final exam prep Flashcards

(269 cards)

1
Q

What is the lead

Fifth intercostal space on the left midclavicular line

A

v4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the lead

Horizontal to V4 at midaxillary line

A

V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Horizontal to V4 at left anterior auxiliary line

A

V5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fourth intercostal space at left margin of sternum

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fourth intercostal space at right margin of sternum

A

V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Midway between V2 and V4

A

V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The tricuspid valve us located between the

A

Right atrium and ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A patient is considered to have hypertension if the blood pressure is consistently elevated above

A

140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is a condition in which the heart pumps too weakly to supply the body with blood

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following conditions involves the localized inflammation of a vein

A

phlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lead I of an EKG attaches to

A

RA-LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lead II of an EKG attaches to

A

RA-LL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lead III of an EKG attaches to

A

LA-LL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which augmented lead is this Ra and (LA-LL)

A

aVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which augmented lead is this La and (RA-LL)

A

aVL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which augmented lead is this LL and (RA-LA)

A

aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When using a halter monitor the ECG electrodes are attached to a patients

A

Chest wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When placing the ECG electrodes on a patients lower leg the connectors should point

A

up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The bipolar leads are attached to which part of the body

A

Upper utter arms and inner lower calves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The first part of the cardiac cycle is called

A

Atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The ______ walls are thin one cell structures

A

capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

blopod flows out from the ___ and into the aorta

A

Left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which ECG lead records the voltage difference between left arm and the left leg

A

Lead III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s is the foremost contributing factor to stroke and kidney damage

