a 22 year old female, eats a wide variety of foods, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and describes herself as generally healthy. Jessica is very worried about getting sick as she ‘cannot afford to miss work’. She decides to start taking a vitamin C supplement as she heart these may help prevent colds and hopes they may help keep her healthy through the pandemic.
Answer → B
134
Jessica, a 22 year old female, eats a wide variety of foods, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and describes herself as generally healthy. Jessica is very worried about getting sick as she ‘cannot afford to miss work’. She decides to start taking a vitamin C supplement as she heart these may help prevent colds and hopes they may help keep her healthy through the pandemic.
Answer → C
135
Describe the antioxidant activity of vitamin C.
* Powerful **antioxidant/reducing agent,** providing H+/e- * By providing H+/e-, ascorbic acid **neutralizes ROS** * **Regeneration of other antioxidants**, e.g., vitamin E and glutathione
136
Describe vitamin C as a co-substrate for enzymes and as a reducing agent.
* Vitamin C functions as a **reducing agent** to maintain metal ions (copper and iron) in reduced state in metalloenzymes. * Co-substrate for enzymes in: * **Collagen synthesis** → requires iron and copper as cofactors; vitamin C regenerates their reduced forms * **Carnitine synthesis** → requires iron; vitamin C regenerates reduced form → important for amino acid metabolism * Carnitine plays a **critical role in energy production**. It transports long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria so they can be oxidized ("burned") to produce energy. It also transports the toxic compounds generated out of this cellular organelle to prevent their accumulation. * **Hormone synthesis** e.g., gastrin cholecystokinin, calcitonin, vasopressin, etc. → copper is required; vitamin C regenerates its reduced form
137
Describe roles of vitamin C unrelated to its antioxidant capacity, reducing agent, or co-substrate roles.
* **Enhances immune function** → mechanisms unclear but may involve its antioxidant capacity, as well as: * Increased production and activity of immune cells * Promoting chemotaxis (i.e., recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection) * Increased production of complement proteins
138
Describe the stability of vitamin C.
**Stability** → destroyed by heat, light, oxidation and pH \> 7; stable at pH \< 7
139
Describe the DRI for vitamin C.
RDAs (mg/day) → 75 mg/day for me Based on estimations to nearly maximize tissue concentrations and minimize urinary excretion → smokers recommended to take additional 35mg vitamin C daily
140
Describe the overall absorption rate of vitamin C.
* Absorption **efficiency is dose-dependent** = absorption rate is **inversely related with the intake level**: * 70-95% at normal range (30-180 mg/day) * 98% at \<20mg * ~50% at \>1g * 16% at 12g * **Regulated through transporter in brush border membrane → SVCT1** * Relevance of reducing absorption efficiency with increasing intake * Prevention of symptoms of excess → protect against toxicity * Avoidance of symptoms of deficiency
141
Because there are no serious adverse effects to excess intake, vitamin C does not have a UL. True or False?
False! UL = 2000mg/day Common symptoms: * Diarrhea * Nausea * Abdominal cramps * Other GI disturbances
142
Vitamin C has a UL because excess intake is associated with serious adverse effects. True or False?
False. Vitamin C has a UL (2000mg/day) because of common symptoms (e.g., diarrhea, nausea, abdominal cramps, GI distress)
143
Discuss vitamin C in relation to cancer & CVD.
* Evidence from correlational studies: * Increased intakes of fruits/vegetables → decreased risk of cancer and CVD * Proposed mechanism: * Vitamin C can limit the formation of carcinogens, modulate immune response, and attenuate oxidative damage that can lead to cancer and CVD * Evidence from clinical trials: * No protective or therapeutic benefits of vitamin C
144
Jessica, a 22 year old female, eats a wide variety of foods, does not smoke or consume alcohol, and describes herself as generally healthy. Jessica is very worried about getting sick as she ‘cannot afford to miss work’. She decides to start taking a vitamin C supplement as she heart these may help prevent colds and hopes they may help keep her healthy through the pandemic.
Answer → B It may reduce the duration and severity, but it will not prevent colds.
145
Explain the processes involved in vitamin C storage.
No appreciable storage of vitamin C in the body as it is a water-soluble organic compound.
146
Which form of vitamin C has antioxidant activity?
Ascorbic acid
147
List the forms of vitamin E.
* Vitamin E encompasses 8 compounds/vitamers → 2 classes each with 4 forms * Classes: * Tocopherols with _saturated_ side-chains * Tocotrienols with _unsaturated_ side-chains * Forms per class → differ in the number and location of the methyl group on the chromanol ring * α * β * γ * δ * Different forms are **NOT** interconvertible * **α****-tocopherol is the main biologically active form**
148
Describe the chiral centres of tocopherols.
* Tocopherols contain 3 chiral centres with a configuration of R or S (used to designate stereoisomers of asymmetrical molecules like vitamin E) * Naturally occurring and most biologically active form = **RRR-****α****-tocopherol** * 2R-stereoisomeric forms (RSR-, RRS-, RSS-) of α-tocopherol have _some_ activity * 2S-stereoisomeric forms (SSR-, SSR-, SRS-, SSS-) disappear rapidly from plasma and have _very little_ activity
149
List good food sources of vitamin E as well as the forms it takes.
* In food → various forms, but α-tocopherol is the one retained in the body * Food sources → primarily found in plant foods, especially nuts, seeds, and oils; animal products are inferior * In supplements and fortified foods → all-racemic α-tocopherol (i.e., all possible stereoisomers of α-tocopherol): α-tocopheryl acetate or α-tocopheryl succinate
150
Explain the processes involved in vitamin E digestion.
* None for tocopherols * Hydrolysis of synthetic tocopherol esters by **esterases** from pancreas and small intestine
151
Explain the processes involved in vitamin E absorption.
* Where → jejunum * How → micelle formation with dietary fat and bile salts; diffusion of micelles across brush border membrane * Simultaneous ingestion of dietary fats improves absorption of vitamin E.
152
Explain the processes involved in vitamin E transport.
* **Enterocyte** → incorporation into chylomicrons → passage through basolateral membrane → into lymphatic system → blood circulation at thoracic duct * **Uptake of chylomicron content** → lipoprotein lipase → hydrolysis of chylomicrons → release of fatty acids and vitamin E for uptake * **Chylomicron remnants** contain various vitamin E forms → transported to liver * **In liver** → hepatic metabolism occurs specific to α-tocopherol → incorporation of α-tocopherol into VLDL by α-tocopherol transfer protein (α-TTP) → release into blood * Other forms → metabolized for excretion * Tissue uptake of α-tocopherol from VLDL, LDL, and HDL.
153
Explain the processes involved in vitamin E storage.
* 90% in an unesterified form in fat droplets in adipose tissue → **however**, this is released slowly and does not represent an available source of vitamin E when intakes are low
154
Explain the processes involved in vitamin E metabolism.
* Catabolized by the liver * α-tocopherol incorporated into VLDL by α-TTP & released into blood
155
Explain the processes involved in vitamin E excretion.
Excreted in bile (feces) and urine
156
Describe the metabolic functions of vitamin E.
* Main function = **antioxidant** * Functions in interior of membranes → vitamin E is fat-soluble * Protects membranes from lipid peroxidation * The radical form is not destructive due to the aromatic ring structure stabilizing the charge * **Other** functions, less characterized * Interaction with cell receptors and signalling molecules (e.g., inhibits protein kinase C) * Regulation of gene expression
157
Discuss the nutrient-nutrient interactions for vitamin E. [4]
* **Selenium and vitamin E interaction** * Selenium required for glutathione peroxidase (= enzyme that converts lipid peroxides into lipid alcohols) * Complementary action of both nutrients → therefore, lower intakes of selenium puts higher demands on vitamin E and *_vice versa_*. * **Vitamin C and vitamin E interaction** * Vitamin C regenerates vitamin E after termination of lipid peroxidation step * **Polyunsaturated fatty acids and vitamin E interaction** * Requirement for vitamin E increases/decreases as degree of unsaturation of fatty acids in body tissue rises/falls * Luckily, foods high in PUFA are also relatively good sources of vitamin E. * **Fat-soluble vitamins and vitamin E interaction → A, E, and K (D does not interfere as much)** * Vitamin E inhibits β-carotene absorption and metabolism in the intestine * Vitamin E impairs vitamin K absorption and metabolism.
158
Discuss the prevalence and risk factors for developing a vitamin E deficiency. [2]
* Prevalence = rare in adults * **(1) Diseases/conditions that cause fat malabsorption** * Cystic fibrosis * Chronic cholestasis (decreased bile production) * **(2) Genetic defects** * Lipoprotein disorders * α-tocopherol transfer protein (α-TTP)
159
Explain the physiological implications of vitamin E deficiency. [3]
* **Vitamin E functions to maintain the integrity of cell membranes** * Symptoms: * Fragile red blood cells = **hemolytic anemia** (RBCs lyse due to lack of vitamin E to protect their cell membranes) * Degeneration of nerve cells and effects on muscle = peripheral neuropathy (pain/numbness in extremities); ataxia (poor muscle coordination); skeletal muscle pain; weakness * Skin: ceroid pigments (oxidized proteins and fats) accumulate and appear as brown spots
160
Describe the manifestations of excess vitamin E.
* Increased tendency for bleeding/impaired blood coagulation (due to impaired vitamin K absorption and RBC lysis) * Gastrointestinal distress including nausea, diarrhea, flatulence
161
Answer → B The carbon at position 2 is bound to 4 different groups.
162
Explain why the EAR are based on **α-tocopherol only. [3]**
* (1) α-tocopherol is the only form of vitamin E maintained in plasma, and the only form that contributes to vitamin E activity * Because of preferential binding to α-tocopherol transfer protein (α-TTP), which is necessary for secretion of vitamin E from the liver * (2) Only 2R-stereoisomers of α-tocopherol appear to have any activity. * 2S-stereoisomers disappear rapidly from blood and do not have significant vitamin E activity. * **(3) Body is unable to interconvert the different forms of vitamin E.**
163
Describe the DRI for vitamin E.
* Current recommendations → in units of mg alpha-tocopherol * 1mg vitamin E = 1 mg RRR-alpha-tocopherol or 2 mg all rac-alpha-tocopherol * Based on induced deficiency in humans and the correlation between H2O2-induced erythrocyte lysis and _plasma alpha-tocopherol concentrations_ * Note * EAR and RDA based on the 2R-stereoisomeric forms of alpha-tocopherol * UL based on all 8 stereoisomeric forms of alpha-tocopherol
164
All racemic α-tocopherol refers to the synthetic form that contains all of the stereoisomers of α-tocopherol. How many stereoisomers of α-tocopherol are there?
**8** RRR, RSR, RSS, RRS, SSS, SSR, SRS, SRR
165
All racemic alpha-tocopherol refers to the synthetic form that contains all of the stereoisomers of alpha tocopherol. ## Footnote **How many of the stereoisomers of alpha-tocopherol have biological activity in the body?**
**4** RRR, RSR, RSS, RRS
166
All racemic α-tocopherol refers to the synthetic form that contains all of the stereoisomers of α- tocopherol. **What proportion of all-racemic** α**-tocopherol has biological activity in the body?**
**50%**
167
Answer → C Vitamin E is mostly found in plant oils. A low fat diet would exclude these sources.
168
Answer → B We absorb all the different forms, and many forms are deposited throughout the body. Once the chylomicron remnant reaches the liver, other non-biological forms are metabolized and excreted from the body.
169
Describe how lipid peroxidation can be interrupted by vitamin E.
* **Initiation** → lipid (PUFA) reacts with *free radical* generating *lipid carbon centered radical* (alkyl radical) * **Propagation** → Alkyl radical reacts with oxygen to form lipid peroxyl radical which then reacts with another lipid to form another alkyl radical → chain reaction continues unless interrupted * **Termination** → vitamin E reduces lipid peroxyl radical and alkyl radical, ending the chain of oxidation * Vitamin E becomes an α-tocopherol radical → regenerated by vitamin C
170
How is vitamin E function restored after interrupting lipid oxidation?
