Final Exam Review Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

The plot below represents the initial reaction velocities for different substrate concentrations in a batch reactor. The same, and I’m concentration, reactor volume, temperature, and pH were used for all data points. Assuming that the reaction follows Michaelis Menten kinetics, please estimate Vm from the plot. 

A

600 micromol/(l x min)
y-axis value where the graph levels off

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2
Q

(T/F) when ribose is a part of a nucleic acid sequence, the phosphate is on carbon 5

A

True

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3
Q

(T/F) the template strand of DNA is transcribed 

A

True

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4
Q

mRNA is translated in…

A

5’ to 3’ direction

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5
Q

What molecular components that comprise the basic subunits (monomers) of DNA differ from RNA?

A

Sugar, base

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6
Q

Studying the expression of a transcription, regulatory protein into cell types, you have performed experiments showing that the mRNA encoding the protein is present at varying levels in the cytosol of both cell types. However, you find out that the protein in both cell types is expressed at comparable levels. Which of the following steps in expression of the gene and coding this protein is more likely to be differentially controlled in these cell types?

A

Transcription and translation

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7
Q

You are treating a tumor with pulse electric fields. You aim to ablate all local tumor cells. What pulses sequence do you prefer?

A

High voltage, short pulses, high frequencies consistent with IRE protocols

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8
Q

The process of delivery of nucleic acids materials into mammalian cells with pulse electric fields is called…

A

Gene electrotransfer

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9
Q

(T/F) tertiary protein structure refers to the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein 

A

False

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10
Q

What charge would you expect a protein to have in a highly acidic environment?

A

Positive

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11
Q

Which of the following is an assumption of the Michaelis Menten Kinetics model that was described in class?

A

S concentration&raquo_space;> E concentration

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12
Q

What happens in the M phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A

Cell separates into two daughter cells, replicated chromosomes line up and begin separating

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13
Q

(T/F) during DNA synthesis, the leading strand of DNA is reproduced continuously

A

True

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14
Q

During DNA electrophoresis…

A

Smaller DNA fragments migrate FASTER, compared to larger ones (none of the above on the exam review question)

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15
Q

What are the base pairs that bind together to form double-stranded RNA?

A

U-A, C-G

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16
Q

Which is true of a typical cell growth curve under batch conditions?

A

There is no net replication in the stationary phase

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17
Q

(T/F) a cell commits to division or quiescence during the G2 phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle

A

False

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18
Q

RNA polymerase moves along the molecule of DNA in which direction?

A

3’ to 5’ direction

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19
Q

The term Vm, in Michaelis Menten kinetics, can be interpreted as?

A

The maximum rate of product production

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20
Q

The abbreviation ES in the enzyme kinetics discussed class stand for?

A

Enzyme substrate complex

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21
Q

Dideoxy Nucleotide Triphosphates (ddNTP) are used DNA sequencing to…

A

Stop DNA synthesis locations that correspond to nucleotides containing a specific base

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22
Q

The general chemical structure for the basic subunits of a polypeptide include, which of the following?

A

Central carbon with the following attached: H, COOH, NH2, and variable R group

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23
Q

Which of the following are mechanisms by which proteins can be denatured?

A

Extreme temperatures, highly acidic or basic conditions, high sheer stress (all of the above on the exam review)

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24
Q

What is the base pairing for DNA?

