Final Exam Review Flashcards
(310 cards)
1
Q
What is an aneroid gauge?
A
A gauge without liquid
2
Q
What is a bourdon gauge?
A
A type of aneroid gauge; no liquid inside
3
Q
A bourdon gauge measures ___ and is seen on what types of tanks?
A
Gas pressures (specifically measures pressure difference between the pressure exerted by the gas in the compressed cylinder vs. atmospheric pressure)
Seen on O2, air, and N2O tanks
4
Q
When the bourdon gauge reads ‘0’, is there any pressure left in the tank?
A
YES—once it reads 0, it still has the equivalent of atmospheric pressure in there (14 psi of atmospheric pressure remains)
5
Q
A tank of gas has a gauge that reads 45 psi. If the atmospheric pressure at that time is 14 psi, how much gas is really in the tank?
A
P total = P gauge + P atmosphere
P total = 45 + 14 = 59 psi
6
Q
1 atm = ___ psi
A
14 psi
7
Q
1 atm = ___ torr = ___ mm Hg
A
1 atm = 760 torr = 760 mm Hg
8
Q
Barometer is an instrument used to measure ___
A
Atmospheric pressure
9
Q
Manometer is an instrument used to measure ___
A
Pressure differences
10
Q
What law is the basis of pulse oximetry?
A
Beer Lambert’s Law
11
Q
Pulse ox measures the difference between background absorption in ___ and peak absorption during ___
A
Diastole; systole
12
Q
Infrared light— ___ nm; measures ___; corresponds with ___% sat
A
940 nm; measures oxyhemoglobin; corresponds with 100% sat
13
Q
Red light— ___ nm; measures ___; corresponds with ___% sat
A
660 nm; measures deoxyhemoglobin; corresponds with 50% sat
14
Q
Carboxyhemoglobin— ___ binds to hemoglobin instead of O2; shows SPO2 reading of ___; use ___
A
CO; SPO2 reading of 100% (inaccurate); use co-oximeter
15
Q
Methemoglobin
A
Fe 2+ converts to Fe 3+ form; O2 cannot be transported by iron in hemoglobin
16
Q
Methemoglobin is caused by what (6) things?
A
- Nitrates
- Nitrites
- Sulfonamides
- Benzocaine spray
- Nitroglycerin
- Nitroprusside
17
Q
Methemoglobin absorbs ___ at both wavelengths
A
Equally
18
Q
Methemglobin shows sat of ___%
A
85%
19
Q
Treatment for methemoglobinemia
A
Methylene blue or ascorbic acid
20
Q
What two things do NOT affect pulse ox readings?
A
Fetal hemoglobin and bilirubin
21
Q
___ is the basis behind non-invasive blood pressure technology
A
Oscillometry
22
Q
___ is used in pressure monitoring with transducers
A
Piezoelectric technology
23
Q
Electricity is defined as the effects produced by ___
A
Moving charges
24
Q
Proton =
A
Positive charge
25
Electron =
Negative charge
26
Fundamental principle of charge interaction—opposite charges ___; like charges ___
Opposite charges attract; like charges repel
27
Electric current is the amount of...
Charge flowing per unit of time
28
What substances allow electrons to move easily from one atom to the next?
Conductors (i.e.: metals—electron shells mostly empty)
29
What substances do NOT allow electrons to move easily from one atom to the next?
Nonmetals
30
What is the point of CO2 absorption (soda lime) in the anesthesia gas machine?
To remove/rebreathe CO2 from the patient’s exhaled air; goal is to conserve O2, agent, as well as heat
31
How many L of CO2/100g of absorbent?
23 L CO2/100 g of absorbent
32
What is the soda lime reaction that takes place when CO2 is reabsorbed?—CO2 chemically combines with ___ to form __
CO2 combines with H2O to form carbonic acid
33
Soda lime contains ___ that are capable of neutralizing carbonic acid
Hydroxide salts
34
What are the (3) reaction end products of CO2 reabsorption?
Heat, water, and calcium carbonate
35
What color does soda lime turn when exhausted?
Purple
36
Which inhalation agent forms compound A when degraded by soda lime?
Sevoflurane
37
CO2 reabsorption has the potential to generate ___
Carbon monoxide
38
What should you do with your flows when the anesthesia machine is NOT in use?