Regeneration by vitamin C.
171
Answer → A Higher intakes of PUFA means more UFA inside cells → more prone to oxidation → more vitamin E is necessary to interrupt the chain reaction
172
Vitamin E does not have a UL. True or False?
False. Vitamin E has a UL = 1,000mg/day Applies to all supplemental forms of alpha-tocopherol * Symptoms of excess * Increased tendency for bleeding/impaired blood coagulation (due to impaired vitamin K absorption and RBC lysis) * Gastrointestinal distress including nausea, diarrhea, flatulence
173
Vitamin E has a UL. True or False?
True. UL = 1,000mg/day * Symptoms of excess: * Increased tendency for bleeding/impaired blood coagulation (due to impaired vitamin K absorption and RBC lysis) * Gastrointestinal distress including nausea, diarrhea, flatulence
174
Answer → A
175
How are dietary vitamin E requirements estimated?
* Intakes of RRR-α-tocopherol and other 2R-stereoisomers of α-tocopherol are considered * Other forms, although absorbed, do not contribute to requirements.
176
Define vitamin A and list forms of vitamin A and carotenoids.
Vitamin A = a group of compounds that possess the biological activity of **retinol** (in present form or after conversion) Includes: * **Retinoids** → retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and retinyl esters * a.k.a. pre-formed vitamin A * **Provitamin A carotenoids** → β-carotene (*highest provitamin A activity*), α-carotene, and β-cryptoxanthin * Carotenoids can be converted to vitamin A. * Note β-carotene is essentially two retinol molecules
177
Explain why dietary recommendations for vitamin A are listed as RAE.
RAE = retinol activity equivalent → conversion factor defined for estimation of EAR for vitamin A
178
List dietary sources for vitamin A and carotenoids.
* Animal sources → retinyl esters * Beef liver, herring, milk, egg * Plant sources → carotenoids * Spinach, carrots, collards, cantaloupe, sweet potato
179
Explain the process of vitamin A/carotenoid digestion.
* Protein-bound carotenoids and retinyl esters hydrolyzed by pepsin and other proteases → carotenoids and retinyl esters hydrolyzed by hydrolases, esterases, and lipases → free carotenoids and free retinol * Fatty acids, phospholipids. monoacylglycerol, and cholesterol emulsified with bile and incorporated into micelles with free carotenoids and free retinol for absorption via passive diffusion across the brush border membrane.
180
Explain the process of vitamin A/carotenoid absorption.
* Vitamin A → 70-90% absorbed as long as the meal contains some (~10g) fat * Carotenoids → \<5% for carotenoids in uncooked vegetables or non-heat-processed juice; ~60% if present as pure oil or as part of a supplement * Fiber → especially pectin; interferes with micelle formation **(1)** Micelles deliver carotenoids (including beta-carotene) and retinol to the intestinal cell, where they are absorbed by passive diffusion. **(2)** Beta-carotene is converted to 2 retinol **(3)** Retinol (from diet and conversion from beta-carotene) is converted to retinyl ester (storage form of vitamin A) **(4)** Retinyl esters + carotenoids are incorporated into chylomicrons with other lipids and enter the lymphatic and then blood circulation
181
Explain the process of vitamin A/carotenoid transport from the enterocyte.
* **Chylomicrons** enter lymph, then the bloodstream via the thoracic duct and deliver retinyl esters & carotenoids to extrahepatic tissues (i.e., muscle, lungs, adipose tissue) * **Chylomicron remnants** deliver remainder of retinyl esters & carotenoids to the liver
182
Explain the process of vitamin A/carotenoid storage.
* Once hepatic storage capacity is exceeded, toxicity may occur * Retinol (from diet and conversion from beta-carotene) is converted to retinyl ester (= storage form of vitamin A)
183
Explain the process of vitamin A/carotenoid metabolism.
* Retinol and retinal/retinoic acid * Oxidized to various metabolites * Metabolites (water soluble) excreted in urine (60%) * Some metabolites are secreted into bile for fecal excretion (40%)
184
Explain the process of vitamin A/carotenoid excretion.
* Retinol and retinal/retinoic acid * Oxidized to various metabolites * Metabolites (water soluble) excreted in urine (60%) * Some metabolites are secreted into bile for fecal excretion (40%)
185
Explain factors influencing bioavailability of vitamin A/carotenoids. [4]
1. **Dietary fat** → needed for absorption of vitamin A 2. **Heat** → cooking improves the bioavailability of carotenoids 3. **Fibre** → especially pectin → interferes with micelle formation and absorption 4. **Protein** → needed for converting beta-carotene to retinol and for transport of vitamin A
186
What is the role of vitamin A binding proteins?
* Vitamin A, as a fat-soluble vitamin, is transported within cells and in the circulation **bound to proteins** * Circulating form = retinol-RBP-transthretin complex → a.k.a. prealbumin * In cells: * Retinol binds to cellular retinol-binding proteins (CRBPs) * Retinoic acid binds to cellular retinoic acid-binding proteins (CRABPs)
187
Describe nutrient-nutrient interactions for vitamin A.
1. **Dietary fat** → needed for absorption of vitamin A 2. **Protein** → needed for converting beta-carotene to retinol and for transport of vitamin A 3. **Vitamin E and vitamin K** → excess vitamin A intake can lower the bioavailability of vitamin E and K.
188
Discuss the prevalence of and risk factors [2] for developing vitamin A deficiency.
* Less common in developed countries * Increased risk * Fat malabsorption disorders (e.g., cystic fibrosis, IBD) * Protein deficiency
189
Explain the physiological implications of vitamin A deficiency. [7]
* Night blindness * Xerophthalmia * Anorexia * Impaired growth * Obstruction and enlargement of hair follicles * Keratinization of epithelial cells (skin) * Increased susceptibility to infections
190
Describe the metabolic functions of vitamin A and carotenoids.
* **Retinoids** * **Vision** * Roles related to regulation of gene expression: * Cellular differentiation, proliferation and growth * Immune system * Reproduction * Bone development * **Carotenoids** * Potent antioxidant → presence of conjugated double bonds * Eye health * Protects against: * Heart disease * Cancer * Macular degeneration * Cataracts
191
Describe the manifestations of excess vitamin A.
* Once hepatic storage capacity for retinol is exceeded, toxicity may occur: * **Acute** → GI effect (e.g., nausea), headache * **Chronic** → liver abnormalities; reduced bone mineral density; bone and joint pain * **Teratogenic** → miscarriage; birth defects; permanent learning disabilities * UL = 3000ug preformed vitamin A
192
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
Answer → D Vitamin A = a group of compounds that possess the biological activity of **retinol** (in present form or after conversion) Includes: * **Retinoids** → retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and retinyl esters * **Provitamin A carotenoids** → β-carotene (highest vitamin A activity), α-carotene, and β-cryptoxanthin
193
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
Answer → D 5000mcg / (12mcg/RAE) = ~417 2000mcg/ (24mcg/RAE) = ~83 Total = 500 RAE Answer → No
194
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
Answer → E
195
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
* Add a fat source (e.g., oil) * Add heat (e.g., cook the carrot to help release the vitamin A from the food matrix) * Remove the apple (i.e., the pectin will reduce absorption) * Add a protein source (not necessarily important for absorption, but is important for transport)
196
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
1. **Dietary fat** → needed for absorption of vitamin A; low fat = low absorption 2. **Protein** → needed for converting beta-carotene to retinol and for transport of vitamin A; low protein = low transport/utilization
197
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
* **Nightblindness** → vitamin A (cis-retinal) is needed for rhodopsin for light detection in rod cells, which are important for ability to see in low light conditions * **Dry, scaly skin** → related to vitamin A's role in cellular differentiation, proliferation, and growth * **Frequent colds** → suppressed immune system and increased susceptibility to infections
198
Colleen is a 34-year-old female. She has come to see her doctor because she has noticed her night vision deteriorating over the past few months and she is now unable drive in the dark. She does not recall any relevant injury or illness occurring prior to this. She does mention that she has been extremely stressed at work and because of this she has not been eating very much, sometimes only eating a few (typically high carbohydrate) snacks on her way to and from work. She has frequent colds, which she attributes to her lack of sleep, but otherwise does not have any current health or genetic disorders. The physical exam reveals that Colleen is currently underweight (BMI 17 kg/m2) and has very dry and scaly skin on her arms and legs. Her dietary analysis indicates that she is well below the EAR for vitamin A and her total calories are also low, with particularly low intakes of both fat and protein. Her doctor suspects a vitamin A deficiency and this is confirmed with lab findings of a serum vitamin A of 0.58 μmol/L.
Answer → A * Teratogenic toxicity * May lead to miscarriage * Effects on the fetus/child * Birth defects (e.g., cleft palate) * permanent learning disabilities
199
All carotenoids are consumed in the diet. True or False?
False. \>700 carotenoids in total, but only 60 are consumed in the diet Examples of non-vitamin A precursor carotenoids: * Lycopene, zeaxanthin, lutein * No vitamin A activity, but may have other important physiological functions
200
Not all carotenoids are consumed in the diet. True or False?
True. \>700 carotenoids in total, but only 60 are consumed in the diet. Examples of non-vitamin A precursor carotenoids: * Lycopene, zeaxanthin, lutein * No vitamin A activity, but may have other important physiological functions
201
Describe the conversion of provitamin A carotenoids to vitamin A.
β-carotene → 2 retinal → retinol or retinoic acid * Not all β-carotene converted to retinal → **1 β-carotene does not necessarily = 2 RAL** * Up to 15% of β-carotene escaped cleavage * Non-central cleavage → produces various alcohols and aldehydes
202
Answer → A
203
Describe the fates of vitamin A in the liver. [4]
In the liver vitamin A (retinol) is: 1. Used as retinoic acid in regulation of gene expression 2. Stored as retinyl esters 3. Excreted with bile 4. Secreted bound to retinol binding protein (RBP) which joins with transthyretin (TTR) to circulate retinol as a tri-molecular complex
204
Describe vitamin A transport and tissue uptake when vitamin A intake is in excess and serum retinol concentrations increase to levels \> normal range.
* When vitamin A intake is in excess and serum retinol concentrations increase to levels \> normal range: * Retinol is no longer transported exclusively by RBP * Carried by plasma lipoproteins → **When retinol is presented in this form to the cells, it produces toxic effects**
205
Describe the transport & distribution of carotenoids.
* **In the liver:** * A small portion → retinol * A portion is incorporated into lipoproteins → extrahepatic tissues * **Transport and tissue uptake through lipoproteins**
206
Describe the role of retinoids in vision.
1. Light hits retina 2. Rhodopsin molecule is cleaved 3. Signals are sent to the brain (eyesight) 4. Rhodopsin: Opsin + vitamin A (retinal) 5. Vitamin A is needed to make more rhodopsin
207
Vitamin A does not have a UL True or False?
False. * Once hepatic storage capacity for retinol is exceeded, toxicity may occur: * **Acute** → GI effect (e.g., nausea), headache * **Chronic** → liver abnormalities; reduced bone mineral density; bone and joint pain * **Teratogenic** → miscarriage; birth defects; permanent learning disabilities * UL = 3000ug preformed vitamin A
208
Vitamin A has a UL. True or False?
True. * Once hepatic storage capacity for retinol is exceeded, toxicity may occur: * **Acute** → GI effect (e.g., nausea), headache * **Chronic** → liver abnormalities; reduced bone mineral density; bone and joint pain * **Teratogenic** → miscarriage; birth defects; permanent learning disabilities * UL = 3000ug preformed vitamin A
209
Answer → A High intakes can cause orange skin.
210
What is selenium? List the different forms.
