Final exam pqs Flashcards by Henriette Wisnes

Which is not zoonotic?

a. Sarcoptes
b. Demodicosis
c. Trichophyton

b. Demodicosis

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Most common causes of lower urinary tract disease in cats?

a. Bladder tumour, prostate alterations
b. Anatomical disorders, foreign bodies
c. Bacterial infection, urolithiasis
d. Interstitial cystitis, urolithiasis

d. Interstitial cystitis, urolithiasis

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Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) features:

a. Disease of feedlot lambs caused by adenovirus, fever, sudden neurological signs, somnolence (sleeping disease) coma, death within 2 days
b. Haemophilus somnus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia - encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonus, lateral recumbency, strabismus, somnolence
c. Streptococcus-caused disease of calves, disorders of the respiratory organs, followed by neurological signs, somnolence (sleeping disease) coma, death within one weeks

b. Haemophilus somnus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia - encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonus, lateral recumbency, strabismus, somnolence

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Bronchodilators for horses in emergency treatment (in RAO / COPD)?

a. Triamcinolone, fluticazon
b. Bromhexine, dembrexine
c. Albuterol, clenbuterol
d. Atropine, ipratropium

d. Atropine, ipratropium

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When serum parameters would be increased in this foal with Se- Vitamin -E deficiency?

a. AST, CK, LDH
b. GGT, AST, ALT
c. CK, SDH, GLDH
d. Creatinine, ALT, CK

a. AST, CK, LDH

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Which is the appropriate liver enzyme group for ruminants’ hepatic enzymes?

a) AST, ALT, GLDH, GGT, ALP
b) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP
c) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP, bilirubin
d) AST, CK, GLDH, GGT, ALP, troponin

b) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP

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The course of botulism in cattle:

a. Only peracute or acute
b. Can be peracute, acute or subacute
c. Only acute
d. Only subacute and chronic

b. Can be peracute, acute or subacute

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Equine pneumonia treatment / antibacterial drugs?

a. Ampicillin, lincomycin, metronidazole
b. Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole
c. Clindamycin, metronidazole, neomycin
d. Erythromycin, clarithromycin, amphotericin

b. Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole

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Laboratory findings of a hepatopathy in horses?

a. ALT↑, AST↓, SDH↑, total protein↑, blood anaemia↓
b. Erythrocyte count↓, left shift of the granulocytes, bilirubin↑, bile acids↓
c. Bilirubin↑, bile acids↑, AST↑, GGT↑, GLDH↑, SDH↑
d. BUN↑, ammonia↑, total protein↑, creatinine↑

c. Bilirubin↑, bile acids↑, AST↑, GGT↑, GLDH↑, SDH↑

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Gingivostomatitis in cats: possible aetiology

a. Mycoplasma haemofelis
b. Brachyspira hyosdisenterica
c. FIP
d. FIV
e. Isospora felis

d. FIV

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The most common congenital cardiac disease of swine from the list below:

a. Congenital ventricular septal defect
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Congenital mitral valve dysplasia
d. Congenital atrial septal defect

a. Congenital ventricular septal defect

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Heterotrop impulse formation disorders: ventricular?

a. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter
b. Ventricular extrasystole, atrioventricular block, ventricular tachycardia
c. Ventricular tachycardia, fascicular block, ventricular flutter
d. Vandering pacemaker, AV block, ventricular fibrillation

a. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter

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What disorder could cause the alterations in this picture? (enlarged mandible, bone tumour)

a. Hypertrophic ostheopathy (acropachia)
b. Craniomandibular osteopathy
c. A hypervitaminosis
d. Rachitis

b. Craniomandibular osteopathy

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Vegetative endocarditis / swine most commonly affected cardiac valve?

a. Aortic valve
b. Mitral valve
c. Tricuspid valve
d. Pulmonic valve

b. Mitral valve

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Which statement describes sycosis horses?

a. Folliculitis on the back due to the untended saddle
b. Folliculitis long hair follicles on the hock, dorsal margin of the neck, root of the tail
c. Painful pustulous skin disease appearing on the skin of neck, back due to poor handling

b. Folliculitis long hair follicles on the hock, dorsal margin of the neck, root of the tail

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DIC: therapy?

a) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid
b) Transfusion, vitamin-K, fluid therapy
c) Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy
d) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, pentoxifylline
e) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, furosemide

c) Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy

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Fog fever cattle: which substance damages the alveoli?

a. 3-methylindole
b. L-triptophan
c. 18-S-protein
d. Fumonisine B1

a. 3-methylindole

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Dental diseases in horses: signs?

a. Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, diarrhoea
b. Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, nasal discharge
c. Dysphagia, nasal discharge, head tilt
d. Dysphagia, diarrhoea, nasogastric reflux

b. Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, nasal discharge

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Paraesthesia in cattle. For what disease is this symptom characteristic?

a. Rabies
b. TEME
c. Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies)
d. Acute lead poisoning

c. Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies)

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Hyperlipidaemia of horses: occurrence / aetiology?

a. In maiden mares, high fat diet
b. Breed predisposition (ponies, miniature, thoroughbreds), anorexia after parturition, stress
c. Breed predisposition (ponies, miniature), pregnancy, obesity, stress, anorexia
d. Breed predisposition (thoroughbreds), stress, anorexia

c. Breed predisposition (ponies, miniature), pregnancy, obesity, stress, anorexia

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Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:

a. Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
b. Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
c. Chronic liver disease, DIC, Raynaud’s syndrome
d. Rodenticide poisoning, DIC, Harada’s disease

a. Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease

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COPD (RAO) / Bronchoalveolar lavage sample

a. Neutrophils <2%, eosinophils >2%
b. Mast cells >20%
c. Eosinophils >2%, neutrophils >5%
d. Neutrophils >20%

d. Neutrophils >20%

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Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: therapy?

a. Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt
b. Crisis: 0.09% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt
c. Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: progesterone, prednisolone
d. Crisis: 0.9% saline, fludrocortisone, Later: hydrocortisone, prednisolone, salt

a. Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt

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Polydipsia definition in dog and cat?

a. Dog and cat: water intake >50ml/bwkg/day
b. Dog: water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day
c. Dog and cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day
d. Dog: water intake >50ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day

b. Dog: water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day

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Photosensitisation: Which statement is true? a. Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) causes primary photosensitisation b. Lupinus albus causes only primary photosensitisation, but not 2ndary photosensitisation c. Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) causes only secondary photosensitisation d. The colchicine causes only secondary photosensitisation

a. Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort) causes primary photosensitisation

Congenital heart diseases causing volume overload? a. Aortic stenosis, tricuspid dysplasia b. Fallot tetralogy, pulmonic stenosis c. PDA, VSD d. ASD, mitral dysplasia, PPDH

c. PDA, VSD

Equine pneumonia: treatment / antibacterial drugs? a. Ampicillin, lincomycin, metronidazole b. Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole c. Clindamycin, metronidazole, neomycin d. Erythromycin, clarithromycin, amphotericin

b. Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole

Paraprostic cysts are? a. Caused by ascending ifections (e.g. E. coli) b. Caused by prostatic tumour or squamous metaplasia c. Remnants of the Müllerian-duct or retention cysts d. Small fluid filled cavities

c. Remnants of the Müllerian-duct or retention cysts

Rhodococcus equi in horse? a. Occurs in foals between 1-6 months b. Occurs exclusively in immunosuppressed individuals c. Occurs in neonatal foals d. Causes bronchitis in adult horses

a. Occurs in foals between 1-6 months

Which statement is NOT true? a. The bilirubinuria is always pathologic in cats associated with hyperbilirubinaemia b. The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid induced isoenzymes c. The ALT and AST are hepatocellular enzymes d. the bile acid, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis

b. The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid induced isoenzymes

Guttural pouch mycosis: signs? a. Unilateral nasal bleeding, fever, halitosis b. Bilateral nasal discharge, fever, cough c. Epistaxis, nasal discharge, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis, Horner syndrome d. Swollen parotid region, loss of appetite, weightloss, cough

c. Epistaxis, nasal discharge, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis, Horner syndrome

Which drug can not be applied for feline autoimmune dermatopathies? a. Cyclosporine b. Prednisolone c. Azathioprine d. Desadresone

c. Azathioprine

Which statement is NOT characteristic for the primer Cu accumulation? a. Progressive, life-long Cu accumulation b. Centrolobular zona c. Beddlington terrier, Labrador and Dalmatian have primer Cu accumulation d. The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

d. The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

Congenital heart diseases causing pressure overload? a. Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis b. Fallot tetralogy, tricuspid dysplasia c. PDA, VSD d. ASD, mitral dysplasia, PPDH

a. Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis

Traumatic / perforating pericarditis: specific symptoms in cattle? a. Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased or missing cardiac sounds, splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket oedema b. Horizontal dullness in the thorax, dystolic cardiac murmur, congested jugular vein, + venous pulse c. Absolute cardiac dullness, pericardial cardiac murmurs, insp. dyspnoea, Diernhofer-triangle disease d. Convex, dorsal dullness in the thorax, rubbing sounds, congested jugular vein, - venous pulse

a. Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased or missing cardiac sounds, splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket oedema

Common symptoms of chronic renal diseases? a. Abdominal pain, polyuria, hypocalcaemia b. Papillary oedema, hypokalaemia, dysuria c. Regenerative anaemia, hypertension, hypophosphataemia d. Non-regenerative anaemia, hypertension, blindness

d. Non-regenerative anaemia, hypertension, blindness

Secretolytics for horses? a. Atropine, terbutaline, dembrexine b. Acetylcysteine, bromhexine, dembrexine c. Terbutaline, clenbuterol, dexamethasone d. Clenbuterol, albuterol, dembrexine

b. Acetylcysteine, bromhexine, dembrexine

Skin lesions of acute porcine erysipelas a. Necrosis, exfoliation of the skin b. Vesicles with serous content, later eruptions - skin ulceration c. Diffuse erythema, hemorrhages, diamond-shaped red raised discolouration of skin d. There are no skin lesions

c. Diffuse erythema, hemorrhages, diamond-shap red raised discolouration of skin

Aortic insufficiency / cardiac murmur: characteristics? a. III-VI/VI decrescendo, holodiastolic murmur, often heard in horacic inlet as well b. III-VI/VI crescendo-decrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in thoracic inlet as well c. III-VI/VI decrescendo, systolic murmur, often heard over the right hemithorax d. I-IV/VI decrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in the thoracic inlet as well

b. III-VI/VI crescendo-decrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in thoracic inlet as well

Free abdominal fluid: which statement is true? a. Chyle is a milk-like fluid b. The protein content of exudate is low c. In case of hypoalbuminaemia, modified transudate accumulates in the abdomen d. In case of urinary bladder rupture, creatinine conc is higher in blood, than in abdomen e. Intraabdominal bleeding causes iron deficiency anaemia

a. Chyle is a milk-like fluid

Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings? a. Non-regenerative anaemia, anisocytosis, autoagglutination b. Regenerative anaemia, hypochromasia, microcytosis c. Positive osmotic fragility test, autoagglutination, neutropenia d. Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

d. Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

What is the most common underlying disease in the case of bacterial folliculitis in dogs? a. Atopic dermatitis b. Hypothyroidism c. Diabetes mellitus d. Keratoseborrboric disorders

a. Atopic dermatitis

Rhinitis cause: dog a. Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection b. Canine distemper, rhinotracheitis (calicivirus), mycotic rhinitis c. Rhinopneumonitis (herpesvirus), Rubarth-disease, canine distemper d. canine distemper, leptospirosis, mycotic rhinitis

a. Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection

Which statement is TRUE for the laboratory signs of fatty liver syndrome in cows? a. The blood ammonia concentration usually does not change b. The blood non-esterified fatty acid concentration (NEFA) usually does not change c. The blood urea concentration usually decreases d. The blood urea concentration usually increases

c. The blood urea concentration usually decreases

Feline viral leukaemia: aetiology? a. Pathogen: Lentivirus, Oncoviridae family (FeLV), infection by inhalation in indoor cats together b. Pathogen: oncovirus (FIV), infection via faeces, in old male cats c. Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family (FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats d. Pathogen: retrovirus, Caliciviridae family (FeLV), infection: via urine, faeces

c. Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family (FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats

Atrial fibrillation in horses: a. Quinidine sulphate b. Procainamide c. Lidocaine

a. Quinidine sulphate

How would you treat a cat diagnosed with interstitial cystitis (FIC)? a. Antibiotics b. Urine acidifying diet c. Catheterisation, flushing out of the bladder with isotonic saline d. Increase water intake

d. Increase water intake

Pathophysiology of post-exercise myopathy (myoglobinuria paralytica): Horse? a) Muscular-glycogen↑ -> local lactic acid↑ -> vasoconstriction due to hypoxaemia -> Zenker type myopathy -> muscular-paralysis + myoglobinuria b) Hypoxia -> anaerobe glycolysis↑-> local lactic acid↑ -> myonecrosis -> + myoglobinuria + tubulonephrosis c) Hypoxia -> anaerobe glycolysis↑ -> local lactic acid↑ -> Zenker type myopathy -> + myoglobinuria + immune-mediated glomerulonephritis

a) Muscular-glycogen↑ -> local lactic acid↑ -> vasoconstriction due to hypoxaemia -> Zenker type myopathy -> muscular-paralysis + myoglobinuria

Oesophageal obstruction cattle: symptoms? a. Dysphagia due to secondary pharyngeal paralysis, regurgitation, tympany b. Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, secondary ruminal tympany c. Inability to swallow, oesophageal paralysis, ruminal atony d. True colic, kyphosis, dilation of the rumen

b. Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, secondary ruminal tympany

COPD (RAO) a. Allergic disease b. Chronic fungal infection c. Chronic bacterial infection d. Chronic viral infection

a. Allergic disease

Equine motor neuron disease: cause? a. Selenium toxicity b. Vitamin E deficiency c. Vitamin B1 deficiency d. Unidentified clostridium strain

b. Vitamin E deficiency

Which statement is NOT characteristic for the seconder Cu accumulation? a. The liver damage is not proportional with the Cu level of the liver b. Periportal c. Dobermann, Labrador, and Dalmatian have seconder Cu accumulation d. The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

c. Dobermann, Labrador, and Dalmatian have seconder Cu accumulation

Tetanus: aetiology / pathogenesis in dog? a. Clostridium tetani infection -> encephalitis -> spastic paralysis b. Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection -> tetanospasmin-formation -> GABA and glicin inhibition c. Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin -> neuromuscular paralytic effect d. Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin -> GABA and glicin activation

b. Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection -> tetanospasmin-formation -> GABA and glicin inhibition