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The ___ records the heart voltage difference between the left leg electrode and a central point between the right arm and left arm
aVF
26
Med term Cardi/o
Heart
27
Med term Phleb/o
Vein
28
Med term Angi/o
Vessel
29
Med term Thromb/o
Clot
30
Med term Atri/o
Atrium
31
What is flow of the cardiac cycle
``` Superior/inferior vena cava Right atrium Tricuspid AV Right Ventricle Semilunar pulmonic valve Pulmonary artery Lungs for co2, o2 back in Pulmonary veins Left atrium bicuspid AV Left ventricle Semilunar aortic valve Aorta ``` Starts all over 24/7 365 a year until we pass
32
Which disease is commonly known as whopping cough
Pertusis
33
The lymph tissue in the ____ intercepts antigens invading the upper respiratory tract
Tonsils and adenoids
34
Needles should be ___ after they have been used
Placed in a puncture-proof container
35
An autoclave is used for
Sterilization
36
You should not use any sterile package if it More then ___ from the time it was sterilized
30 days
37
define microorganisms power to produce a disease
Virulence
38
Parasites that depend completely on their host for survival
obligate parasite
39
Single celled internal parasite that have a true nucleus and survive on living matter
Protozoa
40
Microorganisms that cause disease
Pathogens
41
Cohabitation of microorganisms that live in or within an organism to provide a natural immunity against certain infections
Normal flora
42
multicellular parasite that live on the surface of a host and include scabies and lice
ectoparasites
43
Microorganisms that need oxygen to grow
aerobes
44
Microorganisms that grow best in the absence of oxygen
anaerobes
45
Branch of the immune response system that results from T cell activity
Cell-mediated immune response
46
Drugs that are incorporated into the DNA of HIV and stop the building process, slowing the spread of HIV
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
47
Ability to engulf and destroy antigens
phagocytosis
48
Group of disease characterized by uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells
Cell-mediated immune response
49
Immature cells that have little ability to fight infection
Monoctyes
50
Blood test used to measure the presence of different classes of immunoglobulin
Serum protein electrophoresis
51
Branch of the immune response system that results from B cell activity
Antibody- mediated immune response
52
Lymphocyte destroyer
cortisol
53
Group of genes that encode molecules found in all body cells, creating a biochemical "fingerprint" that serves as the "ID" for cells that they are marked as "self"
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
54
Yeast infection that is sometimes present in the mouth, esophagus, and vagina
candidiasis
55
Drugs that prevent HIV replication by inhibiting a viral protein
Non-nucleoside reverse transcription inhibitors (NNRTIs)
56
Substances that announce their foreigners by carrying different kinds of characteristics shapes, called epitopes, which stick out from the surface
Antigens
57
Family of proteins that can fight viruses
Interferon
58
Form of cancer that appears as purplish blotches on the skin
kaposi's sarcoma
59
Newer type of drug used to prevent HIV from entering healthy T cells
Fusion inhibitor
60
Painful blister on the lips is a symptom of
Herpes simplex virus
61
Which of the following is NOT one of the five characteristics on infectious microorganisms - viruses - parasites - chloroplasts - rickettsiae
chloroplasts
62
Chain of infection 1-6 (I,R,P,M,E,S)
1. Infectious agent 2. reservoir or source 3. Portal of exit of source 4. Means of transmission 5. Entry of host or source 6. Susceptible host (I,R,P,M,E,S)
63
Hepatitis is an inflammation and infection of the
Liver
64
The correct order of the phases of the digestive process , from start rot finish, is (IDAE)
Ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination (IDAE)
65
Bulging pouches in the wall of the GI tract where the lining has pushed into the surrounding muscle is characteristics of
diverticulosis
66
A spree to overindulge such as with alcohol or food
Binge
67
To be deprived ;without; having to do without or unable to use
Deprivation
68
Absence of menses; without menstruation
Amenorrhea
69
One suffering from anorexia
Anorexic
70
To become abnormally thin; loss of too much weight
Emaciation
71
An organic combination of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen as a sugar , a starch, or cellulose
carbohydrate
72
One who is trained in dietetics, which includes nutrition, and in charge of the diet of an institution
Dietitian
73
A unit for measuring the heart value of food
calorie
74
Substance deliberately added to a material to fulfill some specific purpose such as enhancing taste or color or prolonging shelf life
additive
75
Disease resulting from lack of vitamin b, thiamine
beriberi
76
When the partially digested food in the stomach is changed into a semiliquid state
Chyme
77
The presence of bulging pouches in the wall of the GI tract where the lining has pushed into the surrounding muscle