Selenium is an **essential micronutrient**, or trace element. * **(1) Inorganic forms** (supplements and some plants) * *selenide*: **Se2-** (H2Se or Na2Se) * *selenite*: Se4+ (H2SeO3 or Na2SeO3) * *selenate*: Se6+ (H2SeO4 or Na2SeO4) * **(2) Organic forms** (selenoamino acids) * *selenomethionine* (mainly _plants_) * *selenocysteine* (mainly _animals_)
211
Describe the metabolic functions of selenium. [3]
* Essential role in several important metabolic pathways, through **selenoproteins (\>25)** with **selenocysteine** at the active site * **(1) Glutathione (GSH) peroxidase** → antioxidant enzyme which neutralizes hydrogen peroxide and other peroxides * **(2) Thyroid hormone metabolism** → iodothyronin 5'-diodinase (ID); important in converting different forms of thyroid hormone; inactive thyroxine (T4) to active form thyronine (T3) * **(3) Antioxidant** → selenoprotein P → antioxidant function: major selenium-containing protein in blood for selenium transport
212
Describe the effects of selenium deficiency. [5]
* (1) Poor growth * (2) Muscle pain and weakness → selenoprotein-N * (3) Whitening of nail beds * **(4) Keshan's Disease** * Cardiomyopathy due to coxsackie virus * Low selenium increases susceptibility * **(5) Kashin-Beck's disease** * Osteoarthropathy = degeneration and necrosis of the joints and epiphyseal-plate cartilage * Low selenium plays a role (with other factors)
213
List food sources and forms of selenium in the diet.
* Brazil nuts, seafood, meats, whole grains → soil selenium concentrations vary greatly; therefore, selenium content in food varies * **Forms** in food and supplements: * _Mainly in organic form_ * Plants and supplements: * *Seleno**_methionine_*** * *Inorganic forms* * Animal products: * *Seleno**_cysteine_***
214
Describe the interaction between selenium and potentially toxic metals.
* Selenium may help prevent some toxic effects associated with some metals, e.g., arsenic-associated skin lesions
215
Discuss the potential role of selenium in disease prevention.
* Possible role in disease prevention due to its antioxidant function * Some epidemiological evidence to suggest a beneficial effect → suggested to reduce the risk of cancer and cardiovascular disease, but overall limited evidence. * In contrast, higher selenium concentrations in some studies associated with increased risk for diabetes, hypertension, and some cancers * Excess intake of selenium has adverse effects; small range between deficiency and excess.
216
Explain why a tolerable upper intake level was derived for selenium.
* UL for selenium = 400ug/day for adults * **No regulation on selenium absorption** * High intakes = high uptakes; therefore, toxicity possible
217
What are the possible effects of high intakes of selenium? [5]
* Chronic toxicity/chronic selenosis: * Hair and nail brittleness and loss = critical endpoint on which to base a UL * GI disturbances * Skin rash * **Garlic breath odour** due to excretion in breath * Nervous system abnormalities * More likely from supplements than food forms of selenium.
218
What is the suggested role of oxidative stress in chronic diseases? [5]
* Atherosclerosis * Cancer * Eye disease * Autoimmune diseases * Lung damage
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Answer → C Most of what we eat are organic forms of selenium (selenocysteine and selenomethionine) are absorbed by amino acid transporters. Less commonly consumed forms: Selenate via active diffusion and selinite via passive diffusion
220
How was the RDA for selenium derived?
Based on depletion-repletion studies and on studies estimating obligatory losses of selenium over a range of intake allowed Note: A single brazil nut provides more than the RDA.
221
Answer → C No right answer, some studies are leaning towards B, and some evidence suggests C.
222
Answer → D
223
Answer → B
224
What does science say about antioxidant supplements & disease?
* **Observational studies (cannot prove causal relationships)** → higher consumption vegetables and fruits: lower risks of several diseases, including CVD, stroke, cancer, and cataracts * **Animal models** → antioxidants interacted with free radicals and stabilized them, thus preventing the free radicals from causing cell damage → *can these results be translated to human metabolism?* * **9 RCTs** of dietary antioxidant supplements for cancer prevention worldwide → no evidence they are beneficial * **1 systematic review** → available evidence regarding use of vitamin and mineral supplements for chronic disease prevention
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Why don't antioxidant supplements work? [4]
* Other factors in food * Different dosage compared to foods * Differences in the chemical composition of antioxidants in foods vs supplements * 8 forms of vitamin E in food but only alpha-tocopherol used in most studies * Duration of antioxidant supplement use → not long enough to prevent chronic diseases
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What are three take-home messages about antioxidant supplements?
* Evidence for a benefit of antioxidant supplements in **limited** and **mixed**. * In general, it seems **better to get antioxidants through a healthy diet** than through supplements. * If you are considering a dietary supplement, first get information on it from **reliable sources**. High dose supplements (especially single nutrient supplements) may increase risk for some diseases and may interact with medications or other supplements.
227
Describe the importance of bones. [4]
* ‘Internal framework’ of body * Enable movement * Protects the brain, heart, and other internal organs * Mineral storage (e.g., calcium and phosphorus)
228
Describe bone growth and modelling.
* **Bone growth** → occurs during stages of growth * Fetal development and infancy * Childhood * Adolescence * **Bone modelling** → forms shape of bones; bone is dynamic tissue
229
Describe bone remodelling. [3]
* Bone resorption and rebuilding → occurs throughout life * Osteoclasts → bone resorbing cells → dissolve bone * Osteo**b**lasts → bone **building** cells → build new bone
230
Describe peak bone mass.
* Childhood/adolescence → net bone growth * Early to middle years of adulthood → no net change * 35-40 years or older → net bone loss * Note: Women lose bone mass faster than men due to menopause which reduces estrogen
231
Describe osteoporosis, its risk factors both non-modifiable [3] and modifiable [4].
* Osteoporosis → reduced total bone mass (density); ‘porous’ * **Risk factors** * _Non-modifiable_ * Estrogen deficiency → menopause reduces estrogen significantly * Ethnicity * Family history * _Modifiable_ * Deficiency of vitamin D, calcium, phosphorus, magnesium * Physical inactivity * Excess alcohol * Smoking
232
Describe osteomalacia, its risk factors [3], and the mechanism for development.
* Osteomalacia → inadequate mineralization of bone (i.e., soft bones) → in children = rickets * **Risk factors:** * Inadequate dietary calcium intake * Insufficient calcium absorption due to vitamin D deficiency * Phosphate deficiency caused by increased renal losses * **Mechanism = Vitamin D deficiency** * Decreased calcium absorption and decreased serum calcium * Decreased calcium for bone mineralization * Decreased phosphorus absorption * As bone turnover occurs, the **bone matrix is preserved** while **bone mineralization is impaired**
233
List the chemical forms of vitamin D that are physiologically relevant.
* Vitamin D = **calciferol**; a.k.a. the sunshine vitamin * Two main forms: * Ergocalciferol, **D2** → synthesized in plants * Cholecalciferol, **D3** → synthesized in animals * Differ only in side chains * Both can be converted to the active form and have the same metabolic activity * Active form = **1,25-(OH)2-D** (calcitriol)
234
List dietary sources of vitamin D.
* Food sources → fatty fish, liver, shitake mushrooms, fortified products (milk, orange juice) * Forms in food → D3 (animals); D2 (plants) * Forms in supplements/fortified foods → both
235
Describe the pathways of digestion for vitamin D.
No digestion required
236
Describe the pathways for absorption of vitamin D.
* Where → mostly jejunum * How: * Absorbed in micelles by passive diffusion * Incorporated into chylomicrons in enterocyte * Chylomicrons → lymph → blood → liver → vitamin D to extrahepatic tissues * Chylomicron remnants → remaining vitamin D to the liver
237
Describe the pathways of transport of vitamin D.
* **Calcidiol (25(OH)D)** = main circulating form in blood * Tightly bound to vitamin D binding protein * Half life = 2-3 weeks * Biomarker for vitamin D status assessment * Target: uptake by tissues (mainly kidney) for conversion to active hormone form, calcitriol * **Calcitriol (25(OH)2D)** * Loosely bound to vitamin D binding protein (facilitates tissue uptake) * Shorter half-life than calcidiol = 2-6 hours only * Acts in target tissues: * Bone, intestine, kidney * Also, heart, muscle, pancreas, and central nervous system
238
What are the metabolites of vitamin D?
* Other metabolites of vitamin D
239
Describe the pathways of excretion of vitamin D.
* Calcitroic acid is the major excretory product * Conjugation and excretion via the bile
240
Describe the pathway for endogenous synthesis of vitamin D.
* Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) synthesized from **7-dehydrocholesterol** in skin upon exposure to UVB
241
What factors influence endogenous vitamin D synthesis?
* Lumisterol and tachysterol → lost as skin cells are sloughed → prevents over production → cannot get toxic levels from sun exposure! * Endogenous synthesis is dependent on: * Sunblocks and sunscreen use * Skin pigment (lower synthesis with darker skin) * Aging (vitamin D synthesis decreases with age) * Time of day * Season & latitude → angle of the sun in the winter months in Canada is such that you _cannot_ synthesize enough even with sun exposure.
242
Explain the pathway and regulation of vitamin D activation.
* **Liver** (***25-hydroxlyase***): Vitamin D → 25(OH)D (calcidiol) * Most vitamin D in liver → converted to calcidiol and secreted into blood * **Calcidiol transport** * Calcidiol = major circulating form in blood * Tightly bound to vitamin D binding protein (DBP) * Half life = 2-3 weeks * Biomarker for vitamin D status assessment * Target = uptake by tissues (mainly kidney) for conversion to the active hormone form of vitamin D, **1,25(OH)2D** (mainly in kidney) * **Kidney (1****α-hydroxylase):** Calcidiol → 1,25(OH)2D (calcitriol) * _Regulated process_ → stimulated by parathyroid hormone (PTH) → occurs with low calcium levels * **Transport of calcitriol** * Loosely bound to DBP (facilitates tissue uptake) * Shorter half-life than calcidiol → 2-6 hours only * Acts on target tissues * Bone, intestine, kidney * Also, heart, muscle, pancreas, central nervous system.
243
Describe how vitamin D is assessed.
**Most commonly used indicator = serum 25(OH)D (calcidiol) concentration** → strong correlation with dietary vitamin D intake
244
Briefly list the metabolic functions of vitamin D. [2]
1. Genomic action → regulation of gene expression (\>200 genes) 2. Non-genomic action → activation of signal transduction pathways; physiological responses
245
Discuss risk factors and at risk populations for developing a vitamin D deficiency.
* Insufficient exposure to sunlight with inadequate dietary intake * Limited time outside, use of sun protection (clothing, sunscreen), higher latitudes * Fat malabsorption and inadequate endogenous synthesis * At risk populations: * Older adults → typically have lower intake and lower synthesis * Breastfed infants → human milk is low in vitamin D, infants most protected from sun exposure
246
Discuss physiological implications of a vitamin D deficiency.
* **Rickets in infants and children** * A disorder of failed bone mineralization * Defective mineralization of cartilage and the epiphyseal growth plate * Bowing of legs with weight-bearing * **Osteomalacia in adults** * Impaired bone remineralization = ‘softening’ of bones * Prolonged elevation of blood PTH
247
Describe the symptoms of vitamin D toxicity. [3]
* Hypercalcemia; hyperphosphatemia * Calcification of soft tissues * Impaired renal function
248
Comment on whether vitamin D intakes and recommendations may be too low.
* Depending on criteria used, up to 75% of people may have suboptimal vitamin D status * Current recommendation is 15 mcg (600IU) * Endocrine society suggests that 50mcg (2000IU) per day may be needed to raise low levels * Bottom line → when possible, aim to get ~15 mins of sun exposure 2-3x per week for vitamin D synthesis * When this is not possible (winter months), take a supplement with 15-50mcg (600-2000IU)
249
Describe vitamin D units.
* 0.025 mcg = 1 IU * 15 mcg = 600 IU * 25 mcg = 1000 IU
250
Vitamin D has an AI. True or False?
False. Vitamin D has an RDA.
251
Vitamin D has an RDA. True or False?