Dysphagia: causes in horse? a. Disorders of the V, VII, IX, X, XII cranial nerves b. Disorders of the V, VI, IX, X, XI cranial nerves c. Disorders of the IV, IX, XII cranial nerves d. Disorders of the III, VII, X, XI, XII cranial nerves

a. Disorders of the V, VII, IX, X, XII cranial nerves

What is the 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders? a. 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are inflammatory processes b. 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are necrotic c. 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are hematoma d. 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes

d. 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy: diagnostics: which is NOT true? a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. Endoscopy d. CT

b. Ultrasound

What would cause central distension of the jugular vein in the horse? a. Thrombophlebitis b. Pericardial effusion or tricuspid insufficiency c. Cor pulmonale d. AO insufficiency

a. Thrombophlebitis

In what kind of disease is this breed (picture of doberman) predisposed? a. Familial, chronic hepatitis b. Epulis c. Congenital aortic stenosis d. Tracheal hypoplasia

a. Familial, chronic hepatitis

Treatment of laryngeal oedema? a. Prednisolone, laryngotomy, edrophonium bromide b. Laryngotomy, prednisolone, bromhide injection c. Prednisolone, tracheotomy, antihistamine d. Clenbuterol, furosemide, lidocaine

d. Clenbuterol, furosemide, lidocaine

Left-sided abomasal displacement: auscultation with percussion above displaced abomasum: a. Diagnostic accuracy of 100% b. Diagnostic accuracy of 50-60% c. Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40% d. Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

d. Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

ACE-inhibitors a. Ramipril, benazepril, amlodipine b. Ramipril, enalapril, benazepril c. Ramipril, kaptopril, hidralazin d. Zofenopril, captopril, diovan

b. Ramipril, enalapril, benazepril

Which treatment is not affecting the severity of proteinuria? a. Renal diet b. Antihypertensive drugs c. Omega-3 fatty acids d. ACE-inhibitors e. All of them above decrease proteinuria

e. All of them above decrease proteinuria

Portosystemic shunt. Diagnosis? a. Icterus, ascites, anorexia, vomiting, hepatomegaly b. Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural / digestive / urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia, increase bile acids (PPBA), doppler ultrasonography c. Ultrasonography, hepatomegaly, AST, ALT increased, biopsy d. Ascites, hypoproteinaemia, haematuria, ALT increased

b. Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural / digestive / urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia, increase bile acids (PPBA), doppler ultrasonography

Ethmoid hematoma surgery, which is not true? a. Dimethyl-sulfoxide injection b. Formalin injection c. Laser surgery d. Surgical removal

a. Dimethyl-sulfoxide injection

Pulmonic oedema swine: aetiology? a. Fumonisin B1 toxin b. Haemophilus parasuis c. Aflatoxicosis d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy e. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

a. Fumonisin B1 toxin

Diabetes insipidus, which is correct: a. Clinical manifestation PD/PU, hypersthenuria b. The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin c. The ADH production of the kidney is insufficient in the nephrogenic form d. Diagnosis; modified water deprivation test, ADH- stimulation test

b. The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin

Bovine ringworm: occurence, aetiology? a. Mainly in adult cattle, microsporum canis + predisposing factors b. Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors c. Mainly in calves, Cryptococcus neoformans infection + predisposing factors d. Both in adult cattle and calves, Wolbachia pipietis + predisposing factors

b. Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors

Aujeszky-disease (pseudorabies) swine: which statement is true? a. Adults: neuro deficits are common (tic, ataxia, convulsion), resp. signs are rare and mild b. Piglets: only respiratory symptoms but often fatal haemorrhagic pneumonia c. Adults: neurological deficits are rare (tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms d. Adults: neurological deficits are common (tic, ataxia, convulsions), severe resp. symptoms

c. Adults: neurological deficits are rare (tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms

Congestive heart failure 3rd stage, NYHA-grading? a. Fatigue, recumbency during most of the time, cyanosis, bronchitis, limb oedema b. Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, ascites c. Fatigue, dyspnoea also at rest, cough, oedema d. Left atrial and ventricular dilation with echocardiography

b. Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, ascites

The approx. upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and cat is? a. 1.2 mmol/l b. 3.5 mmol/l c. 2.0 mmol/l d. 0.8 mmol/l

c. 2.0 mmol/l

IBD (inflammatory bowel disease): diagnosis dog, cat? a. After exclusion of diseases with similar symptoms, because it is an idiopathic disorder b. With abdominal ultrasonography c. With routine laboratory blood tests d. With histopathologic examination of stomach / intestines

d. With histopathologic examination of stomach / intestines

Pathomechanism of colic. What is NOT typical? a. Hypovolaemia b. Hyperthermia c. Endotoxaemia d. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

b. Hyperthermia

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy: clinical signs? a. Cough, nasal discharge b. Extended neck c. Loss of appetite, salivation, reflux d. Neurological, e.g. head tilt, nystagmus

d. Neurological, e.g. head tilt, nystagmus

Dermatomycosis of sheep: aetiology: a. Trichophyton verrucosum + dermatophilus congolensis b. Trichophyton verrucosum + candida albicans c. Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis d. Cryptococcus neoformans, aspergillus fumigatus

c. Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis

Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog? a. Periportal mononuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, periportal necrosis, fibrosis b. Centrolobular mononuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centrolobular necrosis, fibrosis c. Chronic procedure, no improvement for 4-6 weeks d. The histopathology is independent from the cause

b. Centrolobular mononuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centrolobular necrosis, fibrosis

Equine laryngeal hemiplegia: diagnosis? a. Grade 1: obvious asymmetry at test, no movements b. Grade 3: asynchronous movement, no complete opening c. Grade 1: asyncrhonicity, tremor, weak movements, complete open with nasal occlusion d. Grade 3: synchronicity, complete closure and opening

b. Grade 3: asynchronous movement, no complete opening

Pleuropneumonia horse: predisposing factors? a. Weaning b. Long distance transport c. Vaccination d. Overcrowding

b. Long distance transport

Rubber jaw/Underlying disorders/dog a. Chronic thyroid disease, secondary hypothyroidism b. Chronic thyroid disease, secondary hyperthyroidism c. Chronic renal disease, secondary hypoparathyroidsm d. Chronic renal disease, secondary hyperparathyroidism

d. Chronic renal disease, secondary hyperparathyroidism

Characteristics of hydrocephalus in calves? a. Hereditary or intrauterine BVD-virus; distorted skull. Opisthotonus, spastic legs b. Intrauterine herpesvirus infection, high forehead, limb paralysis c. Intrauterine blue-tongue-virus infection, depression, ataxia, tetraparalysis

a. Hereditary or intrauterine BVD-virus; distorted skull. Opisthotonus, spastic legs

Causative agent of equine proliferative enteropathy? a. E. coli b. Lawsonia intracellularis c. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium perfringens D

b. Lawsonia intracellularis

Hoflund syndrome (vagus indigestion) which statement is NOT TRUE? a. The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by a papple-shaped abdomen b. The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the omaso-abomasal orifice, resulting in obturation of the omasum with rough fodder c. The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the pylorus, resulting in elevation of the Cl- concentration in the rumen d. The posterior functional stenosis can occur during left-sided abomasal displacement. In this case, fluid electrolyte replacement is necessary

b. The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the omaso-abomasal orifice, resulting in obturation of the omasum with rough fodder

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin? a. Progestogen treatment b. Concurrent diabetes insipidus c. Castration of male dog/cat d. Anorexia, vomiting

d. Anorexia, vomiting

Normal values of blood serum potassium in cattle? a. 2-3 mmol/liter b. 3-5 mmol/liter c. 5-7 mmol/liter d. 8-10 mmol/liter

b. 3-5 mmol/liter

Addison's disease in dogs/diagnosis? a) Na+/K+ >27, Cl-↓, ACTH-stimulation test + b) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↓, ACTH-stimulation test + c) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↓, LDDST + d) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↑, LDDST +

b) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↓, ACTH-stimulation test +

Which statement is wrong? In acute kidney failure mannitol infusion... a. Should only be given to a previously rehydrated patient b. Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria c. Can be repeated may times if diuresis is present d. Is recommended in oliguria

b. Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria

What is flea bite dermatitis? a. Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flee- bite challenge; localisation: lumbo-sacral region b. A meachanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas: it heals after improvement of hygiene of the dog-shelter or kennel c. Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flee-bite challenge; localisation: axillary and inguinal region d. A mechanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas; localization; foots

a. Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flee- bite challenge; localisation: lumbo-sacral region

Tongue paralysis of horses: causes? a. Paralysis of the n. vagus; strangles b. Rabies, botulism, equine leukoencephalomalacia (ELE) c. Rabies, narcolepsy, rhinopneumonitis d. Polyneuritis equi, equine dyautonemia (grass sickness), n. accessories paralysis

b. Rabies, botulism, equine leukoencephalomalacia (ELE)

Characteristics of urticaria in horses? a. Can be caused by inhaled allergens (fungi), rounded wheals on the skin within minutes or hours. Usually fast healing, but it might reoccur b. Can be caused by inhaled allergens (dust), rounded wheals on the skin within days. Always fast healing c. Can be caused by fodder (e.g. oat), rounded wheals on the skin always together with small bleedings of mucosa membranes (nose, mouth) d. Caused by nettle plant, allergic reaction with pruritus and alopecia, rapid regeneration

a. Can be caused by inhaled allergens (fungi), rounded wheals on the skin within minutes or hours. Usually fast healing, but it might reoccur

Secondary, chronic-recurrent ruminal bloat: aetiology? a. Hoflund-disease, stricture of the oesophagus, chronic rumen acidosis b. Rumen putrefaction, obstruction of the oesophagus, paratuberculosis c. Reticuloperitonotitis, compression of oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia d. Tetanus, frothy bloat, reflux syndrome

c. Reticuloperitonotitis, compression of oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia

The suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supported by? Which answer is wrong ? a. The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment b. The detection of ethylene-glycol in blood c. Detection of ethylene-glycol in urine d. The observation of marked halo-signs in the kidneys during ultrasonography

d. The observation of marked halo-signs in the kidneys during ultrasonography

Small strongyles may cause? a. Intussusception b. Severe diarrhoea c. Diarrhoea, small intestinal obturation d. Gastric ulceration

a. Intussusception

Which viruses can elicit polyfactorial calf diarrhoea? a. VD, rota-coronavirus b. Adeno-, aphto-, rotavirus c. Entero-, adeno-, coronavirus d. Lentivirus, oncovirus, morbillivirus

a. VD, rota-coronavirus

Acute pancreatitis: pathogenesis in dog? a. Premature activation of pancreas enzymes occurs in small intestines b. Enzyme production of pancreas is insufficient due to severe pancreas atrophy c. Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes = autodigestion of pancreas d. Severe damages of defence mechanisms against autodigestion lead to EPI

c. Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes = autodigestion of pancreas

Campylobacter spp.: cat therapy? a. Life threatening infection, always treat b. Cats are asymptomatic carriers, never treat c. Treat if relevant clinical signs appear (e.g. acute [bloody] diarrhoea, fever) d. Although cats are asymptomatic carriers, treatment is obligatory because of zoonosis

c. Treat if relevant clinical signs appear (e.g. acute [bloody] diarrhoea, fever)

Displacement of the abomasum (DA)/ pathogenesis/cattle? a. Feeding more grain and less fibre -> ++ VFA -> abomasal atony -> increased abdominal pressure during calving -> DA b. Lack of fibre -> rumen acidosis -> abomasal atony -> abomasal dilation -> DA c. Feeding more grain and less fibre -> + + VFA -> abomasal atony -> abomasal dilation -> postpartum period, small rumen -> DA

c. Feeding more grain and less fibre -> + + VFA -> abomasal atony -> abomasal dilation -> postpartum period, small rumen -> DA

Atropine toxicosis: horse treatment? a. Pilocarpine b. Physostigmine c. Metoclopramide d. Lidocaine

b. Physostigmine

Treating congestive heart disease, emergency situation in dog, cat? a. Oxygen, furosemide iv, or im, dobutamine infusion b. Oxygen, furosemide iv, pimobendane infusion c. Furosemide iv, enalapril, spironolactone d. Spironolactone, carnitine, digoxin

b. Oxygen, furosemide iv, pimobendane infusion

Severe acute gastroenteritis: nutrition in dog, cat? a. Fasting for 3-5 days b. Enteral feeding is not possible because of diarrhoea c. Fasting is not suggested at all, due to severe malnutrition may develop even in few hours d. Enteral feeding is suggested despite diarrhoea

d. Enteral feeding is suggested despite diarrhoea

Which is the first-choice drug in the treatment of primary Copper storage disease? a. D-penicillamine b. Glucocorticoid c. Omeprazole d. Zn and cholagogue drugs

a. D-penicillamine

Neonatal pharyngeal weakness in foal? a. Clinical signs: milky nasal discharge, bruxism, fever b. Physiologic up to 2-4 weeks of age c. Treatment with calcium d. Treatment with antibiotics and NSAIDs

b. Physiologic up to 2-4 weeks of age

Which is NOT associated with nephrosis syndrome? a. Subcutaneous oedema b. Glomerulonephropathies c. Hypotension d. Higher thrombosis risk

c. Hypotension

Which therapeutic measures does NOT decrease blood potassium level during the treatment of hyperkalaemia? a. Intravenous calcium b. Potassium free infusion and furosemide c. Glucose containing infusions d. Rapid acting insulin applications

a. Intravenous calcium

Severe acute nephrosis: combined aetiology in horse? a. Endotoxaemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + dehydration b. Endotoxinaemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + overdosed HAES-infusion c. Repeated flunixin meglumine + NSAID + cephalosporins d. Clostridium botulinum toxin + repeated furosemide injections

a. Endotoxaemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + dehydration

Clinical features of congenital hyposomatotropism? a. Yorkshire terrier, pituitary tumour, liver failure, alopecia b. German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia c. Great Dane, enzyme deficiency, kidney failure d. Beagle, IGF-1 decreases, disproportionate dwarfism

b. German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia

IRIS stage-I chronic renal failure is associated with? a. Azotaemia b. Anaemia, metabolic acidosis c. Uraemia d. Decreased specific gravity of urine

d. Decreased specific gravity of urine

Fanconi syndrome symptoms in dogs: which answer is wrong? a. Glucosuria b. Metabolic acidosis c. Aminoaciduria d. Ketonuria

d. Ketonuria

Heterotop impulse formation disorders: ventricular? a. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter b. Ventricular extrasystole, atrio-ventricular block, ventricular tachycardia c. Ventricular tachycardia, fascicular block, ventricular flutter d. Vandering pacemaker, AV block, ventricular fibrillation

a. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter

Chronic endocardiosis in dogs: characteristics? a. Occurs mainly in medium-aged females of small breeds b. Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency c. Digoxin and pimobendane are always contraindicated d. Occurs mainly in medium-aged males of large breeds

b. Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency

Grass sickness in horse: characteristics? a. Draft horses on pasture, myopathy b. Young horses on pasture, myopathy c. Older horses on pasture, dermatologic disease d. Young horses on pasture, neurologic disease

d. Young horses on pasture, neurologic disease

What may cause hyper-glycemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin? a. Liver failure b. Concurrent addison's disease c. The somogyi effect d. Xylitol-toxicosis e. Neutering the bitch after 2-5 days

c. The somogyi effect

Prostatic tumours in dogs, which is NOT true? a. Can be removed by surgery b. May occur in castrated males c. Mostly adenocarcinoma d. Can be diagnosed from a biopsy specimen

a. Can be removed by surgery

The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting: a. Negative acute phase proteins like albumin fibrinogen b. Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen c. Positive acute phase proteins like albumin, fibrinogen d. Negative acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen

b. Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen

Fungal rhinitis a. Characterised by bilateral serous nasal discharge b. Acute, mild disease c. Aspergillus or Cryptococcus in the origin d. Nocardia or Mycoplasma in the origin

c. Aspergillus or Cryptococcus in the origin

Polydipsia definition in dog: a. Water consumption >50-60ml/bwkg/day b. Water consumption >80-100ml/bwkg/day c. Water consumption >150-180ml/bwkg/day d. Water consumption > 180-200ml/bwkg/day

b. Water consumption >80-100ml/bwkg/day

Caused by what disease and what kind of sound produced by these cattle? a. Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies), lion-like roaring b. Laryngeal paralysis, laryngeal stridor c. Rabies, donkey-like roaring d. Full laryngeal paralysis: no sound formation

c. Rabies, donkey-like roaring

Which statement is NOT true? a. In hepatic encephalopathy, the blood level of ammonia is elevated b. The lactulose and diet with high biologic values protein are an important part of the treatment of the hepatic encephalopathy c. Precipitating factors in hepatic encephalopathy are the obstipation, alkalosis, hypokalaemia and GI bleeding d. In microvascular dysplasia the abnormal blood vessels can be detected by colour doppler ultrasound

d. In microvascular dysplasia the abnormal blood vessels can be detected by colour doppler ultrasound

