Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

__________ hypothesis: Each gene is responsible for making one enzyme. It was expanded to include genes that produce proteins other than enzymes or to produce RNAs as final products.

A

One gene, one enzyme / one gene, one polypeptide

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2
Q

Genes _____ enzymes, because specific genetic defects results in specific enzymatic defects.

A

encode

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3
Q

Central Dogma refers to the flow of information from _____ to _____ to _____. However, sometimes information can flow from _____ back to _____.

A

DNA, RNA, proteins, RNA, DNA

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4
Q

What intracellular unit are proteins synthesized?

A

ribosomes

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5
Q

mRNA stands for _____ RNA or single stranded molecules of RNA. mRNA carries DNA from inside the _____ to _____.

A

messenger, nucleus, ribosomes

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6
Q

The process of using a DNA template to make an RNA molecule that has a base sequence complimentary to the DNA. DNA to RNA by RNA polymerase.

A

Transcription

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7
Q

The process of using info in mRNA to synthesize proteins. Information stored in mRNA is put into proteins by ribosomes.

A

Translation

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8
Q

How are DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase similar? How do they differ?

A

They use the DNA strand as a template to specify which complimentary nucleotide to add the the growing, newly synthesized strand. RNA polymerase does not require a primer.

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9
Q

(A) is the information carrier, (B) is the information storage, and (C) is the active cell machinery.

  • Proteins
  • mRNA
  • DNA
A

A) mRNA
B) DNA
C) Proteins

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10
Q

_____ is determined by the sequence of bases in DNA while it’s _____ is a product of the proteins it produces.

A

Genotype, Phenotype

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11
Q

A group of three bases that specify an amino acid

A

A codon

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12
Q

1 base code specifies ___ amino acide, 2 base codes specify ___ amino acids, and three base codes specify ___ amino acids, even though there are only ____ amino acids.

A

4, 16, 64, 20

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13
Q

A sequence of codons is referred to as:

A

the reading frame

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14
Q

Name the start codon, it’s corresponding amino acid, and the three stop codons.

A

AUG (methionine), UAA, UAG, UGA

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15
Q

All but two amino acids are coded for by more than one codon. The code is _____.

A

Redundant.

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16
Q

A given codon never codes for more than one amino acid. The code is _____.

A

Unambiguous

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17
Q

The template strands includes _____ while the non-template strand includes _____.

A

Thymine, Uracil

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18
Q

When the ribosome locks onto the first codon the reading frame is established. The code is _____.

A

non-overlapping

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19
Q

Codons usually specify the same amino acids in all organisms. The code is _____.

A

Nearly universal

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20
Q

The first two bases in a codon are usually identical when several codons specify the same amino acid. The code is _____.

A

Conservative

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21
Q

A mutation that alters the sequence of one or a small number of base pairs.

A

Point mutation

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22
Q

Point mutations that change the identity of an amino acid in a protein.

A

Missence mutations

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23
Q

Mutations that shift the reading frame.

A

Frameshift mutations

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24
Q

Mutations that occur when a codon that specifies an amino acid is changed by mutation to an amino acid that specifies a stop codon, causing early termination of the polypeptide chain and results in a non-functional protein.

A

Nonsense mutations

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25
Q

Mutations are random changes in _____.

A

genotype

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26
Q

_____ mutations are neutral, _____ mutations can be beneficial, neutral, or deletrious, and _____ and _____ mutations are often or always deletrious.

A

silent, missence, frameshift, nonsense

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27
Q

_____ refers to having more than 2 of each chromosome, while _____ is the addition or deletion of individual chromosomes.

A

polyploidy, aneuploidy

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28
Q

When chromosomes form breaks, segments can detach. When those segments are flipped and rejoined to the same chromosome it is called chromosome _____. When those segments attach to a different chromosome it is called chromosome _____.

A

Inversion, translocation

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29
Q

Mutations producing polyploidy or aneuploidy don’t change _____ _____, but they do cause permanent change in an organisms DNA by altering the _____ of _____ of each sequence.

A

DNA sequence, number of copies

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30
Q

_____ contain sulfur and not phosphorus, while _____ contains phosphorus but not sulfur.

A

Proteins, DNA

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31
Q

Do viral genes consist of DNA, protein, or both?