Diverticulosis
78
Gas
Flatus
79
A three inch long instrument used to examine the lower rectum and anal canal
proctoscope
80
Chronic disease of the liver causes destruction of the liver cells
Cirrhosis
81
Surgical opening of the ileum that allows the chyme of the small intestine to empty through the abdominal wall
ileostomy
82
The first of three sections of the colon, a C-shaped segment about nine inches long
duodenum
83
The surgical removal of the gallbladder
cholecystectomy
84
Also refered to a gastric (stomach) ulcer
Peptic
85
Used to perform an examination to view the lower portion of the sigmoid and rectum through a 10-12 inch sigmoidoscope
sigmoidoscopy
86
Has two layers of involuntary muscles the inner layer forms circles around it, where as the outer layer runs longitudinally along its approximately 10 inches long
Esophagus
87
Gallstones
cholelithiasis
88
Inflammation of the colon that causes tenderness and discomfort
Colitis
89
The connecting chain of organs of the gastrointestinal tract
Alimentary canal
90
The combination of mashed food and substances and saliva
bolus
91
The bile is absorbed into the bloodstream , producing the yellow discoloration of the sclera, mucosa, and skin
Jaundice
92
A patients condition interferes with the ability to control the anus, as in a stroke with paralysis and the rectum empties whenever the nerve impulse is triggered
Incontinent
93
Once food is swallowed its movement through thru body is Manistee by smooth involuntary muscle action called
peristalsis
94
Cirrhosis is a disease of the
Liver
95
Occult blood test will
Detect blood in feces
96
Where does mechanical digestion occur
Mouth
97
Which organ is responsible for the secretion of bile
Liver
98
Urine is produced through
Secretion
99
The major work of the urinary system is performed by the
Kidneys
100
Which of the following is considered an invasive procedure
Catheterization
101
Before performing an intravenous pyelography (IVP), it is extremely important to determine if the patient has an allergic reaction response to ?:
Barium
102
Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder usually caused by an ascending organism introduced through the
meatus
103
Correctly identify the two types dialysis
Hemodialysis and peritoneal
104
In the male, the urethra is about ___ inches long
8
105
Which kidney is displaced by the liver
Right
106
Women who have had cystitis a few times can identify the characteristic symptoms and will start to drink water and ___?
Cranberry juice
107
The treatment for pyelonephritis consists primarily of
Antibiotics
108
The involuntary loss of drops of urine is called
Dribbling
109
The most common underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is
glomerulonephritis
110
Urinary output
Anuria
111
This is created by a vascular surgeon who joins an artery and a vein together and makes an opening between the two so that blood flows directly from artery to vein bypassing the capillaries
Fistula
112
Inflammation of the bladder that usually results from an ascending organism introduced through the
Cystitis
113
Scanty urinary output
oliguria
114
renal stones
calculi
115
Narrowing of a passage way that interferes with the movement of substances through its interior
Stricture
116
Urine left in the bladder after a patient has voided
Residual
117
An alternative to hemodialysis using the patients own peritoneal membrane to cleanse the blood
Peritoneal
118
medulla is divided into triangular shaped wedges called renal pyramids with bases towards the cortex and tops or renal Padilla emptying into cavities called
calyx
119
pain or discomfort associated with voiding
dysuria
120
function ooh the nephron moves substances directly from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into the urine in the distal and collecting tumbles
Secretion
121
Method of kidney stone removal
Lithotripsy
122
Dropping of the kidneys that occurs in very thin person as a result of inadequate fatty cushion
ptosis
123
Similar to fistula except it is made with either a synthetic material or a treated, sterilized animal vein
graft
124
Life-preserving service of the kidney is performed by microscopic units called
Nephron
125
Tube leading from the bladder to an exit from the body
Urethra
126
Opening between the clitoris and the vagina within the folds of the labia minora
Urinary meatus
127
After the kidneys have preformed their functions, the waste material urine is carried through these, one for each kidney to temporary storage in the bladder
ureter
128
The pituitary gland is attached to which organ
Brain
129
Which pheromone stimulates contractions during childbirth
oxytocin
130
Which of the following is a gonadotropic hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
131
Where is the thyroid gland located
Larynx
132
Which hormone develops the primary male sexual characteristics
Testosterone
133
The adrenal gland sits atop the
Kidneys
134
Blood sugar test is performed to assed the function of the
Pancreas
135
Lack of ___ causes the thyroid gland to enlarge
Iodine
136
tetany is treated by the addition of