Equine laryngeal hemiplegia: Diagnosis a. Auscultation, "slap" test b. Occlusion of the nostrils; US exam of the larynx; radiographic examination of the larynx c. Endoscopy, palpation, "slap" test d. Computed tomography, endoscopy

c. Endoscopy, palpation, "slap" test

Decompensated congestive heart failure: drugs? a. ACE-inhibitors, furosemide, pimobendane b. Furosemide, oxygen, clenbuterol c. Enalapril iv., furosemide iv., digoxin iv d. Spironolactone, aminophylline, digoxin

a. ACE-inhibitors, furosemide, pimobendane

Definitive diagnosis of equine leukoencephalomalacia? a. Elevated liver and kidney parameters b. Feed analysis and histopathology (brain, liver) c. Clinical signs are definitive d. Elevated liver parameters and glucosuria

b. Feed analysis and histopathology (brain, liver)

Which drug is NOT an anti-fungal agent? a. Marbocyl b. Intraconazole c. Terbinafine d. Local konazole

a. Marbocyl

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME): prognosis and treatment: a. Sulphonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage b. Always fatal outcome, affected animals should be slaughtered c. Only symptomatic treatment is possible, sometimes improvement might occur d. Only symptomatic treatment is possible, with poor prognosis

a. Sulphonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage

Physiological values of serum sodium in horses? a. 55-100 mmol/l b. 100-135 mmol/l c. 135-155 mmol/l d. 155-175 mmol/l

c. 135-155 mmol/l

Severe thrombocytopenia: causes? a. AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour b. AITP, babesiosis, EPO, Leydig-cell tumour c. Ehrlichiosis, Addison's disease, DDIC, Sertoli-cell tumour d. Ehrlichiosis, Addison's disease, DIC, FeLV

a. AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour

Prevention of epileptic seizures: medication in dog? a. Diazepam, dexamethasone, phenytoin b. Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide c. Nitrazepam, progabide, phenobarbital

b. Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide

Ectopic ureters. Which answer is wrong? a. Are causing constant urine dripping b. Are occurring only in females c. Can be diagnosed by X-ray or CT-exam

b. Are occurring only in females

In which endocrine disorder there is NO polydipsia / polyuria? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hypothyroidism d. Cushing's syndrome e. Hyperthyroidism

c. Hypothyroidism

Botulism Aetiology Horse: a. Cl. botulinum + botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnant in the feed e.g. rotten silage, exceptionally Cl. botulinum infected wounds or gastrointestinal tract b. Cl. botulinum -> per os uptake of bacterium contaminated carrion in the feed or rotten silage -> Cl. botulinum septicaemia c. Spreading of Cl. botulinum in anaerobe wounds; exceptionally per os uptake of botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnants with the feed d. Spreading of Cl. botulinum in the gut; bacteraemia

a. Cl. botulinum + botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnant in the feed e.g. rotten silage, exceptionally Cl. botulinum infected wounds or gastrointestinal tract

Most important sign of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs? a. Fever, alopecia, inappetence b. Blood dripping from urethra between urinations c. Macroscopic haematuria d. Clear urine at the beginning of urination, blood in urine at the end of urination

b. Blood dripping from urethra between urinations

Renal cysts are... a. Always congenital b. Always bilateral c. Are mainly incidental findings d. Generally causing renal failure

c. Are mainly incidental findings

Symptoms of rabies in cattle a) Donkey-like roaring.......2-3 weeks b) Donkey-like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cranial nerve paralysis, ascending paralysis of the limbs, colic like symptoms c) Lion-like roaring, mostly calm behaviour, sometimes convulsions, oestrus-like symptoms, coma

b) Donkey-like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cranial nerve paralysis, ascending paralysis of the limbs, colic like symptoms

Oliguria in the dog: aetiology? a. Chronic renal insufficiency, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra b. Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis c. Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease d. Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies

b. Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

Herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy: clinical signs in horse a. Epileptiform convulsions, cranial nerve paralysis, then severe resp. signs within 6-8 days b. Pneumonia, followed by facial and trigeminal paralysis within 3-4 weeks, unconscious c. Asymmetric gluteal muscle atrophy d. Resp. signs, followed by paraparesis, ataxia, dog sitting position, recumbency

d. Resp. signs, followed by paraparesis, ataxia, dog sitting position, recumbency

Cervicalstenotic myelopathy: diagnostics a. Measuring vitamin E and selenium b. CSF sampling c. Cervical CT examination d. Myelography

d. Myelography

Rabies vs. Aujeszky's disease: differences in symptoms in dog and cat? a. Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky's disease, attacking behaviour is common in rabies b. Strabismus and ascending limb paralysis are common in Aujeszky's diseases, paresthesia is common in rabies c. Dysphagia do not occur in Aujeszky's diseases, only in rabies, Lung oedema is characteristic in Aujesky's disease d. Rabies does not occur in cats, only Aujeszky occurs in cats

a. Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky's disease, attacking behaviour is common in rabies

General therapy in equine hepatitis diseases? a. Diet low in carbohydrates, vitamin B, folic acid, lactulose b. Diet restricted in protein, glucose iv., insulin, B-vitamins, antioxidants c. Diet low in lipids, insulin, heparin d. Diet high in lipids, vitamin E

b. Diet restricted in protein, glucose iv., insulin, B-vitamins, antioxidants

Subjective body condition scoring, BCS-system. Most often applied scale: a. 1-5 or 1-9 b. 1-6 or 1-10 c. 1-5 or 1-10 d. 1-6 or 1-9

a. 1-5 or 1-9

This disease is caused by Haemophilus somnus. The name of the disease is... a. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis b. Brainstem abscess c. Shipping fever d. Aujeszky's disease

a. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis

A common sequel of vesicoureteral reflux? a. Pyelonephritis b. Urocystitis c. Endometritis d. Tubulonephrosis

a. Pyelonephritis

When does ketosis occur in ewes? a. In young ewes, before first breeding, in the third trimester of pregnancy b. Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, after parturition, during winter c. Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in the third trimester of pregnancy d. In adult, cachectic ewes, after several parturitions

c. Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in the third trimester of pregnancy

Aetiology of acute gastric dilation in horses? a. Poorly digestible feed + lack of water b. Highly fermentable feed + hard work after feeding c. Overfeeding with hay + weather front changes d. Sand-containing food + weather front changes

b. Highly fermentable feed + hard work after feeding

Lymphangiectasia: characteristics in dog and cat? a. Severe disorder of colon b. Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case c. Specific diagnosis established with measurement of serum concentration of folate & cobalamine d. High fat diet is suggested because of severe malnutrition

b. Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case

Causes of anaemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct? a. Lack of erythropoietin b. Gastrointestinal bleeding/ulcers c. Deceased survival of red blood cells d. Haemolysis

d. Haemolysis

Symptoms of tetanus in cattle? a. Flag-tail position, facial paralysis, secondary ruminal bloat b. Hyperreflexia, trismus, risus sardonicus, saw-horse position c. Hyperreflexia, distorted face, rigidity of the neck, unconsciousness d. Leg paralysis, regurgitation, secondary ruminal bloat

a. Flag-tail position, facial paralysis, secondary ruminal bloat

Acute primary gastric dilation: treatment in horse? a. Gastric lavage by tubing, spamolytics, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement, flunixin meglumine (analgesia) b. Analgesics, mobilisers, sucralfate, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement c. Mineral oil, activated charcoal, sennoside, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement d. Diet coke, lidocaine, acepromazine

a. Gastric lavage by tubing, spamolytics, iv. Fluid and electrolyte replacement, flunixin meglumine (analgesia)

Large colon torsion: outcome? a. Can't be solved by surgery, always fatal outcome within one day b. Operation rarely successful, physostigmine inj. otherwise death within 2-3 days c. Operation can be successful within 8 hours, without surgery: death d. Specific body rotation in general anaesthesia can be solution

c. Operation can be successful within 8 hours, without surgery: death

The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is? a) <1.5 b) >1.5 c) <2.5 d) >2.5 e) >3.5

d) >2.5

The progression of renal diseases caused by: which answer is NOT correct? a. Proteinuria b. Isostenuria c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Glomerular hypertension

c. Hyperparathyroidism

Nasal tumours? a. Usually benign diseases b. Often complete remission can be achieved with treatment c. They can occur in any age, but mainly over 5 years d. Neither early recognition, radiotherapy, chemotherapy nor surgery can significantly prolong the survival time

c. They can occur in any age, but mainly over 5 years

Normal values of GGT activity is the blood serum of cattle? a. < 30 IU/litre b. < 60 IU/litre c. < 10 IU/litre d. < 80 IU/litre

b. < 60 IU/litre

Which dermatological additional examination are they true for: it is quick, can be done in situ, it can be evaluated in 10 minutes, it may be helpful to distinguish the inflammatory from the neoplastic procedure? a. Histopathology b. Intradermal skin test c. Blood count d. Cytology

d. Cytology

Polyneuritis/aetiology/horse? a. EHV-2, adenovirus, Rhodococcus equi b. EHV-1 adenovirus, Streptococcus c. EHV-1, fumonizin, Actinobacillus equuli d. Clostritidium botulinum C

b. EHV-1 adenovirus, Streptococcus

II degree atrio-ventricular block: characteristics? a. P-wave present, ventricular complex absent b. Runs of paroxysmal extrasystoles c. Prolonged atrio-ventricular conduction time, wide QRS complex d. Variable atrio-ventricular conduction time, narrow QRS complex

a. P-wave present, ventricular complex absent

Which statement is NOT true for PSS in dog? a. The symptoms of portosystemic shunt can worsen after feeding of protein rich food b. The postprandial bile acid level of blood is higher than normal in portosystemic shunts c. The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs d. In congenital portosystemic shunt the nervous symptoms are episodic

c. The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs

Bacterial rhinitis is almost always a secondary disease, usually with viral infection in the background: a) 1st statement is true, 2nd false b) Both statements are true c) 1st statement fales, 2nd true d) Both statements are false

b) Both statements are true

What are the causes of pyrrolizidine-toxicosis in horses? a. Senecio, Crotalaria-sp. b. Insecticides with organophosphates c. Anti-parasitic agents containing pyrrolizidine d. Accumulation of toxic metabolites in hepatic fibrosis

a. Senecio, Crotalaria-sp.

Acute pancreatitis: symptoms in dog? a. Vomiting abdominal pain, anorexia b. Unproductive retching, distended abdomen, shock c. Polyphagia, diarrhoea, losing weight d. Vomiting, palpable intestinal intussusception, lack of faeces

a. Vomiting abdominal pain, anorexia

Normal values of blood serum creatinine in cattle? a. 50-150 mikromol/liter b. 5-10 mikromol/liter c. 50-70 mikromol/liter d. 160-180 mikromol/liter

a. 50-150 mikromol/liter

Definitions of the grade 6/6 cardiac murmur? a. Moderate-intensity murmur with good audibility b. Very strong murmur without precordial thrill c. This murmur is even audible with stethoscope lifted from the chest wall d. Can be heard only in congenital heart diseases

c. This murmur is even audible with stethoscope lifted from the chest wall

Which disease is accompanied by ascites in cat? a. Hepatic lipidosis b. Lymphocytic cholangitis c. Neutrophilic cholangitis d. Congenital portosystemic shunt

b. Lymphocytic cholangitis

Which disease is abbreviated with ELE(M) and what is its cause? a. Equine leukoencephalomyelitis, togavirus b. Equine leukoencephalomalacia, fumonisin-B1 toxin c. Equine lekoencepahlomacia and myelosis, satratoxin d. Equine lymphocytic encephalitis viral infection

b. Equine leukoencephalomalacia, fumonisin-B1 toxin

Classification of forestomach disorders as to their pathogenesis? a. Primary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders b. Secondary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders c. Forestomach diseases of metabolic and infectious origin d. Forestomach diseases of infectious and non-infectious origin

a. Primary forestomach diseases = biochemical and motoric disorders

Left-sided abomasal displacement: auscultation (alone) above displaced abomasum: a. Diagnostic accuracy of 100% b. Diagnostic accuracy of 50-60% c. Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40% d. Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

c. Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40%

Congenital heart disease of dogs. Which statement is NOT true? a. One of the most common diseases in Europe is subvalvalular aortic stenosis b. Tricuspid dysplasia mainly occurs in small breeds c. Positive inotropic drugs should not be given in pulmonic stenosis d. Congenital heart diseases are more common in dogs than in cats

b. Tricuspid dysplasia mainly occurs in small breeds

Which statement is NOT true for the ruminants hepatic diseases? a. The laboratory changes always reflect the severity of the clinical signs b. Liver disease in ruminants are often secondary c. Clinical signs like the icterus are not characteristics d. The laboratory changes never reflect the severity of the clinical signs

a. The laboratory changes always reflect the severity of the clinical signs

Symptoms of rabies in cattle: order (course) of paralysis? a. Cranial nerves paralysis, spreading backwards from the forelegs to the hindlegs b. Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs c. Ascending paralysis of the limbs followed by cranial nerve paralysis

b. Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs

Tetralogy of Fallot consist from a. Ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy b. Ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral valvular insufficiency, right ventricular hypertrophy c. Ventricular septal defect, aortic transpositions, pulmonary insufficiency, atrial septal defect d. Atrial septal defect, aortic insufficiency...etc.

a. Ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy

Suggested examinations in abdominal distension of small animals a. Ballotment probe, CT, laparotomy, blood examination b. Undulation test, abdominal US, X-ray, Abdominocentesis c. Sedimentation test, urethral catheterisation, scintigraphy d. Percussion with auscultation, cystocentesis, APTT, PTT e. Ballotment probe, abdominal US, X-ray, cystocentesis

b. Undulation test, abdominal US, X-ray, Abdominocentesis

Cerebral commotion in horses: treatment? a. General anaesthesia b. DMSO infusion c. 0.45% NaCl solution d. Pentoxiphylline

b. DMSO infusion

For which disease is this Cavalier King Charles Spaniel predisposed? a. Idiopathic hemopericardium b. Dilated cardiomyopathy c. Chronic endocardiosis d. Tetralogy of Fallot

c. Chronic endocardiosis

What is the most common type of leukaemia in dogs? a. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia b. Chronic small lymphocytic leukaemia c. Acute myelogenous leukaemia d. Chronic myelogenous leukaemia

a. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Intracardiac shunt detection horse? a. Doppler echocardiography b. Scintigraphy, X-ray examination c. Measurement of the intracardiac blood pressure d. Contrast angiocardiography

a. Doppler echocardiography

Vegetative endocarditis in swine: aetiology? a. Clostridium oedematicum b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae c. Haemophilus somni d. Bartonella henselae

b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Shipping fever in cattle: aetiology: a. Rs-virus b. Adenovirus c. Herpesvirus d. Haemophilus somnus e. Mannheimia (pasteurella) haemolytica

e. Mannheimia (pasteurella) haemolytica

Urolithiasis of feedlot bulls: pathogenesis? a. Struvite in the bladder -> obstruction of the urethra -> rupture of the urethra b. Struvite formation -> cystitis, pyelitis -> nephritis -> renal failure c. Calcium-oxalate stones in renal pelvis and bladder -> nephritis, cystitis, obturation of the urethra d. Ca-oxalate formation -> cystitis, pyelitis -> nephritis -> renal failure

a. Struvite in the bladder -> obstruction of the urethra -> rupture of the urethra

Malignant catarrhal fever in cattle: transmission from which species? a. Sheep, goat, and swine b. Only goat c. Only sheep d. Sheep and goat

d. Sheep and goat

Pathogenesis of acute rumen overload and dilatation: a. Overfeeding with rough fodder - distension of rumen - compression of diaphragm and caudal V. cava - shock, suffocation b. Overfeeding with grain - distension of rumen - lactacidemia - metabolic acidosis - acidotic coma c. Overfeeding with leguminosae - bloat - distention of the rumen - compression of the diaphragm and caudal V.cava - shock, suffocation

a. Overfeeding with rough fodder - distension of rumen - compression of diaphragm and caudal V. cava - shock, suffocation

Praerenal azotaemia... Which is the wrong answer? a. Could be due to dehydration b. May cause kidney damage without treatment c. Can be corrected with fluid therapy d. May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs

d. May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs

Gastric torsion: common cardiological complication? a. Ventricular arrhythmias (premature ventricular beats, ventricular tachycardia) b. Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter c. 2nd and 3rd degree atrioventricular blocks d. Asystole

a. Ventricular arrhythmias (premature ventricular beats, ventricular tachycardia)

What is the cause of dermatitis-nephropathy syndrome (PDNS)? a. PRRSV b. Actinobaculum suis c. PCV-2 d. Corynebacterium renale

c. PCV-2

How would you classify the next drugs? Clorhexidin, povidone-iodine, iridrogen-peroxide, etil-laktat, benzoyl-peroxide, piroctone-olamine a. Keratoplastic b. Antiseptic c. Hypoallergenic d. Keratolytic

b. Antiseptic

Which drug is NOT antihistamine? a. Chlorpiramine b. Flumetazon c. Hydroxyzine d. Dymetinden-malcate

b. Flumetazon

Causative agent of greasy pig disease? a. Staphylococcus hyicus b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus viridos d. Streptococcus suis

a. Staphylococcus hyicus

Which sentence is true? a. Hungarian Vizsla, poodle, akita and Samoyed are predisposed to black hair follicular dysplasia b. Dobermann and Irish Setter are predisposed to tyrosinase-deficiency c. Collie and Shetland Sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomyositis d. Malamute and husky are predisposed to Ca-responsive dermatosis

c. Collie and Shetland Sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomyositis

Chronic endocardiosis in dogs: occurrence rate on the cardiac valves a. Mitral 50%, tricuspid 50%, mitral and tricuspid 0% b. Mitral 60%, mitral and tricuspid 30%, tricuspid 10% c) Mitral 30%, tricuspid 60%, mitral and tricuspid 10% d. Mitral 40%, tricuspid 0%, mitral and tricuspid 60

b. Mitral 60%, mitral and tricuspid 30%, tricuspid 10%

COPD (RAO): Which statement is NOT true for horses? a. Occasionally mild radiographic changes in the lungs: interstitial, bronchial, peribronchial pattern b. Usually severe radiographic changes in the lungs: fibrosis, chronic oedema c. Thoracic radiography mainly serves for differential diagnostic purposes d. Bronchectasia and increased air content sometimes visible on chest x-ray

b. Usually severe radiographic changes in the lungs: fibrosis, chronic oedema

Causes and features of Tyzzer-disease in horses? a. Listeria monocytogenes-caused meningoenphalitis b. Actinobacillus equulis infection, septicaemia in foals c. Clostridium piliforme acute hepatitis in foals d. Clostridium botulinum, hepatocencephalopathy in foals

c. Clostridium piliforme acute hepatitis in foals

What is responsible for the signs suffering from hepatopathy? a. Ammonia b. Scatole c. Intracranial haemorrhage d. Hypoglycaemia

a. Ammonia

What treatment if not adequate for a dog that drank 3dl antifreeze 12 hours ago? a. D-penicillamine b. Haemodialysis c. 4-methylprazole d. Ethanol iv.

a. D-penicillamine

Large strongyles may cause? a. Thromboembolism b. Chronic diarrhoea c. Intussusceptions d. Gastric ulceration

a. Thromboembolism

Dysphagia: causes in horse? a. E.g. blister beetle toxicosis, mandibular trauma, cyst of the soft palate b. E.g. guttural pouch mycosis, retropharyngeal abscess, cleft palate c. E.g. Dorsal displacement of soft palate, sinusitis, hypertriglyceridemia d. Equine motor neuron disease, herpesvirus infection, West Nile virus infection

b. E.g. guttural pouch mycosis, retropharyngeal abscess, cleft palate

Causes of hypertension in kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct? a. Prolonged activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system b. Increased peripheral resistance c. Dehydration d. Systemic vasoconstriction

c. Dehydration

Aetiology and pathogenesis of fog fever in cattle: a. Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation-3-methylindole- pulmonary edema, emphysema b. Animals moved to pastures in spring - lack of Mg - pulmonary edema and interstitial emphysema c. Feeding alfalfa - intake of 18-S-protein - destruction of alveolar walls and pulmonary edema

a. Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation-3-methylindole- pulmonary edema, emphysema

Blood in the urine is detected with? a. Benzidine test b. Sodium nitroprusside reagent c. Glutaraldehyde test d. Donne test

a. Benzidine test

Cause of paralytic ileus? a. Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (postoperative stage) b. Tetanus, botulism, enterotoxicosis, herpes c. Stress, organic phosphorous ester toxicosis d. Intestinal intussusception, chantaridin toxicosis

a. Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (postoperative stage)

Secondary dilation of the forestomaches can occur in? a. Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, RPT b. Tetanus, atropine-poisoning, oesophageal obturation c. Rabies, simple indigestion, ruminal putrefaction d. Ruminal putrefaction, lactacidaemia, rumen overload

b. Tetanus, atropine-poisoning, oesophageal obturation

Which disease from the ones below is characterized by these vesicular lesions and erosions? a. Classical swine fever b. FMD c. Swine pox d. Chemical burns

b. FMD

Bacterial endocarditis in horses: complication: a. Purulent meningoencephalitis of hematogenous origin b. Disseminated, multifocal, purulent nephritis with renal infarcts c. Acute, immune-mediated glomerulonephritis d. Pneumonia, polyarthritis, enteritis

b. Disseminated, multifocal, purulent nephritis with renal infarcts

Constrictive pericarditis of dogs and cats: occurrence? a. Occurs mainly in medium-aged females of small breeds b. Generally uncommon, mainly in middle aged, large breed dogs, rare in cats c. Generally uncommon, mainly in young, small breed dogs, common in cats d. More common than the pericarditis with effusion 'wet' pericarditis

b. Generally uncommon, mainly in middle aged, large breed dogs, rare in cats

Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder: a. Is not an invasive tumour b. May react to NSAID treatment c. Can be easily removed from the cranial pole of the bladder d. Is connected to the mucosa by a thin neck

b. May react to NSAID treatment

Pleuritis, purulent-exudative in cats: symptoms? a. Pyothorax, rubbing sounds, painful expiration b. Fever, pyothorax, appearance of Diernhofer triangle c. Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increased inspiration efforts, disappearance of the Diernhofer triangle d. Right displacement of the heart-beat, abnormal respiratory sounds at the ventral part of the thorax

c. Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increased inspiration efforts, disappearance of the Diernhofer triangle

Grass sickness/ in horses: cause? a. Salmonella sp. b. Cl. tetani c. Cl. botulinum d. Groundsel

c. Cl. botulinum

Neurophysiologic background of botulism? a. Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited released of GABA at the presynaptic motor nerve endings b. Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor nerve endings c. General muscular paralysis due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor nerve endings d. Paralysis of striated muscles due to inhibited release of GABA at postsynaptic motor n. endings

b. Paralysis of the striated muscles due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor nerve endings

Cause of hepatosis dietetica in swine? a. Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency b. Aflatoxin contaminants feed c. Fusarium moniliforme feed is contaminated with fumonisin-B1 toxin d. Copper toxicosis

a. Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency

Length of the course of (forestomach) diseases? a. Peracute: 2-3 days, acute: 3-14 days, subacute: 2-4 weeks, chronic: >4 weeks b. Peracute: a few hours-2 days, acute: 3-14 days, subacute 2-6 weeks, chronic: >6 weeks c. Peracute: a few hours-2 d, acute: 3-14 days, subacute: 2-4 wks, chronic: >4 weeks d. Peracute: 1-2 hours, acute: 8-10 days, subacute: 2 weeks, chronic: >2 weeks

c. Peracute: a few hours-2 d, acute: 3-14 days, subacute: 2-4 wks, chronic: >4 weeks

Rabies: incubation period? a. Usually 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depends on which body part was infected b. Symptoms start 3-10 days after infection c. Incubation period is very short, symptoms start 1-2 days after infection d. Usually 2-4 months, but can be longer if the hind limbs of the patient had been bitten

d. Usually 2-4 months, but can be longer if the hind limbs of the patient had been bitten

Treatment of smoke inhalation? a. Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal oedema, oxygen, bronchodilators, analgesics, glucocorticoids only in acute cardiovascular shock b. Oxygen, secretolytics, glucocorticoids c. Restricted fluid therapy with diuretics, secretolytics d. Long-acting glucocorticoids, diuretics, antibiotics

a. Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal oedema, oxygen, bronchodilators, analgesics, glucocorticoids only in acute cardiovascular shock

Which statement is NOT typical for cat? a. The common bile duct joins the major pancreatic duct before entering the duodenum b. The acute neutrophil cholangitis is the consequence of ascending bacterial infection c. The hepatic encephalopathy is a common consequence of the feline hepatic lipidosis due to the arginine deficiency d. The portal hypertension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies of the cat

d. The portal hypertension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies of the cat

Addison's disease in dogs: causes, pathogenesis: a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is caysed by incorrect glucocorticoids therapy b) Primary: Cortisol↑ Aldosterone↓ Secondary: Cortisol↓ Aldosterone same c) The primary disease is due to incorrect glucocorticoid therapy. The secondary disease is caused by auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals d) Primary: Cortisol↓ Aldosterone↓ Secondary: Cortisol same Aldosterone↓

a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is caysed by incorrect glucocorticoids therapy

The upper limit of total bilirubin in the dog is a. 10 mikromol/l b. 40 mikromol/l c. 10 mmol/l d. 40 mmol/l

a. 10 mikromol/l

Clinical signs of acute proximal enteritis in horse? a. Colic, strong GI sounds, sunken abdomen, diarrhoea, dehydration b. Colic depression, poor general status, reflux, distended small intestinal loops on US c. Mild/moderate colic, meteorism, melaena, dehydration, shock d. Loss of appetite, weight loss, recurrent fever

b. Colic depression, poor general status, reflux, distended small intestinal loops on US

Which treatment does NOT affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases? a. Feeding renal diet b. Adding phosphorus binders to the diet c. ACE-inhibitor therapy d. Vitamin-D administration

c. ACE-inhibitor therapy

Oesophageal obturation: treatment in horse? a. Trocarisation of the caecum if necessary, dipyrone, xylazine b. Dipyrone, xylazine, trying to remove the solid food by hand if it is located behind the pharynx c. Oxytocin, butylscopolamine, xylazine, oesophagostomy if other methods of removal fail d. Neostigmine, lidocaine, liquid paraffin

c. Oxytocin, butylscopolamine, xylazine, oesophagostomy if other methods of removal fail

Features of equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy? a. Horses previously immunised never show CNS signs b. CNS signs usually appear in 1-2 years old, before respiratory signs, and in most cases are fatal c. CNS signs usually appear in adult horses after the respiratory signs d. Horses with herpes myeloencephalopathy have grave prognosis

c. CNS signs usually appear in adult horses after the respiratory signs

Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhoea: suggested additional examinations in dog and cat? a. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination b. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and bacteriological culture c. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and Parvo ELISA test d. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and fungal culture

b. Faecal analysis: parasitological examination and bacteriological culture

Food allergy: diagnosis in dog and cat? a. Allergen-specific IgM serology b. Histopathologic examination of intestinal biopsy c. Measurement of serum concentration of folate and cobalamine d. Hypoallergenic monodiet than provocation with the suspected causative agent

d. Hypoallergenic monodiet than provocation with the suspected causative agent

Hypothyroidism of dogs: diagnosis? a) Thyroxine↑ and TSH↓, free thyroxine↓, TGAA +, ACTH-stimulation test + b. Thyroxine↓ and TSH↑, free thyroxine↓, TGAA +, ACTH-stimulation test + c. Thyroxine↓ and TSH↑, free thyroxine↓, TGAA +, TRH-stimulation test + d. Thyroxine↓ and TSH↑, free thyroxine↑, TGAA -, TRH-stimulation test +

c. Thyroxine↓ and TSH↑, free thyroxine↓, TGAA +, TRH-stimulation test +

The most common congenital cardiac disease of swine below: a. Congenital ventricular septal defect b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Congenital pulmonic stenosis d. Persistent common atrioventricular channel

a. Congenital ventricular septal defect

D-vitamin toxicity: Which of the below statements is FALSE? a. In dogs it is more frequent, because cats have higher tolerance to vitamin D b. Chronic vit D-toxicity causes transient hypercalcaemia, soft tissue calcification, mineralisation of long bones c. Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures d. Useful in D-vit toxicosis, treatment: charcoal, IV fluid therapy, sucralphate, prednisolone, furosemide

c. Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures

Intestinal motilisers for horses (prokinetics) a. Flunixin meglumine, metoclopromaide b. Neostigmine, lidocaine c. Xylazine, neostigmine d. Morphine, neostigmine, lidocaine

b. Neostigmine, lidocaine

What is the main and initiating cause of calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal failure? a. Inadequate vitamin-D production b- Poor absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract c. Retention of phosphorus d. Nephrocalcinosis

c. Retention of phosphorus

Tracheal hypoplasia: cause and occurrence in dog? a. Consequence of chronic tracheitis, at the age of 10, in bulldogs b. Congenital, at the age of 4-6 months, brachycephalic breeds c. Older dogs, idiopathic, brachycephalic breeds d. Embryonic damage of the trachea in dolichocephaly breeds

b. Congenital, at the age of 4-6 months, brachycephalic breeds

Acute colitis: dog and cat clinical signs? a. Large amount, watery diarrhoea b. Small amount, watery diarrhoea with undigested food c. Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhoea d. Large amount, mucinous, bloody (melena) diarrhoea

c. Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematochezia) diarrhoea

Clinical sign possibly related to oesophageal gastric ulceration? a. Anaemia b. Teeth grinding c. Tar-like faeces d. Any of the above

d. Any of the above

Important blood parameters in anaemia: a. RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTH b. RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTT c. RBC, PCV, TG, TBr, Fe, PTT d. RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, TLI, PTT

b. RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTT

Common cause of regurgitation in sows? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Acute gastritis c. Pharyngitis d. Constriction of the oesophageal inlet due to gastric ulceration related scarring

d. Constriction of the oesophageal inlet due to gastric ulceration related scarring