True. For me = 15 mcg/day = 600 IU
252
Answer → D Fat soluble vitamins → A, D, E, and K; absorption enhanced by dietary fats
253
Describe the time required for synthesis of ~1000IU of vitamin D with exposure of face, neck, and arms, both for fair skin and darker skin.
* Notice from the graphs that darker skin requires longer exposure for the same amount of synthesis → trade-off → those with darker skin also have less DNA damage from UVB exposure because melanin is protective * For European white skin → estimated that ~15 minutes of sun exposure is needed on arms and legs during peak sun hours 2-3 times per week (Hollick, 2014).
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Answer → D Everyone in Canada requires a Vitamin D supplement in the winter months.
255
What are the target tissues of the active hormone form of vitamin D? [7]
* Bone * Intestine * Kidney * Heart * Muscle * Pancreas * Central Nervous System
256
Answer → B
257
Describe the genomic action of vitamin D.
* Regulation of \>200 genes * Vitamin D binds to vitamin D receptor (VDR) * VDR/RXR complex * Vitamin D response element * Enhanced gene expression * Increased expression of proteins needed to maintain calcium homeostasis * Promotes **differentiation** of white blood cells, intestinal epithelial cells and osteoclasts * Promotes **proliferation** of fibroblasts and keratinocytes
258
Describe the non-genomic action of vitamin D.
* Via binding to vitamin D receptor on cell membranes * Activation of signal transduction pathways * Physiological responses * May be important for: * Calcium absorption * Regulation of calcium channels in muscle
259
Explain how vitamin D is involved in regulation of calcium status.
* Via genomic and non-genomic action → increases blood Ca * Low blood calcium → stimulates PTH release * PTH stimulates 1,25(OH)2D synthesis in kidney * Increased 1,25(OH)2D and PTH leads to [3]: * Increased calcium reabsorption in **kidney** * Increased **intestinal** absorption of calcium and phosphorus * Increased resorption of calcium and phosphorus from **bone** * **Net result = Increased blood calcium**
260
Describe nutrient-nutrient interactions for vitamin D.
1. **Calcium and phosphorus** → uptake and serum levels regulated by vitamin D 2. **Dietary lipids (fatty acids)** → improve absorption of vitamin D
261
Answer → C
262
What is the mechanism for osteomalacia in adults?
* **Vitamin D deficiency** * Decreased calcium absorption and decreased serum calcium * Decreased calcium for bone mineralization * Decreased phosphorus absorption * As bone turnover occurs, the **bone matrix is preserved** while **bone mineralization is impaired**
263
Vitamin D does not have a UL. True or False?
False. UL = 4000 IU for adults * Symptoms of excess: * Hypercalcemia * Calcification of soft tissues * Impaired renal function
264
Vitamin D has a UL. True or False?
True. UL = 4000 IU * Symptoms of excess: * Hypercalcemia * Calcification of soft tissues * Impaired renal function
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Answer → E Vegans → many sources are non-vegan Older adult females → lower synthesis and lower intakes This could be extended to everyone in winter months in higher latitudes.
266
List some good dietary sources of calcium.
**Natural food sources** → dairy products; some seafood (e.g., salmon); nuts; legumes and legume products (especially tofu); some vegetables **Form of calcium in foods** → insoluble calcium salts **Form of calcium in supplements →** calcium carbonate, calcium citrate, and other salts (note; calcium carbonate requires acidity for digestion/absorption, so it is advised to take with food since food stimulates HCl production; this is not the case for calcium citrate)
267
Describe how calcium is digested.
* Conversion of insoluble calcium salts to free Ca2+ (in the acidic stomach environment of the stomach via HCl)
268
Describe how calcium is absorbed.
* **Saturable, carrier-mediated, active transport** * Carrier = TRPV6 (a.k.a. calcium transporter 1, CaT1) * Upregulated by calcitriol; decreases with age * Occurs in duodenum and proximal jejunum * **Paracellular diffusion** → passive, nonsaturable, _nonregulated_ process * Dose dependent * Occurs in jejunum and ileum
269
Describe how and why absorption rate of calcium varies across the lifespan.
* Absorption rate is **highest in infants** and young children (60%) * Absorption rate is **lowest in older adults** and women with low estrogen (15-20%); because [3]: * Calcium transporter expression decreases with age * Endogenous synthesis of vitamin D (required for calcium homeostasis/absorption) * Decreased stomach acidity (required for calcium digestion/absorption)
270
Serum calcium concentration is under tight homeostatic regulation. Which hormones regulate serum calcium concentration? [3]
* Hormones that regulate serum calcium concentration include: * PTH * Calcitriol * Calcitonin
271
Describe the metabolic functions of calcium. [6]
1. Bone mineralization 2. Activator of muscle contraction 3. Cofactor in blood clotting → calcium needed for blood clotting factors 4. Signal transduction (Secondary messenger Ca2+) 5. Stimulation of enzyme activity (calmodulin) 6. Nerve transmission
272
Discuss the nutrient-nutrient interactions for calcium.
* **Absorption enhancers** * Vitamin D * Sugars and sugar alcohols * Protein * **Absorption inhibitors** * Fibre * Phytic acid * Oxaclic acid * Excessive divalent cations (Zn and Mg) * Unabsorbed fatty acids * **Urinary excretion enhancers:** * Sodium * Protein * Caffeine * Calcium impairs phosphorus, iron and fatty acids.
273
Discuss the absorption enhancers [3] & inhibitors [6] for calcium, as well as urinary excretion enhancers [3]. Also note what calcium impairs. [3]
* **Absorption enhancers** * Vitamin D * Sugars and sugar alcohols * Protein * **Absorption inhibitors** * Fibre * Phytic acid * Oxaclic acid * Excessive divalent cations (Zn2+ and Mg2+) * Unabsorbed fatty acids * **Urinary excretion enhancers:** * Sodium * Protein * Caffeine * Calcium impairs phosphorus, iron and fatty acids.
274
Discuss risk factors [6] for developing calcium deficiency, and populations at risk [2].
* Alcohol use * Corticosteroid use * Calcium low * Estrogen low * Smoking * Sedentary lifestyle * **Populations at risk** → adolescents and older adults in Canada due to low dietary intake; vitamin D inadequacy
275
Explain the physiological implications of calcium deficiency. [3]
* **Osteoporosis** → reduced total bone mass (density) * **Neuromuscular impairment** * Increase neuromuscular excitability * Intermittent contractions of muscle that fail to relax * Hand and feet muscles most affected * **Tetany** * Characterized by continuous severe muscle spasms * Can cause respiratory dysfunction and death
276
Describe the potential effects and causes [2] of excess calcium intake.
* **Hypercalcemia** → lethargy; anorexia; nausea; vomiting; heart arrhythmias; higher risk for kidney stones * Causes * Usually from high dose supplements (or antacids) * Hyperparathyroidsm
277
Describe the DRI for calcium.
RDA → established based on the amount required for bone health and to maintain adequate retention
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Answer → C 100g of spinach contains ~135mg calcium
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Answer → A 125mg x 32% = 40mg (milk) 50mg x 61% = 30mg (broccoli) 115mg x 5.1% = 7mg (spinach)
280
Describe transport of calcium in enterocyte.
* Binding to **calbindin** * Shuttle across the cytosol * Release near basolateral membrane
281
Describe transport of calcium across the basolateral membrane.
Ca2+-ATPase pump
282
Describe calcium transport in hepatic portal vein.
* Same as in circulating blood * (1) Bound to protein, mainly albumin (40-45%) * (2) Complexed with sulfate, phosphate, citrate, and/or bicarbonate (up to 10%) * (3) Free Ca2+ (45-50%)
283
Describe excretion of calcium.
* Excreted through urine and feces * Fecal excretion = what was not absorbed * Urinary excretion is regulated; **98% is reabsorbed**
284
Describe factors promoting urinary Ca excretion. [3]
* **Protein** → however; overall small effect on Ca balance because while high protein increases Ca excretion in the urine, high protein intake also increases calcium intestinal absorption (= no net effect) * **Caffeine** → small losses (2-3mg Ca/cup of coffee) * **Na+ **→ share common reabsorption mechanism; higher Na+ intake = increased Calcium excretion
285
Answer → C
286
Answer → A Hormones which increase serum calcium: **PTH** **1,25-(OH)2-D** *Note: Calcidiol is the inactive form of vitamin D in the blood.*
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Answer → C **Intestine** → increases absorption **Bone** → promotes resorption (i.e., release of calcium from bone) **Kidney** → reabsorb more to keep it in the blood **Thyroid gland** → vitamin D does not target this endocrine organ
288
Describe the regulation and homeostasis of calcium at **low** calcium concentration.
* (1) **PTH** released by parathyroid gland in response to low circulating calcium levels * (2) In **kidney** * PTH stimulates activation of calcidiol to calcitriol * PTH and calcitriol **increase renal reabsorption** of filtered calcium * (3) In **small intestine** * **Calcitriol** **enhances intestinal calcium absorption** through increased transcription of (1) calbindin, (2) TRPV6, and (3) Ca2+-ATPase pumps * (4) In **bone** * PTH and calcitriol stimulate osteoclasts which promote **release of calcium from bone** into blood * (5) Once serum calcium levels are adequate, secretion and actions of PTH and calcitriol are suppressed
289
Describe the regulate and homeostasis of calcium at **high** calcium concentration.
* High [Ca] stimulates release of **calcitonin** from the thyroid * **Suppresses PTH** production and release * **Inhibits osteoclast activity** → blocks calcium and phosphate release from bone * **Promotes bone mineralization** * Inhibits renal reabsorption of calcium and phosphate → **enhanced urinary losses** of calcium and phosphate * Eventually brings serum Ca back to the normal range
290
Describe **intracellular** calcium concentration homeostatic regulation.
* **To increase intracellular Ca2+** → activation of cell membrane channels allowing its entry; Ca2+ released from organelles * **To lower intracellular Ca2+** → release from cells via ATPase pumps; sequestered in organelles
291
Answer → B Tightly controlled mechanisms exist to keep serum and cellular calcium levels within a very narrow range, (at the expensive of bone calcium).
292
Describe biomarkers for calcium.
* Lack of satisfactory test to measure calcium status on a routine basis. * **(1) Serum/plasma calcium (not effective due to tightly controlled regulation mechanisms)** * So tightly regulated that it doesn't reflect dietary intake or biochemical status * Measurement of disturbances in calcium metabolism * **(2) Non-invasive techniques to assess bone mineral density (more reliable methods)** * DEXA scan * CT scan
293
Answer → D Calcium is needed for blood clotting factors, which are vitamin K dependent GLA-proteins. Calcium is needed for bone mineralization; one of the vitamin K dependent proteins is **osteocalcin (a GLA-protein)** which helps to bind calcium and bring it into bone → important for bone mineralization
294
When is calcium intake important in life?
Across the lifespan → not just in older adults or high-risk periods for osteoporosis; because → higher peak bone mass = more bone to lose before developing osteoporosis
295
Calcium does not have a UL. True or False?
False. **Hypercalcemia** → lethargy; anorexia; nausea; vomiting; heart arrhythmias; higher risk for kidney stones
296
Calcium has a UL. True or False?
True. **Hypercalcemia** → lethargy; anorexia; nausea; vomiting; heart arrhythmias; higher risk for kidney stones
297
Describe the *potential* effects of low (i.e., suboptimal) calcium status.
* Low calcium intake/status has been associated with an increased risk of * Hypertension * Colon cancer * Type 2 diabetes * Obesity * Causal relationship not confirmed to date
298
Answer → E A → symptoms of excess; however Jane is not exceeding the UL
299
List the forms of phosphorus relevant to nutrition.