A

DNA

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32
Q

_____ bonds form between stabilizing complimentary base pairs (A and T - C and G), and _____ interactions between bases in the double helix also stabilize DNA.

A

Hydrogen, hydrophobic

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33
Q

What is the basis of DNA replication?

A

Complimentary base pairing

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34
Q

Does DNA replicate by semiconservative replication, conservative replication, or dispersive replication?

A

semiconservative replication

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35
Q

Are polymerization reactions endergonic or exergonic?What about the formation of phosphodiester bonds?

A

Endergonic at first, but the formation of phosphodiester bonds in a DNA strand is exergonic.

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36
Q

DNA synthesis proceeds in the _____ direction.

A

5’S3’

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37
Q

What raises the potential energy of deoxyribonucleotid monomers?

A

Reactions that add 2 phosphate groups to form dNTPs.

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38
Q

Y shaped region where parental DNA synthesis is bidirectional and where active DNA synthesis occurs.

A

Replication Fork

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39
Q

Enzyme that breaks hydrogen bonds between base pairs in that location and opens up double helix causing two strands of DNA to separate at the replication fork.

A

DNA helicase

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40
Q

A protein that attaches separate strands of DNA during replication, preventing the reformation of a double helix.

A

(Single strand DNA-binding proteins) SSBPs

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41
Q

RNA strands a dozen nucleotides long that form complimentary base pairs with DNA template strands.

A

primers

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42
Q

_____ supply the 3’ hydoxyl end for DNA polymerase.

A

primers

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43
Q

An enzyme that synthesizes the short stretch of RNA and acts as a primer for DNA polymerase before DNA synthesis begins.

A

Primase

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44
Q

_____ and other _____ polymerase do not require a primer to begin synthesis. ____ does require a primer to begin synthesis.

A

Primase, RNA, DNA

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45
Q

What step proceeds the DNA ligase enzyme catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent okazaki fragments?

A

The RNA primer must be removed and replaced by DNA

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46
Q

What causes the DNA labelled in the pulse-chase study to become longer during the chase?

A

The action of DNA polymerase I followed by DNA ligase

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47
Q

What is a replisome?

A

It’s a macromolecular machine that copies DNA. Most enzymes join here (DNA polymerase, helicase, primase, etc.)

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48
Q

The very end of a eukaryotic chromosome is called a

A

telomere

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49
Q

The _____ strand synthesis results in a double stranded copy of the DNA molecule.

A

leading

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50
Q

_____ catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from the RNA template that it contains, adding DNA to the END of the chromosome to lengthen it and to stop it from shortening.

A

Telomerase

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51
Q

DNA is synthesized from the ___‘-OH of a single strand, and the leading strand moves in a ___’ S ___’ direction.

A

3, 5, 3

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52
Q

Telomerase is primarily found in human cells that produce _____.

A

Gametes

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53
Q

Chromosomes of somatic cells gradually shorten with _____ cell division and become smaller as an individual ages.

A

mitotic

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54
Q

DNA polymerase speeds along the DNA template and _____ bonding occurs between incoming deoxyribonucleotides and the ones on the template strand. The ability of DNA polymerase to _____ results in an error rate of 1 in a billion.

A

hydrogen, proofread

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55
Q

The enzyme that removes deoxyribonucleotides from the end of DNA strands.

A

exonuclease

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56
Q

DNA damage by uv light or chemicals causes a _____ to form between adjacent pyrimidine bases and a _____ to form in the DNA’s structure, leading to the stall of DNA _____ and replication.

A

bond, kink, polymerase

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57
Q

_____ _____ repair replaces damaged pyrimidine bases and replaces them with newly synthesized DNA..

A

nucleotide excision

58
Q

How do NTPs differ from dNTPs?

A

NTPs have a hydroxyl group on the two carbon

59
Q

NTP matches a base on the DNA template, and RNA polymerase catalyzes a rxn that cleaves off two phosphates to form a phosphodiester linkage between the 3’ end of a growing mRNA chain and the new ribonucleoside monophosphate. This process is called:

A

Transcription

60
Q

The sigma protein binds to RNA polymerase to form a holoenzyme during what phase of bacterial transcription?

A

initiation

61
Q

RNA polymerase contains the __________ for catalysis.