Feature of von-Willebrand's disease: a. Prolonged surgical bleeding b. Severe thrombopenia c. Spontaneous bleeding is common d. Dalmatians are predisposed

a. Prolonged surgical bleeding

Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by: a. Sulfosalicilic acid solution b. Sodium nitroprusid reagent c. 10% NaOH-solution d. Gmelin reagent

b. Sodium nitroprusid reagent

Pharmacological classification of Vincristine? a. Diuretic drug b. Antibacterial drug c. Roborant d. Chemotherapeutic drug e. Immunostimulant drug

d. Chemotherapeutic drug

Rodenticide poisoning: causes and pathogenesis? a. Dicoumarol types rodenticides -> liver dysfunction -> vit. K synthesis decreases -> bleeding b. Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K absorption decreases -> clotting time increases -> bleeding c. Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding d. Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> factor-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding

c. Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding

Posterior functional stenosis: which statement is NOT true? a. The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by the increased Cl concentration in the rumen b. The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the pylorus, resulting in dilatation of the abomasum c. The posterior functional stenosis is characterised by foamy-creamy content of rumen, abomasum d. The posterior functional stenosis might occur in LDA

c. The posterior functional stenosis is characterised by foamy-creamy content of rumen, abomasum

The upper limit of ammonia in the serum of cattle is less than? a. 60 mikromol/l b. 40 mmol/l c. 80 mikromol/l d. 60 mmol/l

a. 60 mikromol/l

Rabies vs. Aujeszky's disease: course in dog and cat? a. Overlapping between the course of the two diseases is possible b. The course of Aujeszky's disease is always longer in comparison to rabies c. The course of these two diseases is usually longer than one week d. The course of these two diseases is usually shorter than one day

a. Overlapping between the course of the two diseases is possible

Chorioptes mange affects horses'? a. Head b. Limbs c. Mane d. Ventral abdomen

b. Limbs

Grass sickness in horse: clinical signs? a. Obstipation, nasogastric reflux, ptosis, muscle fasciculations b. Diarrhoea, reflux, miosis c. Reflux, nystagmus, muscle fasciculations d. Obstipation, nystagmus, dysphagia

a. Obstipation, nasogastric reflux, ptosis, muscle fasciculations

Which of the following terms characterise atopy? a. Genetically-predisposed inflammatory and pruritic allergic skin disease with characteristic clinical features associated with IgE antibodies most commonly directed against environmental allergens b. Allergy caused by inhalation allergens c. Contact allergic predisposition for respiratory disease along with dermatitis d. Allergy caused by food allergens

a. Genetically-predisposed inflammatory and pruritic allergic skin disease with characteristic clinical features associated with IgE antibodies most commonly directed against environmental allergens

Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs? a. Only together with paraprostatic cysts, surgery b. Even in asymptomatic cases, castration, based on US-diagnosis, large dose of oestrogens c. Only in symptomatic cases, castration, finasteride d. Only in symptomatic cases, surgical removal of the gland

c. Only in symptomatic cases, castration, finasteride

Glässer's disease of swine: aetiology? a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. Haemophilus parasuis c. Mycoplasma hyopnuemoniae d. Pasteruella multocida e. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

b. Haemophilus parasuis

What are the symptoms of right abomasal displacement with torsion? a. Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking, painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amount of dark, creamy faeces b. Subacute course, lack of rumination, decreased rumen movements, constipation c. Chronic course, painful abdomen, recumbency, dyspnoea, hepatic failure (icterus)

a. Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking, painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amount of dark, creamy faeces

Spasmodic colic: symptoms? a. Severe colic/rolling, danger of gastric rupture, high mortality rate b. Mild / moderate colic in attacks, negative rectal findings, fast course, favourable outcome c. Mild / moderate, recurrent colic, diarrhoea, rectal finding: distended intestines d. Poor performance, recurrent colic

b. Mild / moderate colic in attacks, negative rectal findings, fast course, favourable outcome

Hypoadrenocorticism: a. Primary cortisol decreased, aldosterone decreased b. Primary cortisol increased, aldosterone decreased c. Primary cortisol decreased, aldosterone increased d. Primary cortisol increased, aldosterone increased

a. Primary cortisol decreased, aldosterone decreased

The two most common congenital cardiac diseases of cats? a. Congenital aortic stenosis, PPDH b. PDA, Tetralogy of Fallot c. Congenital mitral valve dysplasia, congenital pulmonic stenosis d. Congenital atrioventricular (A-V) dysplasia, congenital ventricular septal defect

d. Congenital atrioventricular (A-V) dysplasia, congenital ventricular septal defect

Which parasites cause enteritis in ruminants? a. Eimearia, Trichostrongylus, Ancylostoma species b. Nematodirus, Cryptosporidium, Ostertagia species c. Ancyclostoma, Bunostomum, Ascaris species d. Toxocara mystax, dypilidium species

b. Nematodirus, Cryptosporidium, Ostertagia species

a. Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking, painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amount of dark, creamy faeces

How long has the superficial pyoderma to be treated by systemic antibiotic? a. 1 week long b. 2 week long c. 3 week long d. 5 week long

c. 3 week long

Idiopathic headshaking: cause a. Bad habit b. Trigeminal neuralgia c. Tooth problem d. Sensitivity to flies

b. Trigeminal neuralgia

Tracheal collapse in horses: occurence a. English thoroughbred horses b. Large, jumping horses c. Ponies, miniature horses d. Large, draft horses

c. Ponies, miniature horses

Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders? a. Symmetrical hyperpigmentation / alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness or thinness, chronic course b. Symmetrical eczema on the skin, hair loss all over the body, condition heals quickly after the elimination of the causes c. Seborrhoea, hyperpigmentation, and hyperkeratosis all over the body, in young dogs later gradual improvement/healing d. Pruritus, traumatic alopecia, acute course

a. Symmetrical hyperpigmentation/alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness or thinness, chronic course

For what kind of purposes do we use the DAMNIT-V scheme? a. For differentiating between hydrocephalus and brain stem hypoplasia during the physical examinations of the neurological system b. For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases c. For grading the severity of the neurological lesions of the spinal cord during myelography d. For prognosis

b. For constructing a list of differential diagnosis based on anatomical and pathophysiological features of the diseases

Causes of mechanical ileus in horse: a. Enterospasms, intestinal obstruction, pregnancy colic b. Intestinal obturation, intestinal compression, intestinal torsion c. Organophosphate toxicosis, intestinal torsion, intestinal obturation d. Neoplasia, abscess, small strongyles

b. Intestinal obturation, intestinal compression, intestinal torsion

Treatment of obesity - which of the below statements is TRUE? a. Commercial BW reduction diets are not recommended in cats, because they increase the risk of hepatic lipidosis b. Commercial BW reduction diets are useful because with reduced energy intake, the feeling of satiety is easily achievable c. Commercial BW reduction diets are useful, because without, BW reduction is not achievable d. Commercial BW reduction diets are not recommended, because they do not increase sufficiently the daily energy expenditure

b. Commercial BW reduction diets are useful because with reduced energy intake, the feeling of satiety is easily achievable

Oesophageal obturation: predilectory places in cattle? a. Behind the pharynx, middle of the thoracic part, attachment of the oesophagus to the reticulum b. Behind the pharynx, thoracic inlet, heart base, entrance of the cardia c. Behind the pharynx, cranial part of the thorax heart base, attachment of oesophagus to reticulum d. Middle part of the oesophagus with thick musculature, thoracic inlet, cardia

b. Behind the pharynx, thoracic inlet, heart base, entrance of the cardia

Which type of pyoderma is the 'hot spot'? a. Deep b. Superficial c. Surface d. Pseudo

c. Surface

When should you send a colic horse to an equine clinic? a. If the colic symptoms still exist after one hour, if you can't give infusion at that place, pulse is constantly about 40 beats/min b. Colic despite of medical therapy, tympany, clinical/rectal findings reveal severe diseases, pulse constantly more than 50 beats/minute, not responding well to therapy, local conditions c. Strong intestinal sounds/frequent flatulating, colic is worsening despite the negative rectal finding, nasogastric tubing is not possible d. Pulse rate >40/min, respiratory rate <40/min, less than 4 piles of faeces/day

b. Colic despite of medical therapy, tympany, clinical/rectal findings reveal severe diseases, pulse constantly more than 50 beats/minute, not responding well to therapy, local conditions

EIPH in horse: therapy a. Furosemide b. Antibiotics c. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs d. Glucocorticoids e. Vitamin C

a. Furosemide

Anti-emetics in dog? a. Haloperidol, torecan, cimetidine b. Chlorpromaszine, tiethylperazine, maropitant, metoclopramide c. Ondansetron, omeprazole, nizatidine d. Metoclopramide, maropitant, famotidine

b. Chlorpromaszine, tiethylperazine, maropitant, metoclopramide

Patent ductus arteriosus/characteristics of the cardiac murmur? a. Decrescendo, diastolic cardiac murmur at the 4th intercostal space, usually with fremitus b. Machinery cardiac murmur, best heard at the left heart base, accompanied by fremitus c. Holosystolic plateau murmur a the 3-4 left intercostal space, usually without fremitus d. Holodiastolic, decrescendo murmur at the 3-4left intercostal space, usually with fremitus

b. Machinery cardiac murmur, best heard at the left heart base, accompanied by fremitus

The most common congenital cardiac disease of dogs in Europe (also in Hungary) a. Congenital ventricular septal defect b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Congenital mitral valve dysplasia d. Congenital aortic stenosis

d. Congenital aortic stenosis

Piglet anaemia: treatment, prevention; timing of parenteral iron supply? a. Iron supply for the sow during pregnancy b. Iron supply parenterally at their age of 3 weeks c. Parenteral Fe supply between 2nd-5th days after birth d. Parenteral Fe supply between the 5th and 10th days after birth

c. Parenteral Fe supply between 2nd-5th days after birth

Pathophysiology of obesity - which of the below statements is TRUE? a. Hyperplastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals b. Prognosis is good in hyperplastic obesity, because the stationary phase quickly replaces the dynamic phase c. Prognosis is careful in hypertrophic obesity, because the dynamic phase quickly replaces the stationary phase d. In hypertrophic obesity the size and the number of adipocytes increases

a. Hyperplastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals

Can be utilised in urocystitis prevention? a. Urine alkalisation b. Urine acidification c. Diuresis d. None of the above

d. None of the above

Tetanus in dog: Which statement is NOT true? a. Tetanus can be diagnosed simply based on the history and clinical signs b. Saw-horses posture is characteristic for the disease c. Diazepam can be administered as sedative agent both intravenously and rectally d. Partial tetanus is more common than the generalised form

d. Partial tetanus is more common than the generalised form

Aspiration pneumonia: localisation of dullness and abnormal respiratory sounds in horse? a. Lower third of the thorax, over the heart base b. The caudal third of the lungs, because of poor ventilation in this region c. Craniodorsal part of the lungs d. Caudodrosal lung quadrant

a. Lower third of the thorax, over the heart base

Common cause of viral hepatitis in swine? a. PRRSV b. Cytomegalovirus c. Parvovirus d. PCV-2

d. PCV-2

Piglet anaemia occurence? a. Among fast growing feedlot piglets during intensive technology and without iron supply b. Among 1-10 day old feedlot piglets, in case of iron deficiency of the sows c. Piglets raised without iron supply intensive breeding technology, congenital enzyme deficiency d. Common, congenital disease

a. Among fast growing feedlot piglets during intensive technology and without iron supply

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs? a. Diet b. Antibiotics c. Urine acidification d. None of them from above

d. None of them from above

Enzooticus leukosis of cattle: aetiology, infection? a. Leukosisvirus / Retroviridae family infection by direct contact b. C-type oncovirus / Retroviridae family. Infection by blood, transplacentary infection c. Leukosisvirus / Lentivirus family, aerogene infection d. Arbovirus, infection by direct contact, calves by breast-milk

b. C-type oncovirus / Retroviridae family. Infection by blood, transplacentary infection

ACE-inhibitors? a. Ramipril, benzapril, amlodipin b. Ramipril, enalapril, benazepril c. Ramipril, kaptopril, hidralazin d. Zofenopril, captopril, diovan

b. Ramipril, enalapril, benazepril

Which drug is less effective in canine demodicosis? a. Amitraz collar b. Washing with Amitraz solution c. Ivermectin per os d. Advocate spot on

a. Amitraz collar

Acute blood loss anaemia: Therapy: a. Stop bleeding, Balansol, whole blood transfusion b. Stop bleeding, Alkaligen, whole blood transfusion c. Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion d. Stop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma

c. Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion | d. Stop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma

Characteristics of iatrogenic osteoporosis in dog a. After long-term mineralocorticoid therapy -> ⬇Vitamin D production b. After long-term mineralocorticoid therapy -> ⬆Vitamin D production c. After long-term thyroxin (T4) therapy, because of secondary hypoparathyroidism -> ⬇protein metabolism d. After long-term glucocorticoid therapy -> ⬇osteoblast activity and ⬇Ca-utilisation

d. After long-term glucocorticoid therapy -> ⬇osteoblast activity and ⬇Ca-utilisation

Physiological values of serum chloride in cattle? a. 100-120 mmol/l b. 120-140 mmol/l c. 70-100 mmol/l d. 50-70 mmol/l

a. 100-120 mmol/l

Viral stomatitis: aetiology in ruminants? a. Herpesvirus, aphtovirus, Calicivirus b) Aphtovirus, morbillivirus, pestivirus c. Rhabdovirus, parapoxvirus, aphtovirus d. Oncovirus, morbillivirus, orbivirus

b) Aphtovirus, morbillivirus, pestivirus

If a dog is azotaemia, then? (choose the right answer) a. The ammonia level is increased in its blood b. The 1 ⁄ 2 of its nephrons has been destroyed in their kidneys c. It may have been dehydrated d. It has urethral obstruction

a. The ammonia level is increased in its blood

How can we treat pleuropneumonia in horses? a. Thoracocentesis, dexamethasone, sulfadimidin, aminophylline b. Thoracocentesis, bromhexin, prednisolone, gentamycin c. Antimicrobial therapy, flunixin, meglumin, thoracic drainage d. Thoracotomy, dexamethason, bromhexin

c. Antimicrobial therapy, flunixin, meglumin, thoracic drainage

What can cause to purulent hepatitis in cows? a. Chronic subclinical ruminal acidosis b. Diets high in protein and/or non-protein nitrogen (NPN) content c. Glucocorticoid treatment d. Bartonella henselae infection

a. Chronic subclinical ruminal acidosis

Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis (HGE) in dog: diagnosis? a. Hematocrit (PCV) is significantly increased due to hypovolaemia b. Haematocrit (PCV) is significantly decreased due to intestinal bleeding c. Haematocrit (PCV) is mildly decreased due to severe coagulopathy d. Haematocrit (PCV) is unchanged despite the severe coagulopathy

a. Hematocrit (PCV) is significantly increased due to hypovolaemia

Acromegaly, causes? a. Dog: pituitary tumour, Cat: oestrogen treatment, mammary gland tumour, ovarian cyst b. Acquired GH deficiency in adults c. Congenital GH excess d. Dog: progestogen treatment, mammary gland tumour, ovarian cyst, Cat: pituitary tumour

d. Dog: progestogen treatment, mammary gland tumour, ovarian cyst, Cat: pituitary tumour