* Second most abundant mineral in the body * 85% in bone and teeth * 1% in ECF * 14% associated with soft tissues * Occurs in the body in form of inorganic phosphate (Pi) and organic phosphates (bound to protein, saccharides, or lipids (e.g., phospholipids))
300
Describe the metabolic functions of phosphorus. [5]
1. Structural component of bone 2. Component of multiple biological molecules (DNA; RNA; ATP; phospholipids; coenzyme forms of vitamins) 3. Regulation of enzyme function (glycogen phosphorylase; glycogen synthase) 4. Acid-base balance 5. Oxygen delivery (RBCs)
301
List dietary sources of phosphorus.
* **Natural food sources** → meat; poultry; fish; eggs; dairy; nuts; legumes; grains; widely distributed in foods; phosphates in additives and colas * **Forms in foods** → mostly organic forms in meats (phospholipids; phosphorylated proteins and saccharides); inorganic phosphates * In grains → phytic acid = not bioavailable
302
Describe the process of digestion of phosphorus.
* Hydrolysis of organic phosphate compounds by phosphatases * Phospholipase C * Alkaline phosphatase on brush border
303
Describe the process of absorption of phosphorus.
* Where → throughout small intestine * How → as free inorganic phosphate ion * (1) paracellular diffusion (main) * (2) Sodium-dependent, saturable, carrier-mediated, active transport; enhanced by 1,25-(OH)2-D * Efficiency varies (50-80%); higher for animal sources * Absorption _not_ affected by body P status * High intakes * High serum P levels * Increased urinary excretion
304
Describe the process of excretion of phosphorus.
* Excretion through urine and feces * Urinary excretion = primary means of excreting phosphate and maintaining phosphate homeostasis * Excreted as inorganic phosphate ion * Reabsorbed with low-normal intakes * High serum phosphate promotes urinary phosphate excretion * **Regulated by PTH and FGF23** → both promote excretion by diminishing reabsorption
305
List factors [2] that inhibit the bioavailability of phosphorus.
* **Inhibitors** * **Magnesium** → formation of non-bioavailable complex * Calcium containing **antacids** (Ca acetate or carbonate → bind phosphorus
306
Explain how phosphorus homeostasis is maintained, and compare this with regulation of calcium levels.
* Serum phosphate concentration are regulated but not as tightly as calcium * Hormones involved in P regulation: * (1) Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) 23 * (2) PTH → released by parathyroid gland * (3) Calcitriol * (1) and (2) inhibit P reabsorption in kidneys
307
Discuss the likelihood of phosphorus deficiency.
* Rare, only seen in cases of: * Severe malnutrition * Other conditions such as hyperparathyroidism
308
Explain the physiological implications of phosphorus deficiency. [3]
* Impaired bone health: rickets; osteomalacia; bone pain * Skeletal muscle weakness and cardiomyopathy
309
Describe potential symptoms [2] and causes [3] of excess phosphorus. How is excess phosphorus status diagnosed?
* **Causes** * Excessive intakes from food additives and colas * Renal disease → impaired excretion of phosphates * Vitamin D toxicity * **Diagnostics** * high serum phosphate (hyperphosphatemia) * **Symptoms** * Calcification of non-skeletal tissues * Increased risk for atherosclerosis and heart disease
310
What vitamins require phosphate? [7]
* Thiamin diphosphate (TDP) * Pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP) * Flavin mononucleotide (FMN) * Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) * Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) * Nicotinaminde adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) * Coenzyme A (CoA)
311
Answer → E
312
Describe the DRI for phosphorus.
* RDA based on balance studies
313
Answer → E Phosphorus is widely distributed in food, so deficiency due to inadequate intake is unlikely.
314
Answer → B
315
Summarize the roles of FGF23, calcitriol, and PTH in relation to phosphorus.
316
Answer → C
317
Answer → D Decreased renal function leads to impaired urinary excretion.
318
Describe enhancers [3] and inhibitors [6] of calcium absorption.
* **Enhancers [3]** * Protein intake → improves solubility * Presence of lactose and sugar alcohols → improves solubility * Gastric acidity * **Inhibitors [6]** * Oxalic acid (spinach, rhubarb, swiss chard) → binds calcium and forms insoluble complex * Phytic acid (whole-grain breads, seeds, legumes) → binds calcium and forms insoluble complex * Magnesium, zinc → compete with calcium for absorption * Fibre → binds calcium so that it is not absorbed * Unabsorbed fatty acids → bind calcium and form calcium soaps that are not absorbed; mostly a concern for those with fat malabsorption disorders (e.g., liver disease, pancreatic disorders, cystic fibrosis, etc.)
319
Describe enhancers of calcium bioavailability. [4]
* **Enhancers [3]** * Protein intake → improves solubility * Presence of lactose and sugar alcohols → improves solubility * Gastric acidity * Vitamin D → enhances expression of calcium transporters
320
Describe inhibitors of calcium bioavailability. [6]
* **Inhibitors [6]** * Oxalic acid (spinach, rhubarb, swiss chard) → binds calcium and forms insoluble complex * Phytic acid (whole-grain breads, seeds, legumes) → binds calcium and forms insoluble complex * Magnesium & zinc → compete with calcium for absorption * Fibre → binds calcium so that it is not absorbed * Unabsorbed fatty acids → bind calcium and form calcium soaps that are not absorbed; mostly a concern for those with fat malabsorption disorders (e.g., liver disease, pancreatic disorders, cystic fibrosis, etc.)
321
Describe **four** metabolic functions of magnesium.
* Bone mineralization/ structural component * Enzymatic reactions * Ion channel regulation (K and Ca channels) * Enhances insulin release and action * And more!
322
Explain the processes involved in the digestion of magnesium.
None required
323
Explain the processes involved in the absorption of magnesium. [2]
* **Where** → small intestine * **How** → in Mg2+ form * **(1) Saturable, carrier-mediated, active transport via TRPM6** → inhibited by high cytosolic Mg concentration * **(2) Paracellular diffusion (main mechanism at high intakes)** → increases as Mg concentration in lumen increases
324
Explain the processes involved in the transport of magnesium. [3]
* Transport in blood, including hepatic portal vein * (1) Free Mg2+ (50-55%) = physiologically active form * (2) Bound to protein, mainly albumin (20-30%) * (3) Complexed with sulfate, phosphate, and citrate (5-15%)
325
Explain the processes involved in the excretion of magnesium.
Excretion mainly through kidney → excretion is regulated, 95-97% is reabsorbed.
326
Explain enhancers [3] and inhibitors [4] of magnesium absorption.
* **Enhancers** → protein & carbohydrates; high doses of vitamin D (enhances paracellular uptake) * **Inhibitors** * Phytic acid (whole-grain breads, seeds, legumes) * Fibre * Unabsorbed fatty acids (in case of fat malabsorption; form soaps with Mg) * Phosphorus (forming non-bioavailable complex Mg3(PO4)2.
327
Explain factors that influence the excretion of magnesium. [6]
* **Excretion affected by** * Plasma Mg concentration * PTH * **Factors promoting Mg urinary excretion:** * Diuretic medications * Protein * Alcohol * Caffeine
328
Discuss risk factors for developing magnesium deficiency.
* Low intakes → common * Low intake of whole plant foods
329
Explain the physiological implications of magnesium deficiency. Discuss diagnostics.
* **Non-specific symptoms** → delayed diagnosis * Fatigue, lethargy, weakness, nausea, vomiting * **Diagnostics** * Plasma/serum magnesium concentration * Routinely measured indicator, but not sensitive and cutoff is debated
330
Explain physiological implications of suboptimal intake of magnesium.
* Possible increased risk of * Hypertension * Type 2 diabetes * Possible role of Mg: * Sleep * Leg cramps * Migraines * Depression and anxiety
331
Describe symptoms of excess magnesium.
* Excessive magnesium from food sources does not cause toxicity, due to efficient renal excretion. * Excessive intake possible from high-dose supplements. * **Symptoms** * Diarrhea * Nausea, vomiting * Muscle weakness, paralysis
332
Describe magnesium's role in bone.
→ 50-60% of total body Mg is in bone → together with calcium and phosphorus → forms bone crystal lattice
333
Describe magnesium's role in enzymatic reactions.
**Structural cofactor to stabilize enzyme or allosteric activator** → assists in stabilization of ATP and transfer of phosphate group * Enzymatic roles including in glucose, fat, protein, and nucleic acid metabolism
334
Describe magnesium's role in ion channel flux.
**K and Ca Channels** * Mg is a ‘natural calcium channel blocker’ and also activates calcium ATPase → decreased intracellular calcium * Mg is needed for Na/K+ pump and maintaining K+ concentration in cells * Relevant for (1) nerve conduction, (2) muscle contraction, and (3) heart rhythm.
335
Answer → E
336
Describe dietary sources of magnesium and its forms in food.
* Natural food sources → nuts, seeds, whole grains, legumes, green leafy vegetables, seafood, dairy * **Form in foods** → Mg2+ * **Forms in supplements** → Mg-citrate, Mg-gluconate, Mg-lactate
337
Describe the DRI for magnesium.
RDA → established based on magnesium balance studies. 320mg/day for me!
338
Answer → D
339
How is Magnesium transported across the basolateral membrane?
Via Na+-ATPase pump
340
Compare regulation and homeostasis of Ca, P & Mg.
Homeostasis is regulated at **intestinal absorption** and **urinary excretion**. * **Vitamin D** enhances intestinal absorption of all three minerals: its main function is to increase calcium transporters to enhance calcium absorption, but it can also increase paracellular absorption of Mg and P at high levels as well. * **Vitamin D and PTH** stimulate bone resorption so all three minerals are released. * **Vitamin D** enhances renal reabsorption of calcium and phosphate, but not magnesium. * **PTH** enhances renal reabsorption of calcium and magnesium, but inhibits the renal reabsorption of phosphate (i.e., enhances urinary excretion). * Calcium and phosphate can form an insoluble, inactive complex (calcium phosphate), so excreting more phosphate in urine when PTH levels are high can help to prevent this. * **FGF23** is released from bones when phosphate levels are high and inhibits renal reabsorption of phosphate and inhibits activation of vitamin D → acts to decrease phosphate levels. * **Calcitonin** is released when calcium levels are high. It inhibits bone resorption to decrease calcium levels.
341
Answer → A Vitamin D enhances the expression of calcium transporters; vitamin D is critical for calcium absorption. High doses of vitamin D enhance paracellular uptake of magnesium.
342
Describe magnesium homeostasis when serum Mg is low.
* PTH enhances renal reabsorption (decrease urinary excretion) * PTH activates vitamin D; vitamin D enhances absorption of magnesium * PTH acts with vitamin D to increase bone resorption (minerals are released from bone, including magnesium) * Net effect = increased serum magnesium levels
343
Describe homeostasis of Mg when serum Mg is high.
* Mg transporters are inhibited; less is absorbed * Magnesium itself inhibits renal reabsorption (urinary excretion increased) * Net effect = decrease serum magnesium
344
Answer → A * PTH enhances renal reabsorption (decrease urinary excretion) * PTH activates vitamin D; vitamin D enhances absorption of magnesium * PTH acts with vitamin D to increase bone resorption (minerals are released from bone, including magnesium) * Net effect = increased serum magnesium levels
345
What is the interaction between phosphorus and magnesium?
High Mg inhibits P absorption → with increasing Mg intake → decreasing P absorption due to formation of Mg3(PO4)2
346
What is the interaction between potassium and magnesium?
Low Mg2+ associated with low K+ Low [Mg2+] → increasing K+ efflux from cells and subsequent renal K+ excretion
347
What is the interaction between Calcium and magnesium?
* (1) **Low** Mg associated with hypocalcemia → Mg2+ cofactor for 25-hydroxylase which activates vitamin D * (2) **Excess** Mg interferes with calcium function * Mg2+ reduces Ca2+ flux across membranes and activates Ca2+-ATPase pumps → reduces intracellular [Ca2+]. * Mg2+ competes with Ca2+ for binding sites on troponin C and myosin → alters muscle contraction
348
Answer → A * Low magnesium → low calcitriol because the active form of vitamin D requires two hydroxylation steps, one of which requires magnesium * Low magnesium is associated with low calcium through vitamin D * Low magnesium disrupts the sodium-potassium pump and lets potassium be excreted out
349
Answer → C
350
Answer → B
351
Answer → B Vitamin D increases serum phosphate by increasing absorption (lesser effect than compared to calcium); increases renal absorption (countered by PTH which decreases renal absorption); enhance resorption from bone.