Turn off all gas flows!
39
What is the unit of flow rate?
M^3/s (cubic meters per second)
40
Narrowing causes speed to ___ tremendously
Increase
41
Narrowing causes flow rate to ___
Remain the same
42
Which principle does this describe?—as the speed of a fluid increases, the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases
Bernoulli’s principle—pressure of a fluid varies inversely with speed
43
Bernoulli—an increase in speed = ___ in pressure
Decrease in pressure
44
Bernoulli—a decrease in speed = ___ in pressure
Increase in pressure
45
Bernoulli—pressure is ___ in the narrow part of the tube
LOWER in the narrow part of the tube because speed is greatest there (inverse relationship between speed and pressure)
46
The Venturi flow meter was originally used to measure ___; today, it’s the idea behind ___
Used to measure the speed of fluid in a pipe; today, it’s the idea behind nebulizer treatments
47
What type of change is this?—no change in the chemical makeup (i.e.: melting ice)
Physical change
48
What type of change is this?—always makes a chemically different substance (i.e.: 2H2O —> 2 H2 + O2)
Chemical change
49
What type of property is this?—may be observed/measured without changing the chemical makeup
Physical property
50
What are two types of physical properties?
- Intensive
| - Extensive
51
What type of physical property is this?—integral to the material, regardless of amount (i.e.: color)
Intensive physical property
52
What type of physical property is this?—depends on the sample size (i.e.: volume)
Extensive physical property
53
What type of property is this?—describes the type of chemical changes the material tends to undergo (i.e.: flammable)
Chemical property
54
The following is an example of what type of change?—boiling water to steam
Physical change
55
The following is an example of what type of property?—liquid
Intensive physical property
56
The following is an example of what type of property?—mass
Extensive physical property
57
What is kinetic energy?
Energy of a mass in motion
58
What is potential energy?
Stored energy
59
What is the unit of measurement for energy?
Joules
60
What is internal energy?
The sum of the kinetic and potential energies in a system
61
What does STP stand for?
Standard temperature and pressure; unless stated otherwise, follow these conditions
62
What is standard temperature?
T = 273 K (0 degrees C)
63
What is standard pressure?
1 atm = 760 mm Hg
64
One mole of ideal gas has a volume of ___ L
22.414 L (or 22.7 according to new literature)
65
___ forces determine how molecules interact
Intermolecular
66
Intermolecular forces arise because of the attraction of ___ forces—what law does this describe?
Opposite forces—Coulomb’s Law
67
What type of substance does this describe?—intermolecular forces are strong enough to hold molecules rigidly in place with respect to each other
Solid
68
What type of substance does this describe?—molecules are held in a condensed phase, not strong enough to prevent molecules from sliding past each other
Liquid
69
What type of substance does this describe?—neither definite shape nor volume; intermolecular forces are essentially zero
Gas
70
___ are formed from metals and nonmetals
Ionic compounds
71
___ are formed from oppositely charge ions; generally stronger than covalent bonds; most commonly solids
Ionic bonds
72
What is the relative concentration of solutes in osmotic systems?
Tonicity
73
Equal concentrations of particles =
Isotonic
74
Greater concentration of particles =
Hypertonic
75
Lower concentration of particles =
Hypotonic
76
Diffusion of water is ___
Osmosis
77
Diffusion always occurs from ___ concentration to ___ concentration
High concentration to low concentration
78
What law explains why the surface tension on a blood vessel wall depends on the radius of that vessel?
LaPlace’s law
79
LaPlace’s law states that for cylinders, T (wall tension) =
T = Pr
```
T = wall tension
P = pressure
R = radius
```
80
LaPlace’s law—wall tension is directly proportional to ___
The radius of the vessel; as the radius increases, so does wall tension (and vice versa)
81
___ has greater wall tension than a capillary
Aorta > capillary
82
What in our bodies helps to decrease surface tension?
Surfactant
83
Water has a ___ (low/high) surface tension
HIGH
84
What is the closed path through which a charge flows?