Physiological upper limit of blood urea in horses? a. 5 mikromol/liter b. 5 mmol/liter c. 20 mmol/liter d. 10 mmol/liter

d. 10 mmol/liter

Treatment of frothy bloat a. Evacuation of the rumen, parasympathomimetics b. Antifoaming agents via special gasrtic tube, evacuation of ruminal content in severe cases c. Trocarization of the rumen, laxative d. Esophagostomy, parasupathiocolytics

b. Antifoaming agents via special gasrtic tube, evacuation of ruminal content in severe cases

Which statement is NOT true for ruminants' hepatic parasites? a. Is more frequent in young cows and heifers b. The stress around parturition and anorexia are favouriting the development c. The administration of gluconeogenetic substances is absolutely contraindicated d. Stress around parturition and anorexia do not influence the development of the disease

d. Stress around parturition and anorexia do not influence the development of the disease

Feline bronchial disease / feline asthma? a. Paroxysmal, dry, 'hacking' cough, open mouth (loud) breathing, prolonged expiration b. Usually kittens affected c. Usually old cats affected d. Decreased airway resistance (smooth muscle hypertrophy, bronchial wall oedema, glandular hyperplasia) -> cough and respiratory distress

a. Paroxysmal, dry, 'hacking' cough, open mouth (loud) breathing, prolonged expiration

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) / other name of the disease and its occurrence? a. Sleeping disease, feedlot bulls b. Grid, sheep c. Visna sheep d. Maedi, sheep

a. Sleeping disease, feedlot bulls

Rodenticide poisoning: diagnostic tests a. Clotting time 5-8 minutes, bleeding time 3-5 minutes, prothrombin time >20 minutes b. Clotting time >5 minutes, bleeding time < 5 minutes, prothrombin time <15 seconds c. Clotting time > 5 minutes, prothrombin time <5 seconds, APTT > 40 seconds d. Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds

d. Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds

Hepatitis caused by viruses in dog and cat? a. Canine distemper (CAV-1), Calicivirus, FIV b. Rubarth disease (CAV-1), panleukopenia, FeLV c. Rubarth disease (CAV-1), herpesvirus caused hepatitis, FIP d. FIP, Calicivirus, Mycoplasmosis

c. Rubarth disease (CAV-1), herpesvirus caused hepatitis, FIP

Cerebral commotion in horses: consequences? a. Long-lasting loss of consciousness, recumbency, convulsions b. Temporary loss of consciousness, disorders of locomotion c. Recumbency, bleeding from the nostrils and from the ears d. Bilateral facial paralysis

c. Recumbency, bleeding from the nostrils and from the ears

b. Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs

Most common localisation of bacterial endocarditis in horses? a. Mostly the orifice of the pulmonary artery (pulmonary valve) b. Mostly the tricuspid valve c. Mostly the aortic and mitral valve d. Mostly the orifice of the pulmonary artery (pulmonary valve) and the aortic valve

c. Mostly the aortic and mitral valve

Most common predisposing factor of oral necrobacillosis in swine? a. Epithelial damage due to viral infections b. Mechanical trauma c. Fungal stomatitis d. Chemical induced epithelial damage

b. Mechanical trauma

Which statement is TRUE? a. The acute liver failure regardless of cause can be classified by activation of Stellate cells, fibrosis b. The blood level of the hepatocellular enzymes (ALT, AST) is elevated primarily in case of necrosis, inflammation, increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane c. The bilirubinuria is always pathologic in dog, associated always with bilirubinuria d. In cholestasis mostly the ALT and AST are elevated

b. The blood level of the hepatocellular enzymes (ALT, AST) is elevated primarily in case of necrosis, inflammation, increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane

Esophageal obturation in horses: etiology a. Dry chopped feed b. Solid pieces of feed (apple, potato, sugar beet) c. Abnormal position of the ligamentum botalli d. Most commonly secondary to other problems

b. Solid pieces of feed (apple, potato, sugar beet)

What is 'endotoxin'? a. Lipoprotein molecule produced by Gr+ bacteria b. Lipoprotein molecule produced by Gr- bacteria c. Lipopolysaccharide molecule in the cell wall of Gr+ bacteria d. Lipopolysaccharide molecule in the cell wall of Gr- bacteria

d. Lipopolysaccharide molecule in the cell wall of Gr- bacteria

Which is associated with portal hypertension? a. Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia b. Arterioportal/arterio-venosus fistula c. Congenital portosystemic shunt d. Hepatic lipidosis

b. Arterioportal/arterio-venosus fistula

Facial paralysis: aetiology in horse? a. Guttural pouch mycosis, otitis media b. Basilar skull fracture, hydrocephalus c. Stachybotriotoxicosis, wobbler syndrome d. Fracture of the basisphenoid bone, leukoencephalomyelitis

a. Guttural pouch mycosis, otitis media

Upper limit of Cl in the rumen fluid of cattle a. <50 mmol/liter b. <30 mmol/liter c. <10 mmol/liter d. <20 mmol/liter

b. <30 mmol/liter

The aortic insufficiency of the horse is characterised by? a. Strong diastolic cardiac murmur at the left, 4th intercostal space, rapid pulse, frequent in younger b. Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur on the left 5-6th intercostal space, slow pulse c. Strong machinery murmur on the left 5-6th intercostal space, water-hammer pulse d. Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur, in the left, 4th intercostal space, bumping pulse, rather in adult horses

d. Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur, in the left, 4th intercostal space, bumping pulse, rather in adult horses

Dorsal displacement of soft palate: cause? a. High positive intrapharyngeal pressure b. Long epiglottis c. Neuromuscular problems d. Arsenic poisoning

c. Neuromuscular problems

Treatment of CKD patients include: (which answer is NOT correct)? a. Renal diet, phosphorus binders b. ACE-inhibitors, anti-hypertensive drugs c. Erythropoietin inj. Potassium supplementation d. Diuretics per os

d. Diuretics per os

Parvoviral enteritis of dog: therapy? a. Fasting during diarrhoea, antibiotic fluid therapy b. Intestinal diet or enteral nutrition, antibiotic, fluid therapy c. Fasting during diarrhoea, antiviral medication, fluid therapy d. Fasting during vomiting, NSAID and corticosteroid, fluid therapy

b. Intestinal diet or enteral nutrition, antibiotic, fluid therapy

Tricuspid insufficiency: occurrence in cattle? a. This is a rare form of bacterial endocarditis b. The most common congenital form as a sequel of tricuspid dysplasia c. The most common type of bacterial endocarditis in cattle d. The most common type of viral endocarditis in cattle

c. The most common type of bacterial endocarditis in cattle

Equine motor neuron disease: cause? a. Selenium toxicity b. Vitamin E deficiency c. Vitamin B1 deficiency d. Unidentified clostridium strain

b. Vitamin E deficiency

The upper physiological value of coagulation time in horse: a. <15 min b. <25 min c. <5 min d. <35 min

b. <25 min

Which is true? a. Left laryngeal hemiplegia more common in ponies b. Tracheal collapse is more common in thoroughbreds c. Guttural pouch tympany typically affects older horses d. Lymphoid hyperplasia typically affects young horses

d. Lymphoid hyperplasia typically affects young horses

The upper limit of serum potassium in the horse? a. 7 mmol/l b. 15 mmol/l c. 3 mmol/l d. 5 mmol/l

d. 5 mmol/l

Mycotic stomatitis of horses: aetiology? a. Fusariosis, actinomycosis b. Cryptococcosis, aflatoxicosis c. Candidiasis, satratoxicosis d. Aspergillosis, trichomoniasis

c. Candidiasis, satratoxicosis

Which is NOT predilection site for canine Sarcoptes infestation? a. Ear margins b. Elbows c. Back d. Inguinal area

c. Back

Beta-blocker antiarrhythmic drugs? a. Verapamil, diltiazem, milrinone b. Atenolol, propranolol, esmolol c. Amiodarone, sotalol, amlodipine d. Pimobendane, levosimendan, valsartan

b. Atenolol, propranolol, esmolol

Severe FORL (Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions): treatment in cats? a. Chemotherapy b. Tooth extraction or crown amputation c. Topical chlorhexidine d. Vitamin A orally for 6 weeks

b. Tooth extraction or crown amputation

Forms of lymphoma in dogs? a. Of urinary bladder origin, of gall bladder origin b. Mediastinal, alimentary, multicentric c. Liver form, head form, foot form d. Hair follicle form, acinar form

b. Mediastinal, alimentary, multicentric

Esophageal obturation: symptoms in horses a. Dysphagia due to secondary pharyngeal paralysis, regurgitation, colic b. Esophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, aspiration pneumonia c. Inability to swallow, esophageal paralysis, secondary laryngeal paralysis d. Swollen neck, ptyalism

b. Esophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, aspiration pneumonia

Parasitic bronchitis and pneumonia in cattle: aetiology? a. Oslerus osleri b. Pneumocystis carinii c. Dictyocaulus viviparous d. Histoplasma farciminosum e. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

c. Dictyocaulus viviparous

What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies? a. Determination of the blood creatinine and urea values b. Determination of the urine specific gravity by a refractometer c. Detection of severe proteinuria

c. Detection of severe proteinuria

Iron deficiency anaemia of carnivores: causes? a. Severe flea infestation, gastric ulcer, thrombiculosis, intestinal tumour b. Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, iron deficient food c. Severe flea infestation, gastric ulcer, worms, intestinal tumour d. Severe demodicosis, gastric ulcer, worms, intestinal tumour

b. Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, iron deficient food

Borders of the Diernhofer triangle? a. In front: aorta ascendens, from behind: diaphragmatic line b. In front: caudal part of the heart, from behind: diaphragmatic line c. In front: caudal border of the scapula, from behind: cranial part of the heart d. In front: caudal part of the heart, from behind: costal arch

b. In front: caudal part of the heart, from behind: diaphragmatic line

COPD (RAO): Drugs for horses? a. Clenbuterol, atropine, fluticazon b. Albuterol, ipratropium, trilostane c. Salmeterol, aminofillin, edrophonium d. Antihistamines, aspirin

a. Clenbuterol, atropine, fluticazon

"Fat-dervied peptides": Effects of cytokines and hormones produced by adipocytes? a. Mild chronic inflammation, decrease in insulin resistance b. Increase in appetite, decrease in insulin resistance c. Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress d. Mild acute inflammation, increase in blood pressure, increase in appetite

c. Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress

Blood-sucking lice in horses: a. Haematopinus asini can cause anaemia in foals b. Linognathus vituli causing anaemia and weakness c. Hippobosca equienea; can cause anaemia in adult horses

a. Haematopinus asini can cause anaemia in foals

Characteristics of equine leukoencephalomalacia (ELE)? a. Mycotoxin uptake from rotten silage -> encephalomalacia -> convulsion, laryngoparalysis b. Hepatic failure -> toxins into the brain -> encephalomalacia -> usually confusion, dementia, coma c. Food contaminated with moulds -> fumonisn-B1 toxin: encephalomalacia -> dysphagia, dyskinesis -> recumbency d. Pirrolizidine toxicosis -> encephalomalacia -> dementia

c. Food contaminated with moulds -> fumonisn-B1 toxin: encephalomalacia -> dysphagia, dyskinesis -> recumbency

Grading of gastric ulcers in horse: a. 0-4 b. 0-5 c. 0-10 d. a-d

a. 0-4

Aetiology of secondary photodermatitis in horses? a. Uptake of photosensibilizing plants b. Accumulation of phylloerythrin (from chlorophyll) caused by hepatic insufficiency c. Retention of photosensibilizing substances because of renal failure d. Contact dermatitis caused by pasture plants phylloerythrin

b. Accumulation of phylloerythrin (from chlorophyll) caused by hepatic insufficiency

Laryngeal paralysis in dog: infectious origin? a) Rabies, Aujeszky's disease, botulism b) Canine distemper, botulism, leptospirosis c) Leptospirosis, listeriosis, lyssa d) Botulism, rabies, parvovirus

a) Rabies, Aujeszky's disease, botulism

Congenital heart diseases in cats: occurrence? a. CHD cat are more common than in dogs/they are usually breed and sex-related b. CHD in cats are less common than in dogs the occurrence is usually breed and sex-related c. CHD in cats are less common than in dogs there is no breed and sex predilection d. CHD in cats are less common than in dogs there is sex predilection but no breed predilection

c. CHD in cats are less common than in dogs there is no breed and sex predilection

What hereditary skin disease is lethal? a. Colour dilution alopecia b. Grey collie syndrome c. Melanoderma and alopecia in Yorkshire terrier d. Dermatomyositis

b. Grey collie syndrome

Stomatitis of horses: viral and fungal origin / causes? a. Vesiculovirus, candidiasis, satratoxicosis b. Aphtovirus, herpesvirus, candidiasis c. Vesiculovirus, satratoxicosis, crptococcus neoformans d. Herpesvirus, rotavirus, adenovirus

a. Vesiculovirus, candidiasis, satratoxicosis

Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves can be caused by: a. Intrauterine BVD infection b. Intrauterine IBR infection c. Chronic lead poisoning d. Fumonisin B1 levels

a. Intrauterine BVD infection

IRIS classification of CKD. Which answer is wrong? a. There are 4 stages determined by the serum creatinine level b. In state-I the creatinine level is only mildly elevated c. There are substages based on the presence of proteinuria d. There are substages based on the degree of hypertension

b. In state-I the creatinine level is only mildly elevated

What is the appropriate speed of BW loss in dogs? a. 1-2% of BW/week b. 5-10% of BW/week c. 10-15% of BW/week d. 0,5-1,0% of BW/week

a. 1-2% of BW/week

What is the appropriate speed of BW loss in cats? a. 1-2% of BW/week b. 5-10% of BW/week c. 10-15% of BW/week d. 0,5-1,0% of BW/week

d. 0,5-1,0% of BW/week

Dysphagia of viral or bacterial origin in cattle: aetiology? a. Rabies, tetanus, paralysis of n. trigeminus b. Rabies, Aujeszky's-disease, brain stem abscess c. Rabies, cerebrocortial necrosis, TEME d. Leukosis, aphtovirus, fumonisin B-1

b. Rabies, Aujeszky's-disease, brain stem abscess

PPID diagnosis: a. Measuring GGI, LDH, CK b. Measuring ACTH, dexamethasone suppression test c. Thyroid profile tests d. Measuring TRH and insulin

b. Measuring ACTH, dexamethasone suppression test

The upper physiological value of prothrombin time in horses? a. < 10 sec b. < 20 sec c. < 30 sec d. < 40 sec

b. < 20 sec

Megaoesphagus: cause in dog? a. Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction b. Taurine deficiency c. Food allergy or food intolerance d. Ethylene glycol toxicosis

a. Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction

General therapy in equine hepatic diseases? a. Diet low in carbohydrates, vitamin B6, folic acid, lactulose b. Diet restricted in protein, glucose iv, insulin, B-vitamins, antioxidants c. Diet low in lipids, insulin, heparin d. Diet high in lipids, vitamin E

b. Diet restricted in protein, glucose iv, insulin, B-vitamins, antioxidants

Photosensitisation: which statement is NOT true? a. Hypericum perforation (st. johns wort) causes primary photosensitisation b. Fagopyrum esculentum & lupinus albus cause secondary photosensitisation c. Hepatogenous photosensitisation is characterised by phylloerythrin accumulation d. The colchicine does not cause photosensitization

b. Fagopyrum esculentum & lupinus albus cause secondary photosensitisation

Which statement is NOT true for lymphocytic cholangitis in cat? a. The most common form of the cholangitis in cat b. The cause and pathogenesis are not really clear. Suspected immune-mediated procedure c. The Persian cat is predisposed d. The result of bile culture obtained by cholecystocentesis adherens invasive E coli (AIEC)

d. The result of bile culture obtained by cholecystocentesis adherens invasive E coli (AIEC)