A

active site

62
Q

Regions of DNA that initiate the start of transcription.

A

Promoters

63
Q

RNA polymerase moves _____ during transcription, while antiparallel DNA moves _____.

A

downstream, upstream

64
Q

In bacteria, _ _ _ _ _ _ (a.k.a. the -10 box) is centered 10 bases (up/down)stream from the transcription start site.

A

TATAAT - upstream

65
Q

In bacteria, _ _ _ _ _ _ (a.k.a. the -35 box) is located 35 bases (up/down)stream from the transcription site.

A

TTGACA - upstream

66
Q

When sigma, as part of the holoenzyme, binds to -35 and -10 boxes in DNA in one direction, and RNA polymerase opens DNA helix to create two separate strands of DNA (a.k.a. the _____ _____) initiation begins in

A

transcription bubble

67
Q

Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific locations. The resulting DNA fragments can be inserted into plasmids or other vectors with the help of DNA _____.

A

Ligase

68
Q

The __________ produces many identical copies of a gene by repeated rounds of DNA synthesis without using cells for cloning. It depends on having primers that bracket a target stretch of DNA.

A

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

69
Q

There is a huge amount of genetic _____ in prokaryotic genomes, even among different strains of the same species

A

diversity

70
Q

_____ gene transfer is common in prokaryotes and is an important source of new genes in many species

A

Lateral

71
Q

Because of _____ _____, the number of distinct transcripts produced in many eukaryotes is larger than the gene number

A

alternative splicing

72
Q

Gene _____ has been an important source of new genes in eukaryotes

A

duplication

73
Q

Much of the eukaryotic genome is transcribed, but the function of most noncoding transcripts is _____.

A

unknown

74
Q

a circular DNA molecule that replicates independently of the main chromosome(s)

A

Plasmid (bacterial)

75
Q

Bacterial enzyme that cuts DNA molecules at specific base sequences called recognition sites for later insertion into cloning vector. In nature they cut up viral DNA and prevent fatal infection.

A

Restriction endonuclease

76
Q

Enzyme that catalyzes the formation of RNA from a DNA template during translation. It can result in single or double stranded DNA.

A

Reverse transcriptase

77
Q

DNA produced from RNA is called:

A

cDNA (complimentary)

78
Q

In vitro DNA synthesis rxn that uses DNA polymerase to replicate specific sections of DNA over and over.

A

PCR (polymerase chain rxn)

79
Q

Each _____ repeats a set of 3 steps referred to as a cycle. Each cycle doubles the number of target sequences. Each synthesized strand of DNA serves as a template in the next cycle.

A

PCR

80
Q

__________ are used in fingerprint analysis. Different people have different amounts of repeats.

A

STRs (short tandem repeats)

81
Q

Segment of DNA that regulates the production of and codes for functional RNA or a protein product.

A

Gene

82
Q

DNA segments that can insert into new locations in a genome/ repetitive DNA. They typically don’t leave their host cell but make copies of themselves that become inserted into new locations. They become part of the genome and pass from mother to daughter.

A

Transposable elements

83
Q

__________ makes it possible for a small number of genes to produce a much larger set of proteins.

A

Alternative splicing

84
Q

The default state of transcription in eukaryotes is _____ because DNA is tightly packed, while the default state of transcription in prokaryotes is _____ because it is not tightly packed.

A

Off, on

85
Q

Control of transcription initiation is more elaborate in (prokaryotes/eukaryotes):

A

Eukaryotes

86
Q

_____ rely on operons and _____ rely on regulons.

A

Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes

87
Q

a group of genes that are regulated as a unit, generally controlled by the same regulatory gene that expresses a protein acting as a repressor or activator:

A

Regulons

88
Q

a functioning unit of DNA containing a cluster of bacterial genes under the control of a single promoter:. They are transcribed together into one mRNA.

A

operons

89
Q

Ubiquitin tagging controls a protein’s _____ _____ while phosphorylation controls a protein’s _____.

A

life span, activity

90
Q

Groups of transcription factor binding sites called _____ and _____ can turn a gene on/off in specific parts of the body

A

enhancers and silencers

91
Q

proteins that help turn specific genes “on” or “off” by binding to nearby DNA. They are what make a liver cell a liver cell.