Electric circuit
85
Direct current circuit—current flows in ___ direction
One direction only
86
Alternating current circuit—current ___ direction
Reverses
87
A short circuit is a ___ path resulting in a large current
Low resistance path
88
If current from a short circuit is NOT limited by a fuse or circuit breaker, the resulting heat from the high current can lead to ___
A fire
89
Series circuits—batteries or resistors are connected in ___; the voltages and resistances are ___
Connected in series; added (R total = R1 + R2)
90
Parallel circuits—current flows through each resistor ___; voltages/resistances are added ___
Independently; added inversely (1/R total = 1/R + 1/R)
91
We pay for ___, NOT electrical power
Electrical energy—power x time
92
What type of shock is this?—large amounts of current conducted through a patient’s skin or other tissues; extent of injury depends on the amount of current and the duration of exposure
Macroshock
93
What type of shock is this?—delivery of small amounts of current directly into the heart
Microshock
94
With Microshock, very small currents < ___ milliamps can produce V Fib
< 50 milliamps
95
What provides a low resistance pathway for leakage current and constitutes the major source of protection against Microshock?
Ground wire
96
Can you touch (simultaneously) an electrical device and a saline filled CVP line or pacing wires?
NO!!! Must wear rubber gloves
97
What are 3 types of safety features used to prevent electrical shock?
- Polarized plugs
- Three prong grounded plugs
- Ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)
98
Three prong grounded plug—grounded third prong is wired directly to ___
The casing of the electrical device
99
Three prong grounded plug—if for some reason a high potential wire comes into contact with the case, the current will flow directly to the ___ instead of ___
Directly to the third prong instead of through your body
100
Polarized plugs have one narrow prong (___ potential) and one wide prong (___ potential)
Narrow prong = high potential
| Wide prong = low potential
101
Casing in polarized plugs is connected to the ___ prong
Wide prong—low potential
102
GFCIs are used in circuits near ___
Water sources
103
What do GCFIs do if a change in current is detected?
Immediately disrupt flow
104
What is a disadvantage of GFCIs?
They interrupt power without warning—problematic when using life support equipment
105
Modern electrical circuits are typically ___ but can still pose a risk to humans—why?
Grounded
Humans at ground potential only have to touch a single object to complete the circuit, resulting in electrical shock
106
In the OR, electrical systems are isolated from the grounded electrical supply through the use of ___
Isolation transformers
107
Isolation transformers rely on magnetic inductance to transfer current from the ___ electrical system to an ___ secondary system WITHOUT ___
Grounded electrical system; an ungrounded secondary system; without the two systems touching each other
108
Ungrounded systems in the operating room prevent ___ from simply touching a single live wire
Accidental shocks
109
The line isolation monitor alarms when ___ occurs
Fault in an ungrounded system occurs
110
When the line isolation monitor alarms, does current still flow?
Yes, current still flows
111
Line isolation monitor—if live wires contact a ground, a ___ has occurred
Fault
112
Line isolation monitor—if a second fault occurs, it can result in ___
Shock
113
Line isolation monitor is set to alarm between ___ mA
2-5 mA
114
If the line isolation monitor is between 2 and 5 mA, there is ___
Too much equipment plugged into the circuit
115
If the line isolation monitor > 5 mA...
Then there is a faulty piece of equipment plugged in; unplug things until the alarm is silenced
116
If the line isolation monitor system alarms, make sure it is a ___
True fault—either too much equipment plugged in or a faulty piece of equipment present
117
Line isolation monitor is NOT designed for protection against ___
Microshock
118
The main objective of electrical safety is to make it difficult for current to pass through ___
People
119
Electrosurgery involves ___ currents; do not excite ___ cells
High frequency currents; do not excite contractile cells
120
Electrosurgery cannot be safely operated unless the energy is routed from the unit through the patient and back to the unit via a ___
Large surface area dispersive electrode
121
ESU—if the return plate is improperly applied to the patient or if the cord connecting to the return plate is broken, then high frequency electrical current will seek ___
An alternate return path (aka shock the patient)
122
Most important factor in preventing patient burns from the ESU is ___
Proper application of the return plate
123
Which gas law states the following?—pressure is directly proportional to temperature if volume is constant
Gay-Lussac’s Law
If temperature goes up, then pressure goes up (if volume is constant)
124
Name this gas law—if temperature goes up, then pressure goes up (if volume is constant)
Gay-Lussac’s Law
125
What is an example of Gay-Lussac’s Law?
N2O cylinder—when gas leaves the tank (pressure goes down), the temperature in the tank drops
126
Do ideal gases exist?