Causes of glomerular diseases in small animals. Which answer is NOT correct? a. Adhesions of immune complexes to the basement membrane b. Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials c. Amyloidosis d. Congenital/acquired basal membrane/podocyte injury

b. Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials

Malignant catarrhal fever in cattle: aetiology? a. Pasteurella multocida b. Pneumocystis carinii c. Herpesvirus (OHV-2) d. Togavirus

c. Herpesvirus (OHV-2)

Which statement is NOT true for ruminants' hepatic parasites? a. The most common intermediate host of fasciola hepatica is Limnea truncatula b. Dicrocoelium dendriticum causes traumatic hepatitis c. Albendazole can be given both against Fasciola hepatica and Dicrocroelium dendriticum d. Melarsomine can be given both against Fasciola hepatica and Dicrocoelium dendritium

d. Melarsomine can be given both against Fasciola hepatica and Dicrocoelium dendritium

Laxatives for horses? a. Magnesium sulfate, neostigmine, sennoside b. Mineral oil, magnesium sulfate, sodium sulphate (Na) c. Mineral oil, magnesium sulfate, carbachol d. Diet coke, charcoal

b. Mineral oil, magnesium sulfate, sodium sulphate (Na)

Cerebral commotion (concussion) in horses: prognosis? a. Favourable in young individuals, poor in older horses b. Usually favourable c. Depends on region of the skull injured d. Usually unfavourable

b. Usually favourable

Normal values of serum total bile acid in cattle: a. < 120 micromol/l b. < 6 micromol/l c. < 10 mmol/l d. < 150 micromol/l

a. < 120 micromol/l

Common physiological arrhythmia in horses? a. Second degree atrioventricular block b. Premature ventricular extrasystole c. WPW syndrome d. Sinus pause

a. Second degree atrioventricular block

Cleft palate in horses? a. Signs: dysphagia, nasal discharge with food particles b. Complications: decreased weight, diarrhoea, aspiration pneumonia c. Diagnosis: radiography d. Treatment: none

a. Signs: dysphagia, nasal discharge with food particles

Parasitic bronchitis and pneumonia in sheep: aetiology a. Oslerus osleri, dictyocaulus arnfieldi b. Pneumocystis carinii, histoplasma farciminosum c. Dictyocaulus filaria, protostrongylida spp.

c. Dictyocaulus filaria, protostrongylida spp.

Lissencephaly (lyssencephalon): Definition? a. Complication of hydrocephalus b. Congenital under-development (lack of development) of the sulci and gyri of the cortex c. One type of metabolic storage disorders of the brain d. Histopathological alteration of the brain as a sequel of rabies (lyssa)

b. Congenital under-development (lack of development) of the sulci and gyri of the cortex

Mitral insufficiency: symptoms in horses? a. Holosystolic cardiac murmur in left 5th IC space, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, left-heart failure b. Strong pansystolic cardiac murmur in left 3rd Ic space, tachypnea, dyspnoea, exercise intolerance c. Holodiastolic cardiac murmur in left 4th intercostal space, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, left-heart failure d. II/VI-V/VI diastolic cardiac murmur in the left 4th IC space

a. Holosystolic cardiac murmur in left 5th IC space, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, left-heart failure

Laboratory alterations in the blood during reticuloperitonitis? a. Glutaraldehyde test +, plasmafibrinogen↑, plasmaglobulin↑ b. Glutaraldehyde test -, lymphocytosis, plasma total protein (TPP)↓ c. Rivalta test +, serum creatinine↑, neutrophilia d. ++ Blood ammonia conc., + Donne test

a. Glutaraldehyde test +, plasmafibrinogen↑, plasmaglobulin↑

I degree atrio-ventricular block: characteristics? a. Prolonged PQ interval b. P-wave absent, ventricular complex present c. Atrio-ventricular dissociation d. Shortened PQ interval

a. Prolonged PQ interval

Which statement if NOT true? a. Antiepileptic therapy could cause elevated ALP, ALT and GGT level in dog b. The potentiated sulphonamide therapy can cause a destructive cholangitis in dog c. The glucocorticoid therapy always lead an irreversible necrosis in the liver d. The antidote of the acetaminophen toxicosis is the N-acetylcystine

c. The glucocorticoid therapy always lead an irreversible necrosis in the liver

d. Non-regenerative anaemia, hypertension, blindness

EPI (exocrine pancreatic insufficiency): diagnosis in dog: a. Serum TLI (trypsin-like immunoreactivity) measurement b. Fecal cytology c. Abdominal ultrasonography d. Diagnostic laparotomy

a. Serum TLI (trypsin-like immunoreactivity) measurement

IAD treatment? a. Mucolytics, atropine b. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory, alpha 2 agonists c. Butyl scopolamine d. Steroid

d. Steroid

Occurence of dilated cardiomyopathy in ruminants a. The disease occurs in cattle b. The disease does not occur in cattle, only in sheep and goat c. The disease does not occur in cattle, only in goats d. The disease occurs only in sheep

a. The disease occurs in cattle

The effect of pimobendane? a. ACE-inhibitor b. Positive inotropic drug, with some vasodilator effect c. Antiarrhythmic drug d. Negative chronotropic drug with some vasoconstrictive effect

b. Positive inotropic drug, with some vasodilator effect

Pharmacological effect of chemotherapeutic agents? a. Specifically destroy the neoplastic cells b. Antibacterial drugs c. Drive the normal and neoplastic cells into apoptosis d. Immunostimulant drugs

c. Drive the normal and neoplastic cells into apoptosis

Piglet anemia: then to treat per os: a. Iron supply per os within first 12 hours of life b. Iron supply per os at weaning c. Iron supply per os at the 3rd-5th day of life

a. Iron supply per os within first 12 hours of life

Which parasites does not cause parasitic encephalitis / myelitis? a. Strongylus vulgaris larvae b. Gasterophilus larvae c. Habronema spp d. Setaria spp

b. Gasterophilus larvae

Physiological limits of the pH in the rumen fluid/cattle a. 6,3-7,1 b. 6,8-7,5 c. 6,5-7,5 d. 6,0-7,0

a. 6,3-7,1

Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed? a. Persian b. Siamese c. Abyssinian d. Bengal

c. Abyssinian

The aortic insufficiency of the horse is characterised by? a. Strong systolic cardiac murmur left, 4th intercostal space, rapid pulse, frequent in older horses b. Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur on left 5-6th intercostal space, bumping pulse c. Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur, in left, 4th intercostal space, bumping pulse, rather in adult horses d. Common in the first 2 weeks of life holodiastolic cardiac murmur on the right side

c. Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur, in left, 4th intercostal space, bumping pulse, rather in adult horses

Oesophageal obturation: prognosis in horses? a. Mostly unfavourable b. Mostly favourable c. Always fatal outcome d. Poor prognosis

b. Mostly favourable

Caudal shift of the caudal lung border. It is characteristic for? a. EGME b. RAO (COPD) c. ELE(M) d. FLUTTTD

b. RAO (COPD)

Which statement is true regarding porcine enterovirus diseases? a. The other name of the infectious swine paralysis is Teschen disease b. The other name of the infectious swine paralysis is Talfan disease c. Teschen disease is caused by enterovirus-2 serotype d. Talfan disease is caused by enterovirus-1 serotype

a. The other name of the infectious swine paralysis is Teschen disease

Left-sided abomasal displacement/auscultation with ballotment above displaced abomasum: a. Diagnostic accuracy of 100% b. Diagnostic accuracy of 50-60% c. Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40% d. Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

b. Diagnostic accuracy of 50-60%

Normal values of blood glucose in horses? a. 3-5 mmol/l b. 8-10 mmol/l c. 2-3 mmol/l d. 6-8 mmol/l

a. 3-5 mmol/l

What is polycythaemia absoluta vera? a. Elevated packed cell volume due to dehydration b. Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume c. Elevated packed cell volume due to splenic contraction d. Elevated packed cell volume due to low oxygen tension

b. Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume

Causes and route of infection of pyelonephritis in cows? a. Corynbacterium renale, only haematogen infection, inflammation of the genital organs b. Corynebacterium renale, mainly haematogen, rarely ascending infection c. Corynbacterium renale, puerperal trauma of the uterus or the vagina, mainly ascending, rarely hematogenous infection d. Corynebacterium Israeli, mainly iatrogenic, rarely direct contact information

c. Corynbacterium renale, puerperal trauma of the uterus or the vagina, mainly ascending, rarely hematogenous infection

The upper limit of total calcium in the plasma of the dog is? a. 2 mmol/l b. 5 mmol/l c. 3 mmol/l d. 1.8 mmol/l

c. 3 mmol/l

Which treatment(s) is (are) suggested in the long-term treatment of canine atopic dermatitis? a. Corticosteroids b. Antibiotics c. Ivermectin d. Allergen specific immunotherapy (hyposensibilisation)

d. Allergen specific immunotherapy (hyposensibilisation)

Ethmoid hematoma: cause? a. Traumatic injury of the ethmoid region (e.g. nasogastric tubing) b. Secondary to hemostatic problems c. Angiomatous tissue overgrowth d. Neoplastic origin

c. Angiomatous tissue overgrowth

Real colic is? a) A painful syndrome of the abdominal digestive organs b) All diseases causing abdominal pain c) A syndrome in horses characterised by pain and unrest d) A painful syndrome of the digestive organs

b) All diseases causing abdominal pain

Equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy. Which statement is not true? a. It is caused by EHV-2, on immuno-mediated basis, due to type 3 hypersensibilization b. It is caused by EHV-1, or sometimes by EHV-4, on an immune-mediated basis, due to type 3 hypersensibilization c. The symptoms can be seen in horses vaccinated against EHV because of immuno-complex based vasculitis d. In foals neurlogic signs are less frequent

a. It is caused by EHV-2, on immuno-mediated basis, due to type 3 hypersensibilization

Bronchitis-pneumonia: Aetiology / Obligate pathogenic viruses of horses a. Equine herpesvirus-1 and 4, equine influenza virus-A, african horse sickness virus b. Equine adenovirus, equine reovirus-1 and 3, african horse sickness virus c. Equine herpesvirus-2, equine adenovirus, parainfluenza virus-3 d. Rhinovirus, herpesvirus, coronavirus

a. Equine herpesvirus-1 and 4, equine influenza virus-A, african horse sickness virus

Most common localisation of bacterial endocarditis in swine: a. Mostly the aortic valve b. Mostly the tricuspid valve c. Mostly the tricuspid and mitral valve d. Mostly the mitral valve

d. Mostly the mitral valve

Characteristics of the additional adventitious respiratory sounds (rhonchi)? a. They can never be heard under normal physiological conditions b. They can be heard sometimes under normal (physiological) conditions as well c. Bronchial sounds belong into this category d. They can never be of musical character

a. They can never be heard under normal physiological conditions

Atropine toxicosis of horse: treatment? a. Pilocarpine b. Physostigmine c. Metoclopramide d. Lidocaine

b. Physostigmine

Hypoglycemia of piglets: clinical signs: a. In one-weeks old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, spasms, hypothermia, blood sugar, 3.0-5.0 mmol/l b. In 1-3 weeks old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, spasms, hypothermia death c. In 2-5 day old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, spasms, hypothermia, death blood sugar <3.0 mmol/l d. In one month old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, neural paralysis, hypothermia, blood sugar, 3.0-5.0 mmol/l

c. In 2-5 day old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, spasms, hypothermia, death blood sugar <3.0 mmol/l

Possible causes of hydronephrosis? a. Ureter stone b. Granuloma formation following neutralization c) Ascending infection d. Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder

a. Ureter stone

Cushing's Syndrome in dogs: diagnosis? a. Confirmation: HDDST, ACTHST, Differentiation of forms: abdominal US, LDDST, ACTH b. Confirmation: LDDST, ACTHST, Differentiation of forms: abdominal US, HDDST, ACTH c. Confirmation: LDDST, ACTHST, Differentiation of forms: X-ray, HDDST, ACTH d. Confirmation: abdominal US, HDDST, Differentiation of forms: LDDST, ACTHST

b. Confirmation: LDDST, ACTHST, Differentiation of forms: abdominal US, HDDST, ACTH

Squamous cell carcinoma: occurrence in cats? a. The most common benign tumour of the oral cavity b. The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity c. Very rare malignant tumour of the oral cavity d. Very rare benign tumour of the oral cavity

b. The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity

EGUS: clinical signs in foals (NOT true)? a. Diarrhoea b. Salivation c. Colic d. Fever

d. Fever

Nomotopic impulse formation disorder? a. Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome b. Sinus pause, 'atrial tachycardia', sick atrial flutter c. 1st degree atrioventricular block, sinoatrial block, sinus standstill d. WPW syndrome, fascicular block

a. Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome

Oesophageal obturation: aetiology in horse a. Primary; dry, chopped food, secondary; other oesophageal diseases b. Primary; sharp metallic objects, secondary; primary gastric obturation c. Primary; foreign bodies, poor dentition, secondary; mycotic innervation disorder due to inflammation of guttural pouch d. Primary; esophageal paralysis, secondary; reflux due to gastric ulcer

a. Primary; dry, chopped food, secondary; other esophageal diseases

Oesophageal obturation: suggested device for treatment in cattle? a. Buff trocar b. Thygesen probang c. Gunther probang d. Kaltenbock probang

b. Thygesen probang

AHDS - Acute haemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome in dog and cat a. Former name: HGE - haemorrhagic gastroenteritis b. Severe disorder, caused by corona virus c. Mild disorder, caused by rota virus d. Mild disorder, the patient can recover in few days without any treatment

a. Former name: HGE - haemorrhagic gastroenteritis

What is the pathognomic symptom of Cushing's syndrome? a. Collarette b. Hyperhidrosis c. Angioedema d. Keratin plugs e. Calcinosis cutis

e. Calcinosis cutis

Oesophageal obturation: treatment in cattle a. Trying to remove by hand if obstruction behind the pharynx b. Endoscopic surgery c. Lavage of foreign body by tube d. Lavage of thickened, chopped food

a. Trying to remove by hand if obstruction behind the pharynx

Which statement is true regarding porcine enterovirus diseases? a. The infectious swine paralysis should be officially reported to the local veterinary authorities, it has an unfavourable prognosis b. The other name of the infectious swine paralysis is Talfan disease, it has an unfavourable prognosis c. Teschen disease is caused by enterovirus-1 serotype, only young pigs are affected, the prognosis is favourable d. Only in weak, old animals, paralysis, the brain symptoms are similar to rabies

a. The infectious swine paralysis should be officially reported to the local veterinary authorities, it has an unfavourable prognosis