calcium
137
Majority of the islets of Langerhans cells are___ cells
Beta (B cells)
138
Disorder characterized by a group of symptoms that results from the hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex caused by excess ACTH production
Cushing syndrome
139
Small mass of tissue attached by a slim stalk to the roof of gut hormones that are advantageous for insulin secretion and decrease glucagon levels
antidiabetic drugs
140
Autoimmune disease that eventually results in severe insulin deficiency
Type 1 diabetes
141
Reduce insulin resistance by modulating activity of nuclear transcription factors
thiazolidinediones
142
Extreme clinical development of hyperthyroidism
Thyroid storm
143
Condition that results from a deficient of adrenal hormones in the cortex of the adrenal gland
Addison disease
144
Method used by diabetic patients to evaluate their glucose level
Finger stick
145
Work to lower sugar levels by blocking the release of glucose by the liver lindictae the answer choice that best describes completes the statement or answers the questions
biguanides
146
which hormone is responsible for developing breast tissue and stimulating the secretion of milk from the mammary glands
prolactin
147
Which hormone regulates the exchange of calcium between the bones and blood and increases blood calcium
parathormone
148
The principle hormone of the medulla is
Adrenaline
149
myxedema is an endocrine condition associated with
Too little thyroid hormone
150
Patients with hyperthyroidism commonly experience
Irritability
151
Which of the following conditions is characterized by overgrowth or cartilaginous and connective tissue
acromegaly
152
``` Which of the following does not influence the amount of insulin a diabetic patient needs A. vomiting b. pregnancy c. exercise d. weather conditions ```
Weather conditions
153
When the blood sugar level falls too low., the hormone glucagon is released causing ___ to release store glycogen into the blood
Liver
154
The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency is
Autoimmune destruction of the cells producing the hormone
155
The radioactive iodine uptake test is a test of which gland
Thyroid gland
156
Diabetes causes
hyperglycemia
157
Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the
Ovaries
158
Enlarged thyroid, nervousness and weight loss are symptoms of
Graves disease
159
``` The following are symptoms of hyperglycemia except A. nervousness b. paleness c. full bounding pulse d. dry skin ```
Dry skin
160
A moon face and a buffalo hump are symptoms of
Cushing syndrome
161
What is the first phase on menstruation
Follicular phase
162
Following fertilization, a zygote begins the journey to the well-prepared uterus arriving about___ after ovulation
6 days
163
After 8 weeks an embryo is called a
Fetus
164
The cervix must dilate to about ___ centimeters before the baby can be delivered
10
165
What is the most common type of vaginal infection that causes irritation symptoms
candidiasis
166
What is the treatment of choice for syphilis
Penicillin
167
Its symptoms in women include a vaginal discharge mimicking gonorrhea and frequent painful urination associated with urinary tract infections
Chlamydia
168
Group of infections with similar manifestations that are not linked to a single organism
nongonococcal urethritis (NGU, NSU)
169
Examination and biopsy of the cervix done to rule out cancer when there are abnormal pap smear results
Pap test
170
Blood taken at about the 15th to 20th week of pregnancy to aid in the detection of birth defects
Alpha-fetoprotein screening (AFP)
171
Lesion that appear at the point of entrance and is associated with syphilis
Chancre
172
Sac or fluid or semisolid material on an ovary
Ovarian cyst
173
Disease from that appears on the external genitalia, mouth, or angus
Type II herpes
174
Which method of contraceptive is typically most effective
condom
175
The epididymis is
Shaped like a half moon
176
The large pad of fat that overviews the symphysis pubis is known as the
mons pubis
177
What is not an early sign of pregnancy
Edema of the hands, feet, face, and legs
178
What is NOT a symptom of gonorrhea in men
Inflammation with a greenish-yellow discharge from the penis
179
bulbourethral glands are sometimes called __ glands
Cowper's
180
The ___ is a rounded mass composed of two small columns of erectile tissue
Clitoris
181
What is the most common gynecological malignancy
Uterine cancer
182
Risk factors fop ovarian cancer peaks when a woman is in her
80s
183
This is a predisposing factor for breast cancer
Drinking alcoholic beverages
184
Med term coop/o
vagina
185
Med term Hester/o
Uterus
186
Med term mamma/o
Breast
187
Med term men/o
Menstruation
188
colposcope is an instrument used too
View the cervix
189
A ___ is a surgical procedure that involves cutting through the abdomen and into the uterus to remove the baby and after birth
Cesarean
190
This test is preformed at 15-20 weeks of pregnancy to detect chromosomal disorders
Alpha-fetoprotein
191
Sperm are produced in the
Seminal tumbles
192
Menarche means the