352
Answer → A
353
Answer → C PTH secreted when calcium levels are low → acts to increase absorption, mostly through vitamin D; renal reabsorption and bone resorption
354
Answer → B PTH does increase bone resorption; but inhibits renal reabsorption → no net effect on serum P
355
Answer → A
356
Describe the main function of iodine.
* **Main function = formation of thyroid hormones** * Triiodothryonine (T3) → 3 iodide * Thyroxine (T4) → 4 iodide * Thyroid hormone production and secretion → regulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH, also called thyrotropin) * TSH will result in an enlarged thyroid gland if iodide is deficient.
357
List examples of natural and fortified food sources of iodine.
* **Food** → mostly animal sources → seafood; **seaweed**; dairy; smaller amounts in meats, grains & legumes * Iodide content in plant and animal foods varies by region because soil iodide content greatly varies → **Canada has low levels of iodide in soil** * **Salt fortification** in Canada → added to all table salts
358
Explain the rationale for fortification of salt with iodide.
* Pre 1920's **goiter** (enlarged thyroid due to iodine deficiency) was **common in Canada** due to low consumption/availability of iodine rich food sources * Iodine added to all table salts in Canada → **¼ tsp provides ~90μg iodide** * Kosher, pickling, and sea salt → contains natural iodine, but not as much as iodized table salt.
359
Explain how iodine is digested.
None required for free, ionic forms (iodide I-)
360
Explain how iodine is absorbed.
Rapid absorption mostly in stomach
361
Explain how iodine is transported in the body.
* Free iodide in blood * Highest uptake by thyroid glands through _active transport_ * Thyroid gland synthesizes and secretes thyroid hormones → **70-80% of total body iodide in thyroid gland as thyroid hormones**
362
Discuss nutrient-nutrient interactions for iodine. [4]
* **Selenium, iron & vitamin A deficiency** can enhance the effect of iodine deficiency → needed for iodide uptake and synthesis of thyroid hormones * **Goitrogens (i.e., known to increase risk of goiter)** → glucosinolates in cabbage, kale, cauliflower, Goitrin in cassava → **impaired uptake of iodide into thyroid gland**
363
List the methods for assessing iodine status. [3]
* **Urinary iodine concentration → main biomarker** * Changes with diet * Indicator for mild/moderate/severe deficiency but also of excess iodine status * **Thyroid gland → indirect indicator** * Physiologic indicator of gland health * Enlargement of the thyroid gland in case of deficiency * **Serum TSH concentration** * Increased concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone in blood = indicator for potential iodine deficiency
364
Describe the risk factors and physiological implications of iodine deficiency.
* **Risk factors** → areas without iodide fortification, especially if farther away from the ocean * **Deficiency** → Goiter (swelling of thyroid gland) * In pregnancy → congenital iodine deficiency = impaired physical and intellectual development; stillbirths and spontaneous abortions * Maternal iodine deficiency during pregnancy is associated with impaired cognitive development in offspring → **the effect of iodine deficiency in the first half of pregnancy is irreversible.**
365
Explain how easily one may achieve an excess iodine status.
Most people are very tolerant to excess intake; excess status is not likely due to efficient urinary excretion. Iodine does still have a UL.
366
Describe the manifestations of iodine toxicity.
* Thyroiditis (inflammation of thyroid gland) * Goiter * Hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism * Thyroid papillary cancer * **UL for iodine = 1100ug/day**
367
Answer → B Fatigue, weight-gain, and high TSH are associated with iodine deficiency.
368
Describe DRI for iodide.
RDA defined by studies quantifying the thyroid iodine accumulation and turnover rates
369
Answer → E
370
Describe the digestion and absorption of thyroid hormones.
* Absorbed unchanged (i.e., T3 and T4) * Allows thyroid hormone medication to be administered orally
371
Describe excretion of iodine.
* **Urinary excretion (80-90%)** * Kidneys have no reabsorption or other mechanism to control urinary iodide excretion * Excess dietary iodine that was absorbed into the blood stream but not taken up by tissues or thyroid glands is directly excreted * **Urinary excretion fluctuates with recent dietary intake**
372
Answer → A * Kidneys have no reabsorption or other mechanism to control urinary iodide excretion * Excess dietary iodine that was absorbed into the blood stream but not taken up by tissues or thyroid glands is directly excreted. * Urinary excretion fluctuates with recent dietary intake.
373
What is the general criteria for definition of essential minerals?
* **Inadequacy** results in reproducible structural and/or physiological abnormalities or speicific biochemical changes. * **Adequacy** can prevent abnormalities; sometimes, supplementation can reverse abnormalities
374
What do thyroid hormones do?
* **Adipose tissue** → enhances lipolysis * **Muscle** → enhances contraction * **Bone** → promotes anabolism (growth and development) * **Cardiovascular system** → increases heart rate * **GI tract** → stimulates nutrient digestion and absorption * **Metabolism** → stimulates metabolic rate and cellular oxygen consumption in metabolically active tissues
375
Does salt restriction = iodine deficiency?
The science is unclear. Takeaway → depends on what else people are eating; how much they are restricting salt; where the live in relation to the ocean & iodine rich soil If you are trying to reduce sodium → reduce highly processed foods; continue to use table salt
376
Which micronutrients have toxicity risk?
Vitamins A, D, E, C, B6, B3, and choline.
377
Regular use of vitamin C supplements may reduce the duration and severity of colds. True or False?
True.
378
Regular use of vitamin C supplements may reduce the incidence of cancer or CVD. True or False?
False.
379
Regular use of vitamin C supplements may reduce the incidence of colds in the pediatric population. True or False?
False.
380
Regular use of vitamin C supplements may inhibit iron absorption. True or False?
False.
381
Ascorbic acid is released from bound proteins during digestion and absorption. True or False?
False.
382
Ascorbic acid is absorbed via a sodium dependent transporter. True or False?
True.
383
When ascorbic acid intakes exceed absorption capacity, the excess is excreted in the urine. True or False?
False.
384
Dehydroascorbic acid is reduced to ascorbic acid prior to absorption. True or False?
False. Dehydroascorbic acid is absorbed via GLUT transporters and then reduced to ascorbic acid within the enterocyte via glutathione reductase.
385
Symptoms of scurvy include copper deficiency due to impaired absorption. True or False?
False.
386
Symptoms of scurvy include fatigue due to decreased absorption of heme iron. True or False?
False. Fatigue in scurvy is due to decreased carnitine synthesis.
387
Symptoms of scurvy include ruptured blood vessels due to impaired carnitine synthesis. True or False?
False. Ruptured blood vessels occur due to decreased collagen synthesis.
388
Symptoms of scurvy include increased bruising due to decreased reduction of copper. True or False?
False. Bruising is due to decreased collagen synthesis.
389
Symptoms of scurvy include impaired wound healing due to decreased synthesis of collagen. True or False?
True.
390
Zinc deficiency is associated with impaired ability to taste. Which one of its metabolic functions best explains this association?
Component of metalloenzymes (gustin)
391
At high intakes that exceed the RDA but are lower than the UL, urinary excretion of zinc will be upregulated. True or False?
False
392
At high intakes that exceed the RDA but are lower than the UL, the relative proportion of zinc absorbed will increase. True or False?
False. Zinc absorption decreases
393
At high intakes that exceed the RDA but are lower than the UL, zinc excretion in bile will be increased. True or False?
False.
394
At high intakes that exceed the RDA but are lower than the UL, zinc will be secreted into the lumen of the gut for excretion. True or False?
True.
395
At high zinc intakes that exceed the RDA but are lower than the UL, copper deficiency is likely. True or False?
False.
396
What is the richest dietary source of copper?
Oysters
397
Zinc absorption is increased in the presence of amino acids. True or False?
True
398
Zinc absorption is increased at high zinc status. True or False?
False.
399
Zinc absorption is increased at high pH. True or False?
False. Zinc absorption is increased at low pH (high acidity).
400
Zinc absorption is increased in the presence of phytic acid. True or False?
False. Phytic acid inhibits absorption of zinc.
401
There is a narrow range between adequate and toxic intakes of selenium. True or False?
True.
402
Selenium is required for synthesis of steroid hormones. True or False?
False.
403
Most people would benefit from a selenium supplement. True or False?
False.
404
Selenium is most commonly found in the body as selenide. True or False?
False.
405
Deficiency of ATP7B leads to excess dietary copper absorption. True or False?
False.
406
Deficiency of ATP7B leads to impaired dietary copper absorption. True or False?
False.
407
Deficiency of ATP7B leads to increased copper excretion. True or False?
False.
408
Deficiency of ATP7B leads to decreased hepatic secretion of ceruloplasmin. True or False?
True.
409
Which micronutrients are needed for activation of some hormones of digestion, including gastrin and cholecystokinin?
Copper and vitamin C
410
Current evidence suggests that higher intakes of antioxidants from foods may be associated with decreased risk for some chronic diseases; however, research on antioxidant supplements has not always shown the same benefits. Why is this? [4]
* The higher doses of antioxidants in supplements can have harmful effects (e.g., beta-carotene increases risk of lung-cancer in smokers) * It is difficult to trace the origin of chronic diseases to a set time or cause * The form of antioxidants in supplements may not be the same as the beneficial form in foods. * Foods contain other components that may have beneficial effects on health.
411
Digestion for retinol and carotenoids begins in the stomach with release of bound proteins. True or False?
True.
412
Digestion for retinol and carotenoids is improved with the intake of fat-soluble vitamins. True or False?
False.
413
Digestion for retinol and carotenoids begins in the small intestine with cleavage of bound fatty acids. True or False?
False.
414
Digestion for retinol and carotenoids is enhanced when vitamin A is consumed with pectin. True or False?
False.
415
The main form of vitamin A transported in systemic circulation is cartenoids in lipoproteins. True or False?
False. The main form is retinol bound to RBP and transthyretin.
416
The main form of vitamin A transported in systemic circulation is carotenoids bound to albumin. True or False?
False. The main form is retinol bound to RBP and transthyretin.
417
The main form of vitamin A transported in systemic circulation is retinol bound to retinol binding protein and transthyretin. True or False?
True.
418
The main form of vitamin A transported in systemic circulation is retinol bound to cellular retinol binding protein (CRBP). True or False?
False. The main form of vitamin A transported in systemic circulation is retinol bound to retinol binding protein and transthyretin.
419
The main form of vitamin A transported in systemic circulation is retinol in lipoproteins. True or False?
False. The main form is retinol bound to RBP and transthyretin.
420
How many stereoisomers of beta-tocopherol exist?
8
421
A supplement contains 20mg of all-racemic alpha-tocopherol and 15 mg of R-alpha tocotrienol. How many mg alpha tocopherol does the supplement provide?
10 mg
422
Phosphorus improves calcium absorption. True or False?
False.
423
Lactose improves calcium absorption. True or False?
True.
424
Magnesium improves calcium absorption. True or False?
False.
425
Phytic acid improves calcium absorption. True or False?
False.
426
Unabsorbed fatty acids improve calcium absorption. True or False?
False.
427
High calcium concentrations are sensed primarily by the […], which then secretes […] to reduce plasma calcium.
High calcium concentrations are sensed primarily by the **thyroid**, which then secretes **calcitonin** to reduce plasma calcium.
428
Your friend, Ali (24 years old) presents you with evidence to suggest that calcium supplements can increase the risk of heart disease. She is now concerned about the calcium supplements that her doctor recommended she take. Which of the following would be the most appropriate reply to this?
There is a slightly increased risk of heart disease with calcium supplements, but if her health provider suggests she needs a supplement the benefits of taking it probably outweigh the risks.