NO! Because ideal gases obey gas laws at all temps and pressures
127
Real gases deviate at ___ and/or ___
High pressure and/or low temperatures
128
What equation deals with the deviation in real gases from ideal gases?
Vander Waals equation
129
What gas law is this?—volume is inversely related to pressure; as pressure increases, volume decreases (and vice versa)
Boyle’s Law
130
Boyle’s law is the basis of ___
Negative-pressure breathing
131
What gas law is this?—volume is directly proportional to the absolute temperature under constant pressure—if the absolute temperature of a gas doubles, then the volume doubles
Charles’ Law
132
What is an example of Charles’ Law?
ETT cuff—the volume in the cuff increases when ETT is placed inside a patient (core temp is > room temp)
Volume increases with heat/increased temp
133
___ law—the pressure exerted by an individual gas in a mixture is known as its ___
Dalton’s law—partial pressure
134
Dalton’s law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to ___
The sum of the partial pressures
P total = P1 + P2 + P3
135
___ law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane is determined by the membrane itself, partial pressure gradient of the gas, and wall thickness
Fick’s Law
136
Fick’s law—diffusion rate of a gas is DIRECTLY proportional to what (3) things?
- Partial pressure gradient
- Membrane area
- Solubility of gas in membrane
137
Fick’s law—diffusion rate of a gas is INVERSELY proportional to what (2) things?
- Membrane thickness
| - The sq. Root of the molecular weight
138
What law explains these three concepts—concentration effect; second gas effect; diffusion hypoxia?
Fick’s law
139
What term best describes the following?—running flows at higher concentrations to speed up induction (higher concentration = faster diffusion of gas)
Concentration effect
140
What term best describes the following?—using a second gas speeds up the rate of diffusion of another gas; what gas is typically used for this?
Second gas effect; nitrous
141
What term best describes the following?—nitrous causes hypoxia; what should you do to prevent this from happening?
Diffusion hypoxia; run 100% FiO2 after using nitrous
142
Henry’s Law—the amount of a non-reacting gas which dissolves in liquid is directly proportional to the ___, if temperature is constant
Partial pressure of the gas
143
How to calculate amount of dissolved O2 in blood?
Multiple partial pressure of O2 by 0.003 (because there is 0.003 ml of O2/100 ml blood/mmHg partial pressure of O2)
144
How to calculate amount of dissolved CO2 in blood?
Multiple partial pressure of CO2 by 0.067 (because there is 0.067 ml of CO2/100 ml blood/mmHg partial pressure of CO2)
145
Graham’s Law of Effusion states that the rate of effusion is inversely proportional to ___
The square root of the molecular mass
146
The rate of effusion depends on the ___ of the molecules
Speed of the molecules
147
Graham’s law of effusion—the square of the speed is inversely proportional to the ___, if the KE is constant
Mass
148
Effusion is the same process as ___
Diffusion
149
What is diffusion?
Movement of a substance from an area of higher to lower concentration
150
Effusion is the movement of ___ through ___
A gas through a small opening
151
Temperature effect—the amt of gas dissolved is ___ proportional to temperature
Inversely—i.e.: the colder the liquid, the more gas that will dissolve in the liquid
152
Ostwald’s solubility coefficient—the quantity of solvent needed to dissolve ___ at a given temperature and pressure
Dissolve a quantity of gas
153
Ostwald’s solubility coefficient—the higher the coefficient, the more ___; the two phases must be ___
Readily the gas dissolves in the liquid; the two phases must be specified
154
What is the blood gas partition coefficient?