A

A-T, G-C

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25
(T/F) the Hayflick limit is the number of times a normal human cell population will divide before cell division stops
True
26
One type of device that can be used to count cells in order to determine the concentration of cells in a liquid sample is called?
Hemocytometer
27
What mathematical equation is used to describe the equilibrium potential at which there is no driving force for the flow of any in organic ion through a membrane channel?
Nernst equation
28
(T/F) flow cytometers analyze cells using a one cell at a time approach
True
29
The negative potential inside most living cells (relative to the outside) is primarily attributed to…
The proteins in the cell interior that are primarily anions
30
Forward angle scatter (FSC) is measured by flow cytometer. What does a FSC measurement indicate?
Cell size
31
ELISA assays are used to…
Detect a soluble protein or antibody
32
The two driving forces that force the flow of inorganic ions through an open channel in the cell membrane is?
Concentration gradient, the voltage gradient
33
(T/F) neurotransmitters are a chemical means of propagating an electrical signal from one cell to another
True
34
(T/F) Adherens Junction is an anchorage site for actin filaments
True
35
What is the main constitute of the mammalian cell plasma membrane?
Phospholipids
36
What type of signaling utilizes a channel between cells?
Contact dependent signaling
37
Phospholipids are comprised of?
2 fatty acids, glycerol, phosphate, polar head group
38
(T/F) phospholipids in the bilayer structure of a mammalian cell membrane are covalently bound to each other
False
39
What type of signaling occurs where cells only respond to signaling molecules that they self secrete?
Autocrine signaling
40
Osmosis is…
The diffusion of water across a semi permeable membrane
41
What type of signaling includes the blood carrying signal molecules to the target cells?
Endocrine signaling
42
(T/F) epithelial surfaces have a 1-dimensional ECM
False
43
The elasticity of blood vessels can be attributed to which of the following?
Elastin
44
(T/F) Hemidesmosomes anchor intermediate filaments to the ECM
True
45
What is the name for ligands that can increase or decrease a metabolic enzyme activity, gene expression, or cell morphogenesis?
Effector proteins
46
(T/F) intracellular receptors have hydrophilic ligands
False
47
(T/F) cell surface receptors have hydrophilic ligands
True
48
In paracrine signaling, the molecules secreted by a particular cell are intended to communicate with…
Other cells over relatively short distances
49
What does the acronym ECM represent in biology?
Extra cellular matrix
50
Integrins are…
Linked to the cytoskeleton
51
Gap junctions…
Allow passage of small, water-soluble molecules from one cell to another
52
In reference to recombinant DNA technology, DNA is cleaved at specific sites by…
Restriction nucleases
53
Primary cell culture refers to cells…
Taken directly from a tissue of an organism to a dish, that do not continue to grow and eventually die, explanted directly from a donor organism (all of the above on the exam review)
54
(T/F) cells in a primary culture are not susceptible to contamination
False
55
(T/F) secondary cell cultures are cells that are taken from a primary culture are passaged or divided in vitro
True
56
Passaging cells in culture refers to…
The process of removing or diluting cells in a culture to keep the cells actively growing
57
(T/F) optimal confluency of cells in cell culture at the point of replating is 90-100%
False
58
What is typically used to detach adherent cell lines from cell culture dishes?
Trypsin
59
Upon trypsonization of cells in a culture, what, if anything, on the cells is disrupted?
Protein-mediated attachments to one another and growth factors
60
(T/F) The growth of adherence cells in batch culture is limited by the amount of nutrients available rather than the amount of available surface area.
False
61
A sterilization technique that causes mutations to form in the DNA of microbes eventually leading to death is referred to as?
UV radiation
62
What term refers to a heat treatment to reduce the level of microbes?
Pasteurization
63
What term refers to the removal, destruction, or inactivation of microorganisms, which may cause specific damage or infection, while others may survive?
Disinfection
64
(T/F) sterilization removes, destroys, or inactivates ALL life of any kind from an object or material
True
65
Side scatter (SSC) in relationship to flow cytometry provides what useful measurement or information?
Surface topography
66
When performing an ELISA assay, the basic use for a capture antibody is to…
Capture a target protein
67
Which of the following is a device for directly analyzing gene expression?
Gene microarray
68
In microscopy, what is the transmitted light mode in which the image is obtained by simple transmission of light through the sample being viewed?
Brightfield
69
In microscopy, what transmitted light mode allows for 3-D imaging?
Differential interference contrast
70
(T/F) scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is used to observe internal cell structure down to the molecular level
False
71
(T/F) transmission electron microscopy is useful to observe 3-D characteristics of surface topography
False
72
Cell lysis can be accomplished by which of the following techniques?
A blender, sonication, tissue homogenizer (all of the above on the exam review)
73
(T/F) mitogens stimulate cell division
True
74
Which of the following modes of cell migration is dependent upon of substrate bound concentration gradient?
Haptotaxis
75
Which of the following modes of cell migration is dependent upon a rigidity gradient?
Durotaxis
76
Which of the following modes of cell migration is dependent upon a soluble concentration gradient?
Chemotaxis
77
Which of the following is described by a sheet-like protrusion supported by a mesh work of actin filaments, which is extended at the leading edge of a crawling animal cell?
Lamellipodium
78
Which of the following refers to a network of fibers extending throughout the cytoplasm?
Cytoskeleton
79
Which of the following are formed from microtubules and act as a sensory device?
Cilia
80
What are the four stages of wound healing and chronological order?
Homeostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodeling
81
During the homeostasis phase of the foreign body response, what process also occurs that does not occur during normal wound healing?
Adsorption
82
(T/F) The Vroman effect involves high molecular weight molecules attaching to the surface of the biome material and then being replaced by low molecular weight molecules
False
83
During the proliferation phase of the foreign body response, what is proliferating?
Endothelial cells and fibroblasts
84
You are looking at a trichrome image of an 8-week implant of a new material that you were testing for biocompatibility implanted subcutaneously. You immediately conclude that the material is not biocompatible. Why?
You observe, thick, blue fibrous staining around the implant indicating fibrous encapsulation
85
You have counted 25, 20, 45, and 32 blue cells in the four squares of the hemocytometer and 10, 12, 11, and 12 clear cells in the same four squares of the hemocytometer. You have 10 mL of your cell suspension And you use 0.02 mL of cell suspension, and 0.02 mL of trypan blue to load the hemocytometer. What is your dilution factor?
DF=2 [(0.02+0.02)/(0.02)]= 2
86
You seeded 20,000 cells in your 10 cm in diameter plate on Monday. On Friday (day 4) you observe that your plate is 80% confluent, and you counted 1 million cells. What is the population doubling time?
17 hr
87
Consider that you are growing a batch of cells in a petri dish. You seed 1000 viable cells into the culture at t=0. The cells are known to have a 4-hour lag time. If the cells have a net replication rate of 0.87 hr-1, how many cells will be in the culture 10 hours after you initially seeded the culture?
184934 cells
88
Considered that you are growing a batch of cells in a petri dish as followed in the growth curve showing in the figure. At the beginning of their log phase of growth, there are 1000 cells. If the cells have a net replication rate of 0.87 hr-1, what is the doubling time of the cells?
0.8 hr