A

Transcription factors

92
Q

In a multicellular eukaryote, cells are different because they ­_____ different genes, not because they _____ different genes”

A

express, have

93
Q

_____ _____ is regulated at six levels: Chromatin has to be remodeled, the transcription of specific genes may be initiated or repressed, pre-mRNAs may be spliced in different ways to produce different mRNAs, the life span of specific mRNAs may be extended or shortened, translation rate may be controlled, and the life span or activity of particular proteins may be altered.

A

Gene expression

94
Q

The state of chromatin condensation depends on the _____ of cytosines in DNA, on _____ and other modifications of histones, and on molecular machines called chromatin-remodeling complexes that remove _____ from stretches of DNA.

A

methylation, acetylation, nucleosomes

95
Q

Regulatory transcription factors can be activators or repressors; these bind to regulatory sequences—either (1) promoter-proximal sequences that are _____ promoters or (2) enhancers and silencers that are often located _____ core promoters.

A

close to, far from

96
Q

Interactions between regulatory and general transcription factors occur through a complex of proteins called _____. This leads to the positioning of RNA polymerase at the core promoter and the start of transcription

A

Mediator

97
Q

Once transcription is _____, gene expression is controlled by (1) alternative splicing, (2) global regulation of translation, (3) RNA interference, and (4) activation or inactivation of protein products

A

completed

98
Q

Alternative splicing allows a single gene to produce more than one version of an _____ and more than one kind of _____.

A

mRNA, protein

99
Q

RNA _____ occurs when a tiny strand of RNA held by the protein complex RISC binds to a complementary mRNA. This marks the mRNA for destruction or prevents its translation. MicroRNAs (miRNAs) derived from processed transcripts of cellular genes play an important role.

A

interference

100
Q

Once translation occurs, proteins may be activated or inactivated by the addition or removal of chemical groups such as _____, or marked for destruction in the proteasome by the addition of copies of a polypeptide known as _____.

A

phosphates, ubiquitin

101
Q

When HDACs rmove acetyl groups from histones it leads to condensed chromatin and no _____. HATs are the _____ switch and HDACs are the _____ switch.

A

transcription, on, off

102
Q

_____ add acetyl groups to lysine residues in histones, and _____ remove acetyl groups from lysine residues in histones.

A

HATs, HDACs

103
Q

Enhancers and silencers are _____ _____ for activators and repressors.

A

binding sites

104
Q

Protein synthesis doesn’t occur without _____ which acts as an interpreter during translation. They also decode codons

A

tRNA

105
Q

5 prime refers to a _____ group attached to the 5 carbon of the deoxyribose sugar, and 3 prime refers to the _____ group on the 3 carbon of the sugar. In ribonucleotides, there is a hydroxyl group located on the ___ carbon sugar.

A

Phosphate, hydroxyl, 2

106
Q

_____ is in front of the replication fork relieving tension, _____ is generating the replication fork, and _____ primase is synthesizing initiation of DNA for DNA polymerase by putting down multiple RNA primers. DNA polymerase fills in the gaps with _____ _____. _____ _____ covalently links each new okazaki fragment.

A

Topoisomerase, helicase, RNA, Okazaki fragments, DNA ligase

107
Q

DNA polymerase (I, II, III) is responsible for doing most of the leading strand sythesis and some of the lagging strand synthesis. DNA polymerase (I, II, III) is responsible for getting rid of the DNA primers in the lagging strand.

A

III, I

108
Q

Splicing (via splisosomes) occurs (before/after) the mRNA is sent out from the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

A

before

109
Q

tRNAs have an _____ sequence that recognizes codons in mRNA. tRNAs have a specific __________ attached to it by an aminoacetyl tRNA synthase.

A

anti-codon, amino acid

110
Q

lactose operon turned off in E. coli by regulatory protein lac___. It does this by binding inbetween the gene and promoter and blocking transcription of the gene by RNA polymerase. The operon is turned on by the regulatory protein called the ___ protein which helps RNA polymerase initiate transcription. Transcription happens automatically if there is no lac___ around.

A

I, CAP, I.

111
Q

When lactose (is/is not) present, repressor protein is bound to DNA. When lactose (is/is not) present without glucose present, lactose itself binds to repressor protein and prevents it from interacting with DNA to block transcription.