Blood solubility of a gas, how soluble a gas is in blood
155
Higher blood gas coefficient =
Requires more uptake of gas into the blood, induction will be slower
156
Higher partition coefficient = ___ (lower/higher) lipophilicity = ___ (lower/higher) potency = ___ (lower/higher) solubility
Higher lipophilicity = higher potency = higher solubility
157
High solubility = ___ (more/less) anesthetic needs to be dissolved = ___ (faster/slower) onset
More anesthetic needs to be dissolved = slower onset
158
MAC ___ (increases/decreases) as blood gas partition coefficient increases, generally speaking
Decreases
159
Meyer Overton = agents with ___ (increased/decreased) oil solubility have greater potency
Increased
160
Vander Waals—gas molecules have ___ volumes and gas molecules ___ one another
Finite volumes; gas molecules attract one another (intermolecular attractions)
161
What is this describing?—thermodynamic process that occurs when a fluid expands from high to low pressure at constant enthalpy (an isoenthalpic process), expanding a fluid from high to low pressure across a valve
Joule-Thompson Effect
162
JT Effect—under the right conditions, this can cause ___ of fluid
Cooling
163
Example of the Joule-Thompson Effect
N2O tanks—as the cylinder of compressed gas empties, the cylinder cools
164
What does this describe?—compression in which no heat is added to or subtracted from the air and the internal energy of the air is increased by an amount equivalent to the external work done on the air
Adiabatic compression
165
Adiabatic compression—increase in temp of the air during adiabatic compression tends to ___ (increase/decrease) the pressure on account of the decrease in volume alone
Increase pressure
166
pKa =
The pH at which 50% is ionized and 50% is nonionized
167
The stronger the acid, the weaker the ___
Conjugate base
168
The weaker the acid, the stronger the ___
Conjugate base
169
Water is ___—can behave as either an acid or a base
Amphoteric
170
Weak acid naming
- Sodium
- Calcium
- Magnesium
171
Examples of weak acid drugs
- Barbiturates
- Thiopental
- Propofol
172
Weak base naming
- ___ chloride
| - ___ sulfate
173
Examples of weak base drugs
- Lidocaine hydrochloride
- Morphine sulfate
- Versed
174
Nonionized drugs penetrate ___ and ___ barriers
Blood brain barrier and placental barrier
175
The greater the nonionized portion of a drug, the ___ (more/less) transfer to the brain and fetus
The more transfer to the brain and fetus
176
Because the fetus is in lower pH, the circulating non ionized drug crosses ___; once in the fetus, equilibrium is reestablished, with a greater % ___ and trapped in fetal circulation
Placental barrier; ionized
177
What is the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?
If (temp) A = B, and B = C, then A = C (thermal equilibrium, no heat flow will occur between them)
178
What is the 1st law of thermodynamics?
A change in the internal energy of a system results from energy transferred to an object from a higher temperature + work done on the object
179
Energy flows into the system
Endothermic
Q > 0
180
Energy flows out of the system
Exothermic
Q < 0
181
Work done BY the system
Expansion
W < 0
182
Work done ON the system
Compression
W > 0
183
2nd law of thermodynamics
“Entropy law”—heat flows spontaneously from a hot body to a cold body when they are brought into thermal contact; heat will flow until the two temps are equal
184
3rd law of thermodynamics
It is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero; there’s always some energy in the system
185
Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to...
Raise the temperature of 1 gram of material by one degree Celsius
186
Water has a very ___ (low/high) specific heat
HIGH—so a lot of energy must flow into water before its temperature will significantly change
187
Metals have a ___ (high/low) specific heat
Low specific heat
188
Materials with high specific heats are good ___
Thermal insulators because large amounts of heat cause only small changes in temperature (i.e.: water)
189
Materials with low specific heats are good ___
Thermal conductors (i.e.: metal pots)
190
___ is the heat required to raise the temperature of a given material
Heat capacity
191
Heat capacity = (formula)
Mass x specific heat
192
Radiation = ___%
40% (heat emitted from an object; requires no physical medium or contact)
193
Convection = ___%
30% (air above a heat source)
194
Conduction = ___%
20% (direct contact)
195
Evaporation = ___%
10% (heat loss through respiration/surgical prep)
196
Gases listed in order of decreasing potency
Iso > sevo > des > nitrous
197
Lipid solubility of a gas = ____; more lipid soluble = more ___ gas
Potency; more lipid soluble = more potent gas
198
Blood solubility of a gas determines ___
Onset of action (aka speed of induction/emergence)
199
Less blood soluble = ___ (slower/faster) onset/induction/emergence
Faster
200
As temperature goes down (i.e.: cold body), solubility of gas ___
Increases
201
N2O MAC value
104
202
Des MAC value
6
203
Sevo MAC value
2
204
Iso MAC value
1
205
Higher blood:gas ratio = ___ (less/more) blood soluble, agent stays in blood ___ (less/longer), ___ (faster/slower) induction (and vice versa)
More blood soluble, agent stays in blood longer, slower induction (and vice versa)
206
What type of flow is smooth, orderly, and what we strive for?