429
Paracellular absorption of calcium increases with low dietary calcium intakes. True or False?
False.
430
Paracellular calcium absorption requires energy and is saturable. True or False?
False.
431
Paracellular absorption of calcium requires a membrane channel protein (called TRPV6). True or False?
False.
432
Paracellular absorption of calcium occurs by diffusion mainly in the jejunum and ileum. True or False?
True.
433
Calcium intakes in Canada have increased over time due to an increased availability of alternative milks. True or False?
False.
434
Calcium intakes in Canada have decreased over time, mostly due to decreased milk intake. True or False?
True.
435
Calcium intakes in Canada are low in most people, except for older adults who appear to have mostly adequate intakes. True or False?
False.
436
Calcium intakes in Canada are generally quite high, with most people meeting the RDA for calcium. True or False?
False.
437
Kevin lives in Hawaii. He spends most of his time outdoors but always wears sunscreen (SPF 30). He takes a vitamin D supplement daily (1000 IU/25 mcg per day) and does not drink cow's milk but consumes calcium and vitamin D fortified oat milk occasionally. What would be the most appropriate advice for Kevin?
Take the supplement with a meal including fat to enhance absorption.
438
Most phosphorus, regardless of its dietary form, is absorbed from the GI tract bound to lipids. True or False?
False. Most is absorbed as free inorganic phosphate ions.
439
Most phosphorus, regardless of its dietary form, is absorbed from the GI tract bound to proteins. True or False?
False. Most is absorbed as free inorganic phosphate ions.
440
Most phosphorus, regardless of its dietary form, is absorbed from the GI tract with calcium. True or False?
False. Most is absorbed as free inorganic phosphate ions.
441
Most phosphorus, regardless of its dietary form, is absorbed from the GI tract through active transport. True or False?
False.
442
Most phosphorus, regardless of its dietary form, is absorbed from the GI tract as free inorganic phosphate ions. True or False?
True.
443
Milk is a good source of vitamin D because it is fortified with calcitriol. True or False?
False. It is fortified with cholecalciferol.
444
Milk is a good source of vitamin D because it naturally provides cholecalciferol. True or False?
False. It is fortified with cholecalciferol.
445
Milk is a good source of vitamin D because it naturally provides calcitriol. True or False?
False. It is fortified with cholecalciferol.
446
Milk is a good source of vitamin D because it is fortified with calcidiol. True or False?
False. It is fortified with cholecalciferol.
447
Milk is a good source of vitamin D because it is fortified with cholecalciferol. True or False?
True
448
Both calcitriol and FGF23 decrease serum phosphorus levels. True or False?
False.
449
Calcitriol and FGF23 have opposing effects on the levels of phosphorus in extracellular fluids. True or False?
True.
450
Calcitriol inhibits renal reabsorption of phosphorus, but FGF23 promotes renal reabsorption of phosphorus. True or False?
False.
451
Calcitriol stimulates the release of phosphorus from bone, but FGF23 inhibits the release of phosphorus from bone. True or False?
False
452
Both calcitriol & FGF23 increase phosphorus absorption. True or False?
False.
453
In addition to bone health, which micronutrient is also important for acid-base balance in the body?
Phosphorus
454
Why are vitamin D requirements highest in older adults aged \>70years?
There is a reduction in vitamin D formation in the skin with increasing age.
455
What is the form of phosphate consumed in phospholipids in meat?
Organic phosphate
456
How do ergocalciferol and cholecalciferol differ? [2]
* Chemical structure * Dietary sources * They have the same function
457
Vitamin D status is assessed by measuring plasma calcidiol. This is partly because it has a very short half life in the plasma. True or False?
False. It reflects both endogenous synthesis and exogenous intake of vitamin D.
458
Vitamin D status is assessed by measuring plasma calcidiol. This is partly because it is in equilibrium with tissue calcitriol. True or False?
False. It reflects both endogenous synthesis and exogenous intake of vitamin D.
459
Vitamin D status is assessed by measuring plasma calcidiol. This is partly because it reflects both endogenous synthesis and exogenous intake of vitamin D. True or False?
True.
460
Vitamin D status is assessed by measuring plasma calcidiol. This is partly because its synthesis is highly regulated. True or False?
False. It reflects both endogenous synthesis and exogenous intake of vitamin D.
461
Vitamin D status is assessed by measuring plasma calcidiol. This is partly because it is the functional form of vitamin D. True or False?
False. Calcitriol is the functional form. Calcidiol (the main circulating form) reflects both endogenous synthesis and exogenous intake of vitamin D.
462
Describe why PTH enhances renal reabsorption of calcium and magnesium, but inhibits the renal reabsorption of phosphate (i.e., enhances its urinary excretion).
PTH activates vitamin D which enhances intestinal absorption and bone resorption of Ca, P and Mg. Calcium and phosphate can form an insoluble, inactive complex (calcium phosphate), so excreting more phosphate in urine when PTH levels are high can help to prevent this.
463
Zinc is important for healthy glucose tolerance. True or False?
True. Insulin response and glucose tolerance → signalling and release; impaired glucose tolerance in zinc deficiency
464
Copper is important for healthy glucose tolerance. True or False?
False. **Insulin response and glucose tolerance** → signalling and release; impaired glucose tolerance in **zinc deficiency**
465
Describe neuromuscular impairment due to calcium deficiency. [3]
* **Neuromuscular impairment** * Increase neuromuscular excitability * Basically calcium prevents rapid depolarization caused by sodium entering the cell (down its electrochemical gradient). So less calcium, quicker depolarization. * Intermittent contractions of muscle that fail to relax * Hand and feet muscles most affected
466
Describe tetany caused by calcium deficiency [2].
* **Tetany** * Characterized by continuous severe muscle spasms * Can cause respiratory dysfunction and death
467
What inhibits TRPM6?
**Saturable, carrier-mediated, active transport of Mg via TRPM6** → inhibited by high cytosolic Mg concentration
468
Describe carnitine's role in energy production.
* Carnitine transports long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria so they can be oxidized ("burned") to produce energy. * It also transports the toxic compounds generated out of the mitochondria to prevent their accumulation.
469
Too much sun exposure can lead to vitamin D toxicity. True or False?
False. * Lumisterol and tachysterol → lost as skin cells are sloughed → prevents over production → cannot get toxic levels from sun exposure!
470
You cannot induce vitamin D toxicity from too much sun exposure. True or False?
True. * Lumisterol and tachysterol → lost as skin cells are sloughed → prevents over production → cannot get toxic levels from sun exposure!
471
Excessive magnesium intake from food may cause toxicity. True or False?
False. * Excessive magnesium from food sources does not cause toxicity, due to **efficient renal excretion**. * Excessive intake possible from high-dose supplements. * **Symptoms** * Diarrhea * Nausea, vomiting * Muscle weakness, paralysis
472
Excessive magnesium from food does not cause toxicity. True or False?
True. * Excessive magnesium from food sources does not cause toxicity, due to efficient renal excretion. * Excessive intake possible from high-dose supplements. * **Symptoms** * Diarrhea * Nausea, vomiting * Muscle weakness, paralysis
473
Excessive magnesium from supplements is possible. True or False?
True. * Excessive magnesium from food sources does not cause toxicity, due to efficient renal excretion. * Excessive intake possible from high-dose supplements. * **Symptoms** * Diarrhea * Nausea, vomiting * Muscle weakness, paralysis
474
Excessive magnesium from supplements is not possible. True or False?
False. * Excessive magnesium from food sources does not cause toxicity, due to efficient renal excretion. * Excessive intake possible from high-dose supplements. * **Symptoms** * Diarrhea * Nausea, vomiting * Muscle weakness, paralysis
475
Phosphorus absorption is affected by high body P status. True or False?
False. * Absorption _not_ affected by body P status * High intakes lead to: * High serum P levels * Increased urinary excretion
476
Phosphorus absorption is _not_ affected by high body P status. True or False?
True. * Absorption _not_ affected by body P status * High intakes lead to: * High serum P levels * Increased urinary excretion
477
Digestion of zinc requires release from proteins and nucleic acids. True or False?
True.
478
Digestion of zinc requires release from lipids. True or False?
False. Digestion of zinc requires release from proteins and nucleic acids.
479
Digestion of zinc requires reduction of zinc to Zn2+. True or False?
False. Digestion of zinc requires release from proteins and nucleic acids.
480
TrNo digestion is required for zinc. True or False?
False. Digestion of zinc requires release from proteins and nucleic acids.
481
PTH is important for regulating serum calcium levels. True or False?
True.
482
25(OH)D is important for regulating serum calcium levels. True or False?
False.
483
Calmodulin is important for regulating serum calcium levels. True or False?
False. However, one of the metabolic functions of calcium is stimulation of enzyme activity, including calmodulin.
484
Which form of vitamin A binds to opsin to form rhodopsin?
*cis*-Retinal
485
Synthesis of melanin is a function of copper. True or False?
True. Tyrosinase → copper containing metalloenzyme which synthesizes melanin.
486
Activation of hormones is a function of copper. True or False?
True. Some of these hormones include gastrin, cholecystokinin, vasopressin, and calcitonin.
487
Cell differentiation is a function of copper. True or False?
False.
488
Copper has antioxidant function. True or False?
True. Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase.
489
Copper is involved in the synthesis of collagen. True or False?
True.
490
alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol transfer protein preferentially secretes vitamin E from the liver. True or False?
True.
491
alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol transfer protein preferentially absorbs vitamin E from the liver. True or False?
False. alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol transfer protein preferentially **secretes** vitamin E from the liver.
492
alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because transfer proteins preferentially secrete other forms into bile (and thus feces). True or False?
False. alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol transfer protein preferentially secretes vitamin E from the liver.
493
alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol is the only form with antioxidant actions. True or False?
False. alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol transfer protein preferentially secretes vitamin E from the liver.
494
alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because other forms are rapidly taken up by adipose tissue. True or False?
False. alpha-tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E because alpha-tocopherol transfer protein preferentially secretes vitamin E from the liver.
495
Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to decreased brush border absorption of copper through ATP7A. True or False?
False. Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to decreased release of copper from enterocytes through ATP7A.
496
Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to decreased release of copper from enterocytes through ATP7A. True or False?
True.
497
Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to increased hepatic excretion of copper through ATP7A. True or False?
False. Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to decreased release of copper from enterocytes through ATP7A.
498
Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to increased renal excretion of copper through ATP7B. True or False?
False. Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to decreased release of copper from enterocytes through ATP7A.
499
Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to increased storage of copper in metallothionein. True or False?
False. Menke's disease leads to deficiency of copper due to decreased release of copper from enterocytes through ATP7A.
500
Magnesium and calcium have antagonistic function in muscle contraction, with calcium promoting the process and magnesium being the inhibitor if bound to sites that are normally occupied by calcium. True or False?
True.
501
Magnesium promotes phosphorus absorption. True or False?
False.
502
Calcium and magnesium promote each other's reabsorption in the kidney. True or False?
False.
503
Calcium may cause an alteration in magnesium distribution by changing the flux of magnesium across the cell membrane or displacing it on its binding site. True or False?
False.
504
Vitamin C is needed to reduce copper to the active Cu+ form. True or False?
True.
505
Vitamin C is needed to reduce copper to the active Cu2+ form. True or False?
False. Vitamin C is needed to reduce copper to the active Cu+ form.
506
Vitamin C is needed to oxidize copper to the active Cu+ form. True or False?
False. Vitamin C is needed to reduce copper to the active Cu+ form.
507
Vitamin C is needed to oxidize copper to the active Cu2+ form. True or False?
False. Vitamin C is needed to reduce copper to the active Cu+ form.
508
Copper absorption mainly occurs through carrier mediated absorption that is increased at high intakes of copper. True or False?
False. Copper absorption mainly occurs through carrier mediated absorption that is reduced at high intakes of copper.
509
Copper absorption occurs mainly through carrier mediated absorption that is reduced at high intakes of copper. True or False?