Symptoms of Hoflund-syndrome / anterior functional stenosis? a. Recurrent bloat, dilation of the rumen, ruminal content is thin-liquid, no sounds can be heard above the rumen b. Distended left flank, rumen tympany after feeding, ruminal content is foamy, the sounds of the rumen are weak c. The region of the reticulum is painful, regurgitation after feeding d. Cl-ion concentration >30 mmol/l in the ruminal fluid, full rumen atony

a. Recurrent bloat, dilation of the rumen, ruminal content is thin-liquid, no sounds can be heard above the rumen

Blister beetle causes? a. Intussusception, anaemia, hypokalaemia b. Diarrhoea, haematuria, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemia c. Diarrhoea, myocardial necrosis, hypochloraemia, hypermagnesemia d. Gastric ulceration, oliguria, invagination

b. Diarrhoea, haematuria, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemia

Colitis aetiology in horse? a. Lawsonia intracellularis, Salmonella, E. coli b. Metronidazole, lincomycin, Streptococcus zooepidemicus c. E. coli, salmonella, carbohydrate overload, Aspergillus, microsporon d. Salmonella, certain antibiotics, blister beetle

d. Salmonella, certain antibiotics, blister beetle

Characteristics of MEED (Multisystemic Eosinophilic Epitheliotropic Disease)? Which is NOT true: a. Diarrhoea b. Skin lesions c. Hypoalbuminemia, liver enzymes increase and absorption tests d. Gastrointestinal reflux

d. Gastrointestinal reflux

Regurgitation definition? a. Anterograde evacuation of digested food from oesophagus by passive way b. Retrograde evacuation of digested food from oesophagus by active way c. Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from oesophagus by passive way d. Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from stomach by active way

c. Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from oesophagus by passive way

Secretolytics for horses? a. Atropine, terbutaline, dembrexine b. Terbutaline, imodium c. Terbutaline, clenbuterol d. Acetylcysteine, bromhexine

b. Terbutaline, imodium

Physiological values of blood bicarbonate in horses a. 25-30 mmol/l b. 20-25 mmol/l c. 15-20 mmol/l d. 5-10 mmol/l

b. 20-25 mmol/l

Common complication of bacterial endocarditis in horses? a. Meningoencephalitis b. Disseminated purulent nephritis c. Thromboembolism of the iliac arteries d. Rupture of the dilated left atrium

b. Disseminated purulent nephritis

Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals? which answer is WRONG? a. Hematuria, pollakiuria b. Stranguria, dysuria c. Polyuria, azotaemia d. Periruia, incontinence

c. Polyuria, azotaemia

Stomatitis of horses: viral and fungal origin, which statement it NOT true? a. Can be caused by vesiculovirus, Candida albicans b. Can be caused by aphtovirus, herpesvirus, Trichophyton mentagrophytes c. Can be caused by vesiculovirus, Stachybotris atra d. Can be caused by vesiculovirus, candidiasis, stachybotryotoxicosis

b. Can be caused by aphtovirus, herpesvirus, Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Pathogenesis of left-sided abomasal displacement: a. Free fatty acid production↑ -> abomasl atony -> gas and fluid↑ -> abomasal dilation -> the abomasum is fixed between the abdominal wall and the rumen b. The abomasum is fixed between the abdominal wall and the intestines -> dilation of abomasum -> disorder of nutrient passage -> forestomach digestive↓ c. The abomasum is fixed between the abdominal wall and the rumen -> gas/fluid↑ -> dilation of abomasum -> abomasal atony -> free fatty acid production↓

a. Free fatty acid production↑ -> abomasl atony -> gas and fluid↑ -> abomasal dilation -> the abomasum is fixed between the abdominal wall and the rumen

COPD (RAO) common occurrence: a. In older horses kept in stables and getting mouldy hay b. In horses kept on pasture and in horses performing hard exercise c. In young foals after chronic respiratory infection d. Most common in thoroughbreds, trotters and younger sport horses

a. In older horses kept in stables and getting mouldy hay

Which is NOT associated with portal hypertension? a) Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia b) Arterioportal/arterio-venous fistula c) Idiopathic non-cirrhotic porate hypoplasia d) Hepatoportal fibrosis

a) Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia

Oesophageal obturation: most common complication in horse? a. Angina pharynges b. Secondary gastric dilation c. Pharyngeal paralysis d. Aspiration pneumonia

d. Aspiration pneumonia

Brachycephalic airway syndrome? a. Mostly the tracheal hypoplasia is responsible for the symptoms b. Secondary to congenital airway malformations (stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea laryngeal saccular oedema and eversion) c. Chronic increased positive pressure during expiration laryngeal cartilages will weaken & collapse d. Mostly the elongated soft palate is responsible for the symptoms

b. Secondary to congenital airway malformations (stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea laryngeal saccular oedema and eversion)

Mitral insufficiency: symptoms in swine a. Holosystolic cardiac murmur in the left 4th intercostal space, clinical signs of lung oedema b. Strong pandiastolic cardiac murmur at the left 5th intercostal space, tachypnoea, dyspnoea c. Systolic cardiac murmur in the left 5th intercostal space, clinical signs of lung oedema

a. Holosystolic cardiac murmur in the left 4th intercostal space, clinical signs of lung oedema

Glucocorticoids for horses (in RAO/COPD)? a. Beclometazon, triameinolone, fluticazon b. Bromhexine, dembrexine, dobutrex c. Albuterol, clenbuterol, salmeterol d. Atropine, ipratropium bromide, scopolamine bromide

a. Beclometazon, triameinolone, fluticazon

Approximate normal value of hematocrit in horses: a. 0.55 b. 0.40 c. 0.30 d. 0.25

b. 0.40

Oliguria: definition in dog? a. Urine output <50 ml/ttkg/day b. Urine output <100 ml/ttkg/day c. Urine output <30 ml/ttkg/day d. Urine output <6-10 ml/ttkg/day

d. Urine output <6-10 ml/ttkg/day

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals? a. E. coli, Proteus ascending infection b. Antifreeze poisoning c. Leptospirosis d. Ureter stone

c. Leptospirosis

Oesophageal obturation: common complications in cattle? a. Aspiration pneumonia b. Secondary ruminal bloat c. Oesophagus necrosis and perforation d. Fatal oesophageal bleeding

b. Secondary ruminal bloat

Occurrence of osteomalatia in cattle? a. D-vitaminosis, disorder in Ca-absorption, in the months after the delivery in cows that produces a lot of milk b. In case of P-dominant and D-avitaminosis, just after delivery in fat cows c. Disorder in Ca/P maintenance, older cows, pregnancy / lactation, in endemic regions d. C-avitaminosis, disorder in Ca-absorption before parturition

c. Disorder in Ca/P maintenance, older cows, pregnancy/lactation, in endemic regions

Physiologic coagulation time (in glass tube) in dogs? a. Less than 5-10 minutes b. Less than 10-15 minutes c. Less than 15-20 minutes d. Less than 2-5 minutes

d. Less than 2-5 minutes

Normal values of serum total bile acid in cattle: a. <120 micromol/l b. < 6 micromol/l c. < 10 mmol/l d. < 150 micromol/l

a. <120 micromol/l

a. Holosystolic cardiac murmur in the left 4th intercostal space, clinical signs of lung oedema

Physiological values of RBC in dogs: a. 8-10 T/l b. 5-10 T/l c. 8-12 g/l d. 7-15 T/l

b. 5-10 T/l

Characteristics of botulism infection a. Mainly animals fed with silage: silage disease, general excitement, convulsions, paralysis of tongue and pharynx b. Septicaemia caused by Clostridium botulinum -> paralysis of locomotion centre of medulla -> flaccid paralysis of the striated muscle -> death within 2-5 days c. Contaminated feed/pasture with cadavers, 3-17 days incubation period, unaffected consciousness, generalized, flaccid paralysis of the striated muscles, dysfunction in comprehension of the feed, dysphagia, paralysis of the tongue and tail -> respiratory paralysis

c. Contaminated feed/pasture with cadavers, 3-17 days incubation period, unaffected consciousness, generalized, flaccid paralysis of the striated muscles, dysfunction in comprehension of the feed, dysphagia, paralysis of the tongue and tail -> respiratory paralysis

Primary dilation of the forestomaches can occur in? a. Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, ruminant putrefaction b. Tetanus, atropine-poisoning, oesophageal obturation c. Rumen overload, simple indiges

a. Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, ruminant putrefaction

Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms? a) Activity⬇, obesity, PD/PU, alopecia, tachycardia, fertility⬇ b) activity⬇, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility⬇ c) activity⬆, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, PP d) activity⬇, obesity, alopecia, thin skin, bradycardia, fertility⬇

b) activity⬇, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility⬇

Canine chronic bronchitis? a. Daily cough for more than 1 month, prolonged inspiration and an expiratory push b. Daily cough for more than 2 months, prolonged inspiration and an expiratory push c. Daily cough for more than 2 months, prolonged expiration and an expiratory push d. Daily cough for more than 1 month and less than 2 months, prolonged expiration and an expiratory push

c. Daily cough for more than 2 months, prolonged expiration and an expiratory push

Equine gastric ulcer: treatment of horse? a. Spasmolytic, flunixin meglumine b. H2 antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, sucralfate c. Mineral oil, proton pump inhibitors, NSAID, H2 antagonist d. Phenylbutazone, sucralfate, aluminium hydroxide

b. H2 antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, sucralfate

Secondary, chronic recurrent luminal bloat / etiology a. Hoflund disease, stricture of the oesophagus, chronic rumen acidosis b. Rumen putrefaction, obstruction of the oesophagus, paratuberculosis c. Reticuloperitonitis, compression of the oesophagus, partial obstruction of the cardia d. Tetanus, forthy bloat, reflux syndrome

c. Reticuloperitonitis, compression of the oesophagus, partial obstruction of the cardia

Parasitic bronchitis and pneumonia in sheep: aetiology a. Oslerus osleri, Dictiocaulus arnfieldi b. Pneumocystis carinii, Histoplasma farciminosum c. Dictyocaulus filaria, Protostrongylida spp

c. Dictyocaulus filaria, Protostrongylida spp

Piglet anemia: treatment, prevention, timing of parenteral iron supply a. Iron supply for the saw during pregnancy b. Iron supply parenterally at their age of 3 weeks c. Parenteral Fe supply between the 2nd-5th day after birth d. Parenteral Fe supply between the 5th - 10th day after birth

c. Parenteral Fe supply between the 2nd-5th day after birth

Viral bronchitis / viral pneumonia in cattle a. RS virus pneumonia, viral diarrhoea VD, infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpesvirus b. Adenovirus, shipping fever, RS virus pneumonia c. Viral diarrhoea VD, infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpesvirus, lentivirus

a. RS virus pneumonia, viral diarrhoea VD, infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpesvirus

Fog fever in cattle: occurrence a. Only in feedlot bulls b. In adults and sucklings calves c. Only in suckling calves of grazing cows d. Only in grazing adults

d. Only in grazing adults

Which disease most resembles rabies in horses? a. Tetanus b. Botulismus c. Equine Leukoencephalomalacia (ELE) d. Equine Meningoencephalitis (THEME) caused by Heamophilus somnus

c. Equine Leukoencephalomalacia ELE

Bronchodilators for horses a. Ioperamid, albuterol, aminophylline (teophylline) b. Albuterol, dimethyl-sulfoxide, bromhexin c. Salbutanol, acetylcysteine, dembrexin d. Clenbuterol, albuterol, aminophylline (theophylline)

d. Clenbuterol, albuterol, aminophylline (theophylline)

COPD (RAO) is a(n) a. Allergic Disease b, Chronic fungal infection c. Chronic bacterial infection d. Chronic viral infection

a. Allergic Disease

Ventricular septal defect: detection in dog a. Doppler echocardiography, localisation usually just below the aortic root b. Two dimensional echocardiography, localisation usually within middle third of ventricular septum c. Doppler cardiography, localisation usually within ventral third of ventricular septum d. Laterolateral and dorsoventral radiography, localisation within ventral third of ventricular septum

a. Doppler echocardiography, localisation usually just below the aortic root

Rhinitis: causes in dog a. FB, allergy, aspergillus infection b. Canine distemper, rhinotracheitis (calicivirus), mycotic rhinitis c. Rhinopneumonitis (herpesvirus), rebirth disease, canine distemper d. Canine distemper, leptospirosis, mycotic rhinitis

a. FB, allergy, aspergillus infection

To what kind of disease is predisposed this breed (Doberman)? a. Familiary, chronic hepatitis b. Epulis c. Congenital aortic stenosis d. Tracheal hypoplasia

a. Familiary, chronic hepatitis

Which is NOT a form of vena portae hypoplasia? a. Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia b. Arterioportal / arteriovenosus fistula c. Idiopathic noncirrhotic portale hypoplasie d. Hepatiportal fibrosis

b. Arterioportal / arteriovenosus fistula

Immune mediated haemolytic anemia: characteristic lab findings? a. Non regenerative anaemia, anisocytosis, autoagglutination b. Regenerative anaemia, hypochromasia, microcytosis c. Positive osmotic fragility test, autoagglutination, neutropenia d. Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

d. Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

Additional diagnostic methods in Equine hepatic diseases: a. Ultrasound examination, Ultrasound guided biopsy b. Ultrasound examination, ultrasound guided liver biopsy c. Doppler ultrasound, radiography, diagnostic laparotomy d. Creatinine clearance test, Bromsulphthalein, clearance test

a. Ultrasound examination, Ultrasound guided biopsy

Sheep/pregnancy toxamia/treatment?

Early stage: oral propylene glycol, oral Ca, K and insulin, oral calf commercial electrolyte solutions containing glucose Late stage: demethasone to induce parturition

The most common cardiac disease in cats?

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy HCM

3rd degree atrio-ventricular block?

Multiple P waves and no PQR

Characteristics of pityriasis rosea in swine?

Idiopathic congenital disease in piglets, circular erythemous skin lesion on the central abdomen with central scaling, favourable prognosis

Acromegaly treatment?

Ovariehysterectomy

Babesiosis treatment?

Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin

Signs of iron deficiency anaemia in piglets?

Hypochromic, microcytic, reduced haemoglobin content

West Nile virus encephalomyelitis occurrence?

Occurence between April and July

Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia?

Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly

Final exam pqs Flashcards

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