Laminar flow
207
What law relates to laminar flow?
Poiseuille’s law
208
What are 4 ways to increase flow through a tube (according to Poiseuille’s law)?
- Increase the pressure differential across the catheter (pressure gradient)
- Raise IV bag height/add a pressure bag (pressure gradient)
- Use larger gauge IV catheter
- Shorter catheter
209
Poiseuille’s law states that the LAMINAR flow rate of a fluid is proportional to the ___
Fourth power of the pipe’s radius!!! Applies to LAMINAR flow only!!!
210
Poseuille’s law applies to ___ flow only
Laminar
211
What are the two most important factors for laminar flow?
Radius and length
212
What is the MOST important factor for laminar flow?
Radius
213
What is turbulent flow?
Chaotic, abruptly changing
214
Turbulent flow is proportional to what 3 things?
- Density
- Diameter
- Velocity
215
Turbulent flow is INVERSELY proportional to ___
Viscosity
216
Laminar flow relates to ___
Viscosity
217
Turbulent flow relates to ___
Density
218
Increase in viscosity = ___ (increase/decrease) in laminar flow
Decrease in laminar flow
219
Decrease in viscosity = ___ (increase/decrease) in laminar flow
Increase in laminar flow
220
Change the ___ when you have turbulent flow
Density
221
___ the density to make flow less turbulent
Decrease density—i.e.: use a less dense gas for better flow
222
Viscosity = measure of a fluid’s ___
Resistance to flow
223
Fluids with a high viscosity ___
Do NOT flow very readily (and vice versa)
224
Reynold’s number is the measure of the tendency for ___ to occur
Turbulence
225
Reynold’s number > ___ = greater chance for turbulent flow
> 2000 = turbulence, even in a straight, smooth vessel!
226
What principle is the following?—pressure is exerted equally, regardless of the size of the container (i.e.: pressure exerted on a syringe, arterial blood pressure monitoring)
Pascal’s principle
227
Pressure =
Force/area
228
How can you increase pressure?
Increase force, decrease area
229
How can you decrease pressure?
Decrease force, increase area
230
Melting
Solid to liquid
231
Freezing
Liquid to solid
232
Vaporization
Liquid to gas
233
Condensation
Gas to liquid
234
Sublimation
Solid to gas
235
Deposition
Gas to solid
236
What are two types of covalent bonds?
- Non-polar
| - Polar
237
What type of covalent bond is this?—two atoms of IDENTICAL electronegativity are bonded together; results in NO partial charges
Non-polar covalent bond
238
What type of covalent bond is this?—two atoms of DIFFERENT electronegativity are bonded together; results in partial charges
Polar covalent bond
239
In polar bonds, the electrons spend more time around the ___ (more/less) electronegative atom; this creates ___
More electronegative; this creates partial charges
240
Polar bonds—the greater the difference in electronegativity between the two atoms, the more ___ the bond
More polar
241
What is Avogadro’s number?
6.022 x 10^23
242
Avogadro’s law states that the volume of gas is proportional to ___
The number of gas molecules (at equal temperatures and pressures)
243
What is R?
The universal gas constant
244
R (universal gas constant) describes the relationship between ___ and ___
Temperature and kinetic energy
245
R in SI units =
8.314 J/mol/K
246
Dipole-dipole attraction is the attraction between ___ charges on polar molecules
Opposite/partial charges
247
Dipolar attractions occur only between ___ molecules
Polar
248
London forces are AKA ___ forces
Vander Waals forces
249
Vander Waals forces are generally the ___ of the three intermolecular forces
Weakest
250
Why do vander Waals forces occur?