Beginning of the menses
193
This is the metric unit that measures length
Meter
194
A person who weighs 125 pounds weighs approximately ___ kilograms
56.82
195
Which type of drug counteracts poisons and their effects selectively by binding with the toxin to inhibit further absorption
Antidote
196
Classification Sudafed is a
Decongestant
197
Classification Glucophage is a
Hypoglycemic, oral
198
Classification kaopectate is a
antidiarrheal
199
Classification Plavix is a
Antiplatelets
200
Classification Tylenol is a
analgesic
201
Classification Novocaine is a
Anesthetic
202
Classification Proventil is a
Bronchodilator
203
Classification Librium is a
antianxiety
204
Classification coumadin is a
Anticoagulant
205
Classification Benadryl is a
Antihistamine
206
Classification Metamucil is a
Laxative
207
Classification Mylanta is a
Antacid
208
Classification lithium is a
antimanic
209
Classification duracillin is a
antibiotic
210
1 tsp= ____ ml
5ml
211
1T=____ml
15ml
212
The prefix centi- means
1/100th of a unit
213
Which system of measurement is most commonly used in health carte
Metric
214
What is conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms
2.2lb=1kg
215
After beginning the immunization schedule, infants are typically examined
Every 2-3 months for the first 18 months
216
Which of the following is not a measurement commonly obtained at well child visits
Circumference of the abdomen
217
When using a snellen chart, the child
Indicates with the fingers which way the big E is facing
218
How often does the CDC release recommended childhood and adolescent immunization scheduled for children in the united states
Every year
219
Infants typically begin their journey through the pediatricians office
1-2 weeks old
220
Medicaid comprehensive and preventative child health program does not include which service
Cosmetic surgery
221
It is customary to weigh infants
unclothed
222
When measuring a Childs chest circumference the measuring tape should be placed
Directly over the nipples
223
Which of the following is a symptoms of neglect
Apparent malnutrition
224
Which of the following is a sign of abuse
Frequent injuries requiring medical attention
225
Item that may be kept near the front desk in case a child becomes sick in the reception area and vomits
Emesis basin
226
Observed by watching a child from behind as he or she walks to the caregiver
Gait
227
Establishment of a positive parent-child relationship through examining, touching, cuddling and expressions of love
attachment
228
Lack or withholding of care
Neglect
229
Significantly influences growth patterns, making it important to have a complete family health history in the medical record
Heredity
230
Helps to keep sick children isolated from well children while they wait to see the provider
Separate reception area
231
Occurs when an infant or young child is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts
Failure to thrive (FTT)
232
Observed by watching a Childs reaction to surrounding sounds
Hearing
233
Inflicting emotional, physical or sexual injury
Abuse
234
Documents the possible side effects of an immunization
Vaccination information sheet ( VIS)
235
An apgar score ___ requires immediate intervention and continued evaluation
Below 7
236
At what age can an infant first role from the back to the side
2-4 months
237
At 5 months, a typical infant can
Hold a bottle
238
At 12-15 months a child can typically
Say 10 or more words
239
At 24 months a child can typically can
Ride a tricycle
240
When measuring a Childs head circumference, the measurement should be read to be nearest
1/4 inch
241
growth graphics aid in the diagnosis of growth abnormalities, nutritional disorders, and diseases of children from birth to age
20
242
Toys in the play area of the reception are should
Be washable
243
Which of the following is not a sign of a vision deficiency in a child
Holding books an arms length away when reading
244
5 commonly given routine baby vaccines
Dtap, polio, HepB, Varicela, MMR
245
Atrial depolarization represents which wave
p wave
246
Ventricular depolarization represents which wave
qrs wave
247
Ventricular depolarization represents which wave
t wave
248
What is the range for normal blood pressure
Less than 120/70
249
Arteries always carry blood ___ from the body
Away
250
Veins carry blood ___ to the body
toward
251
contraction phase is known as
systole
252
Relaxation phase is called
Distole
253
What is the 1st phase of menstruation
Follicular phase
254
second phase of menstruation is
Ovulation
255
Third phase of menstruation is
luteal phase
256
Fourth phase of menstruation is
Menstruation
257
1st phase of birth is
Contractions begin
258
2nd phase of birth
10cm dilated and crowning of the head and birth
259
3rd phase of birth
Detachment of placenta (after birth)
260
Med term abdomin/o
Abdomen
261
Med term bucc/o
Cheek
262
Med term enter/o
Small intestine
263
Med term stomat/o
mouth
264
Med term gastro/o
stomach
265
Med term an/o
anus
266
Med term Cheil/o
lips
267
Med term sail/o
saliva
268
Med term hepat/o
liver
269
Med term lingu/o
tongue