True.
510
Copper absorption occurs mainly through carrier mediated absorption that is not influenced by intakes of copper. True or False?
False. Copper absorption mainly occurs through carrier mediated absorption that is reduced at high intakes of copper.
511
Copper absorption mainly occurs through paracellular diffusion. True or False?
False. Paracellular diffusion occurs at high intakes. Copper absorption mainly occurs through carrier mediated absorption that is reduced at high intakes of copper.
512
Copper absorption mainly occurs through passive transcellular diffusion. True or False?
False.
513
Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through non-saturable passive paracellular diffusion. True or False?
True.
514
Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through non-saturable active transport. True or False?
False. Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through non-saturable passive paracellular diffusion.
515
Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through saturable carrier dependent transport. True or False?
False. Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through non-saturable passive paracellular diffusion.
516
Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through saturable passive transcellular diffusion. True or False?
False. Phosphorus absorption primarily occurs through non-saturable passive paracellular diffusion.
517
Zinc and iron compete for intestinal absorption through DMT1 transporter. True or False?
True.
518
In the presence of copper, more zinc is stored in metallothionein. True or False?
False.
519
Copper is excreted primarily through urine. True or False?
False. Copper is excreted primarily through feces.
520
Copper is excreted primarily through feces. True or False?
True.
521
Copper is excreted primarily through sweat and skin. True or False?
False. Copper is excreted primarily through feces.
522
What are the two disorders associated with selenium deficiency?
* **Keshan** → selenium deficiency increases susceptibility of cardiomyopathy due to coxsackie virus * **Kashin Beck** → selenium deficiency plays a role; osteoarthropathy
523
The main effect of copper toxicity is neurological deficits. True or False?
False. The main effect of copper toxicity is liver damage.
524
The main effect of copper toxicity is zinc deficiency. True or False?
False. The main effect of copper toxicity is liver damage.
525
The main effect of copper toxicity is iron deficiency. True or False?
False. The main effect of copper toxicity is liver damage.
526
The main effect of copper toxicity is liver damage. True or False?
True
527
The main effect of copper toxicity is skin rash. True or False?
False. The main effect of copper toxicity is liver damage.
528
Vitamin A deficiency can lead to anemia. True or False?
False.
529
Vitamin A deficiency can lead to cheilosis. True or False?
False.
530
Vitamin A deficiency can lead to xeropthalmia. True or False?
True.
531
Vitamin A deficiency can lead to impaired blood clotting. True or False?
False.
532
Animal products are a good source of retinoids and carotenoids. True or False?
False, animal products are only a good source of retinoids.
533
What form does phosphorus take in the diet?
Inorganic phosphates and organic phosphates (bound to DNA, proteins, etc.)
534
Why is there a theoretical increased risk of kidney stones with high intakes of vitamin C?
Metabolism of vitamin C to oxalic acid for excretion in urine.
535
Vitamin C absorption is down-regulated at high intakes. True or False?
True.
536
Vitamin C absorption is up-regulated at high intakes. True or False?
False. Vitamin C absorption is down-regulated at high intakes.
537
Excess vitamin C is efficiently excreted in urine. True or False?
True.
538
What form of vitamin D is found in naturally occurring cod liver oil?
Cholecalciferol, D3
539
What form of vitamin D is found in shitaake mushrooms?
Ergocalciferol, D2
540
Why are carotenoids potent antioxidants?
Conjugated double bonds
541
Is serum calcium a sensitive indicator of calcium status?
No, because serum calcium levels are tightly regulated.
542
Calcium supplements should be taken at separate times from [...] supplements because of potential interactions inhibiting absorption.
Calcium supplements should be taken at separate times from **iron** supplements because of potential interactions inhibiting absorption.
543
Phosphorus deficiency is rare, but is more likely to occur among individuals […].
Phosphorus deficiency is rare, but is more likely to occur among individuals **with hyperparathyroidism or severe malnutrition**.
544
Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with renal failure. True or False?
True.
545
Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with liver failure. True or False?
False. Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with renal failure.
546
Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with high intakes of calcium. True or False?
False. Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with renal failure.
547
Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with high intakes of antacids. True or False?
False. Phosphorus toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with renal failure.
548
Which mineral participates in all aspects of energy metabolism including glycolysis, beta-oxidation, and the TCA cycle?
Magnesium
549
Wilson's disease is associated with increased storage of copper in the liver. True or False?
True.
550
Wilson's disease is associated with decreased excretion of copper in urine. True or False?
False. Wilson's disease is associated with increased storage of copper in the liver.
551
Wilson's disease is associated with toxic levels of copper in the plasma. True or False?
False. Wilson's disease is associated with increased storage of copper in the liver.
552
Wilson's disease is associated with decreased absorption of copper. True or False?
False. Wilson's disease is associated with increased storage of copper in the liver.
553
Wilson's disease is associated with inhibition of copper function in RBCs. True or False?
False. Wilson's disease is associated with increased storage of copper in the liver.
554
How does a clinical magnesium deficiency (extreme case) lead to hypocalcemia?
Reduced activation of vitamin D
555
Which bone nutrients are more likely to be of concern in vegan diets?
Calcium Vitamin D
556
Magnesium supplements may be beneficial for sleep disorders. True or False?
True.
557
Magnesium supplements may be beneficial for leg cramps. True or False?
True.
558
Magnesium supplements may be beneficial for preventing colds. True or False?
False.
559
Magnesium supplements may be beneficial for anxiety. True or False?
True.
560
How does iodine deficiency lead to goiter?
Low iodine stimulates release of TSH which increases thyroid growth.
561
What does iodide deficiency during pregnancy lead to?
Irreversible impaired cognitive development in offspring.
562
Your friend, Bob has been taking zinc supplements (50 mg/day), as he heard it will boost his immune system during the cold season. He has an otherwise healthy and balanced diet. ## Footnote **List three nutrients that may be affected by this high intake of zinc and briefly describe the interaction for each.**
* **Iron** → high zinc may reduce iron absorption * **Calcium** → high zinc may interfere with calcium absorption * **Copper** → high zinc increases metallothionein which may ‘trap’ copper in the enterocyte and reduce its absorption
563
Your friend, Bob has been taking zinc supplements (50 mg/day), as he heard it will boost his immune system during the cold season. He has an otherwise healthy and balanced diet. ## Footnote **List three physiological effects of chronic zinc toxicity.**
* Suppression of immune system * Copper deficiency * Anemia
564
Your friend, Bob has been taking zinc supplements (50 mg/day), as he heard it will boost his immune system during the cold season. He has an otherwise healthy and balanced diet. ## Footnote **Would you expect that taking zinc daily will reduce Bob’s risk of getting a cold? Explain.**
No, current evidence suggests that taking a zinc supplement does not appear to reduce the risk of getting a cold.
565
Your friend, Bob has been taking zinc supplements (50 mg/day), as he heard it will boost his immune system during the cold season. He has an otherwise healthy and balanced diet. A friend mentions that he should take vitamin C in addition to taking zinc. What does current evidence suggest regarding the association between vitamin C supplements and the common cold?
Evidence suggests that taking vitamin C will not reduce the incidence of common colds, but may decrease the duration and severity of a cold.
566
Describe one antioxidant function for each of: selenium, copper, zinc, vitamin E and vitamin C.
**Selenium** → cofactor for glutathione peroxidase **Copper** → cofactor for Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase **Zinc** → structural component of Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase **Vitamin E** → termination of lipid peroxidation chain reaction **Vitamin C** → reduction of alpha-tocopherol radical (oxidized vitamin E)
567
Describe three ways the antioxidant nutrients interact.
**1. Cu and Zn both required for Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase** **2. Vit C needed for regeneration of oxidized vitamin E** **3. Se and vitamin E both needed for prevention/reducing damage from lipid peroxidation** → Vitamin E can donate an electron + hydrogen to an LOO• radical, forming LOOH, and glutathione peroxidase converts this lipid peroxide to a lipid alcohol (LOH). So vitamin E and glutathione peroxidase work together to eliminate free radicals that form in cell membrane lipids.
568
What metabolic functions of vitamin A may explain the reduction in child mortality? In your answer list which form of vitamin A is involved and what metabolic functions are likely linked to preventing child mortality
Vitamin A as retinoic acid is important in regulating gene expression for cell proliferation and differentiation (important for growth and development) as well as the immune system.
569
What is the physiological aspect of vitamin A metabolism that supports the frequency of a high dose vitamin A supplements (once for infants 6-11 months of age and every 4-6 months for children 12-59 months of age)?
Vitamin A is stored in the liver, and therefore, higher doses every few months can be taken to fill liver stores, which can be released during times when intakes are lower.
570
Describe the rationale for providing recommendations as RAE.
Retinol can be obtained from preformed vitamin A (retinoids) or some carotenoids. RAE accounts for the conversion of carotenoids to retinol and their different contributions to total retinol activity in the body.
571
A vitamin A supplementation is given in an oil-based preparation; if it were given as a non-oil based tablet preparation, would it make a difference for vitamin A absorption? If so, explain why?
Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is absorbed with dietary fats; therefore, taking vitamin A with dietary fat will improve its absorption.
572
Describe how vitamin D and parathyroid hormone influence levels of calcium and phosphate in the serum when calcium levels are low. In your answer include all of the organs and processes involved as well as the overall effects of both vitamin D and PTH.
* When calcium is low, PTH is released from the parathyroid. * In the kidney, PTH promotes activation of vitamin D to calcitriol. * Calcitriol enhances calcium and phosphate (to some extent) absorption from intestine. * PTH and calcitriol increase resorption of calcium and phosphate from bone * Calcitriol increases reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from the kidney * PTH increases calcium reabsorption but inhibits phosphate resorption in kidney * The net effect of calcitriol is to increase both calcium and phosphate in serum * PTH increases calcium but has no net effect on phosphate levels.
573
What hormone is secreted in response to high serum calcium levels and where is this released from?
Calcitonin - released from thyroid gland
574
What additional hormone is secreted in response to high serum phosphate levels and where is this released from?
FGF23 – released from bone (osteocytes)
575
Briefly describe how intracellular calcium is regulated.
Intracellular calcium levels are maintained through a balance of calcium entry into the cell (via calcium channels) and release from the cell (via transporters), as well as regulated storage and release of calcium from organelles.
576
In addition to vitamin D, list one other fat soluble vitamin that is required for calcification of bone.
Vitamin A
577
Compare the digestion and absorption of calcium carbonate and calcium citrate, two forms of calcium found in supplements.
* Calcium carbonate requires acidity for digestion/absorption, so it is advised to take with food since food stimulates HCl production. * This is not the case for calcium citrate.
578
How are the less commonly consumed forms of selenium absorbed?
Less commonly consumed forms: **Selenate** via active transport **Selinite** via passive diffusion
579
What are the forms of Mg in supplements? [3]
Mg-citrate Mg-gluconate Mg-lactate
580
What are the forms of vitamin E in supplements and fortified foods? [2]
All-racemic α-tocopherol (i.e., all possible stereoisomers of α-tocopherol) α-tocopheryl acetate α-tocopheryl succinate
581
What are the forms of zinc in supplements? [2]
Zinc salts (e.g., zinc sulfate, zinc gluconate)
582
What are the forms of copper in supplements? [1]
Copper sulfate and other complexed forms
583
What are the forms of vitamin C in supplements? [4]
Ascorbic acid Calcium ascorbate Sodium ascorbate Dehydroascorbate
584
What are the supplemental forms of selenium? [4]
* **Inorganic forms:** * *selenide*: **Se2-** (H2Se or Na2Se) * *selenite*: **Se4+** (H2SeO3 or Na2SeO3) * *selenate*: **Se6+** (H2SeO4 or Na2SeO4) * **Organic form → selenomethionine**
585
What are the supplemental forms of vitamin D? [2]
Ergocalciferol, D2 Cholecalciferol, D3
586
What are the supplemental forms of calcium? [3]
Calcium carbonate Calcium citrate …and other salts