D/t an uneven distribution of electrons in a molecule
251
Larger molecules show ___ (less/more) London forces because large molecules have more electrons
More London forces
252
LaPlace’s law = the surface tension of a blood vessel is directly proportional to ___
The radius of the vessel—larger radius = more surface tension
253
LaPlace’s law and aneurysms—aneurysms ___ (increase/decrease) surface tension in blood vessels
Decrease surface tension (spherical bulge in the vessel wall, weaken part of the vessel, leading to rupture)
254
___ is the pressure exerted by the most energetic molecules escaping into the gas phase at the surface of a liquid
Vapor pressure
255
Vapor pressure increases with ___ (increasing/decreasing) temperature
Increasing temperature (direct relationship)
256
The greater the intermolecular forces, the ___ (lower/higher) the vapor pressure
Lower
257
___ is the tendency of a liquid to evaporate
Volatility
258
Volatility of a liquid increases with ___ (increasing/decreasing) temperature
Increasing
259
A more volatile liquid has a ___ (lower/higher) vapor pressure
HIGHER
260
A more volatile liquid has a ___ (lower/higher) boiling point
LOWER
261
___ is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the ambient pressure
Boiling point
262
Compounds with more intermolecular forces have ___ (lower/higher) boiling points
Higher
263
___ is the temperature at which the solid state reversibly passes into the liquid state
Melting point
264
Compounds with more intermolecular forces have ___ (lower/higher) melting points
Higher
265
Which anesthetic gas has the highest vapor pressure?
669 mm Hg
266
Cation
Positive ion
267
Anion
Negative ion
268
An ___ contains only one type of atom
Element
269
What are two types of mixtures?
Homogenous (uniform throughout)
| Heterogeneous (different components throughout)
270
___ and ___ are in the nucleus
Protons and neutrons
271
Atomic number (Z) =
Number of protons, determines identity
Example: Carbon Z = 6
272
Neutron number (N) =
Number of neutrons
273
Mass number (A) =
Z (atomic number) + N (neutron number)
274
Can the mass number ever be smaller than the atomic number?
NO!
275
Isotopes =
Same atomic number, different mass number (same number of protons, diff number of neutrons)
276
Elements with nearly full electron shells ___ electrons
Accept electrons; i.e.: anions
277
Elements with nearly empty electron shells ___ electrons
Release; i.e.: cations
278
Aluminum should be avoided in ___ patients
Dialysis—can build up and be toxic
279
Barium is used in ___
Radiographic GI studies
280
Calcium is important for ___, ___; found in ___, ___
Muscle contraction, bone stability; found in antacids, phosphate binders
281
Carbon is found in...
Activated charcoal—used in overdoses; also found in most compounds
282
Chlorine is used as a ___
Disinfectant (i.e.: Clorox, other cleaners)
283
Copper is a good ___
Conductor
284
What is fluorine used for?
Sodium fluoride strengthens teeth
285
Helium is used as ___
An MRI coolant
286
What is the most common atom in the universe? (> 95% of all known matter)
Hydrogen
287
Iodine is found in ___ and ___ medications
Topical antiseptics and anti thyroid medications
288
Iron is found in ___
Hemoglobin
289
Lithium is used as a ___
Mood stabilizer for bipolar patients
290
Magnesium is important for ___ conduction and ___ levels; ___ therapy; ___ (think bathroom)
Cardiac conduction and potassium levels; tocolytic therapy; laxatives
291
Which electrolyte should you replete first—potassium or magnesium?
Replete mag before potassium
292
Nitrogen is found in what inhalation agent? What % of the air is nitrogen?
Nitrous oxide (N2O); ~80% of air
293
Oxygen is important for ___ synthesis
ATP
294
Phosphorous is found in ___, ___, and ___
RNA, DNA, ATP
295
Low phosphorous levels may cause ___ bones and ___ failure
Brittle bones and respiratory failure
296
Phosphorous is supplemented in ___ forms with ___ or ___
Salt forms with sodium or potassium
297
Potassium is important for ___ contraction
Muscle
298
Potassium has an inverse relationship with ___
Insulin
299
Potassium is affected by ___ inhibitors, ___
ACE inhibitors, loop diuretics
300
Sodium is important for ___ stability, ___ balance
CNS stability, water balance
301
Titanium is found in ___
Prosthetic implants
302
Zinc is found in ___ lotion and ___block
Calamine lotion and sunblock
303
Zinc is important in ___
Wound healing
304
A colligative property depends only on the ___, not the identity of solute particles
Number of solute particles
305
Colligative property—the vapor pressure of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration
Decreases
306
Colligative property—the boiling point of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration
Increases
307
Colligative property—the freezing point of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration
Decreases
308
Colligative property—the osmotic pressure of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration
Increases
309
Which two elements are liquid?
Mercury and bromine
310
Which element melts in your hand?
Gallium