A

is not, is

112
Q

When enough _____ is present it helps to block synthesis of tryptophan. It helps to shut the system down so there is not a waste of energy.

A

tryptophan

113
Q

If lactose is present it makes the repressor fall off so that a cell can make enzymes for breaking down lactose and getting glucose out. This is (anabolic, catabolic). When tryptophan is present, it makes the repressor bind to the system that is involved in synthesizing tryptophan. This is (anabolic, catabolic)

A

Catabolic, Anabolic.

114
Q

Operon is shut down when glucose is present. The repressor protein is _____ during high levels of glucose. When glucose and lactose are both present, the repressor protein falls off, but glucose is _____ the cAMP formation. If only lactose is present, the repressor falls off the operator sequence and cAMP [ ] are _____ and CAP protein helps activate transcription.

A

bound, inhibiting, higher

115
Q

deacetylase helps to _____ the DNA, while histone acetyl transferase helps to _____ the DNA.

A

condense, unwind

116
Q

When lactose is _____, the lacI gene shuts down expressions of lacZ and lacY. when lactose is _____, transcription of lacZ and lacY is induced.

A

absent, present

117
Q

Cells initiate mitosis in response to ___.

A

M-phase promoting factor

118
Q

__________ divide to produce daughter cells that remain a stem cell and another daughter cell that ultimately differentiates into a specialized cell type. This way cells are maintained.

A

Stem cell

119
Q

Two mechanisms for specifying cell fate are cytoplasmic determinants and induction. All organisms use _____.

A

induction

120
Q

_____ _____ are regulatory molecules that become unequally distributed among cells after division and affect the activity of genes. When located in one region it causes one daughter cell to obtain “it” while the other does not.

A

Cytoplasmic Determinants

121
Q

_____ works through cell-cell interactions. One daughter cell receives a signal that the other does not.

A

Induction

122
Q

In _____, cells do not move, but the direction in which cells divide and expand form parts of it. In _____, cells break away from original sites and migrate to locations across an embryo and give rise to germ cells.

A

Plants, animals

123
Q

Cells in plants and animals are genetically _____. Cellular differentiation results from differential gene _____.

A

equivalent, expression

124
Q

What is the most important gene expression regulation because of its efficiency?

A

Transcriptional control

125
Q

If a molecule signals a target cell is in the head, tail, dorsel, or ventral sides of an embryo, that molecule is involved in _____ _____.

A

Pattern formation

126
Q

_____ play central roles in setting up the body axes.

A

Morphins

127
Q

_____ are genes that code for morphogens that tell a cell where they are along the anterior-posterior body axis. _____ are similar, but they are produced in an embryo’s meristem cells. High [ ] signals that a cell is at the top while low [ ] signals that a cell is at the bottom.

A

bicoid, auxin

128
Q

A set of regulatory genes linked in a way that one initially activated gene turns on the expression of other regulatory genes, triggering the expression of more regulatory genes. It also establishes positions and identities of structures along anterior to posterior axis.:

A

Genetic regulatory cascade

129
Q

What is the correct order of undifferentiated cells to differentiated cells?

A) Morphogens, Gap genes, Hox genes, Expression of effector genes, Pair rule genes, and segment polarity genes.
B) Morphogens, Gap genes, Pair rule genes, segment polarity genes, Hox genes, and Expression of effector genes.
C) Gap genes, Morphogens, Hox genes, Pair rule genes, segment polarity genes, and Expression of effector genes.
D) Gap genes, Morphogens, Pair rule genes, segment polarity genes, Hox genes, and Expression of effector genes.

A

D

130
Q

_____ genes specify each segments identity

A

Hox

131
Q

_____ mutations that cause one body part to be substituted for another. Hox genes give segments a unique identity.

A

homeotic

132
Q

Order of hox genes along chromosome correspond to the order of where genes are expressed along _____ to _____ axis.

A

Anterior to posterior

133
Q

All animals possess related sets of _____ genes, and they’re organized in clusters in order aligned with dresophelia genes.

A

hox

134
Q

Conserved sets of genes that code for signal proteins, signal transduction pathway components, and regulatory transcription factors directing related aspects of development in many different species:

A

Tool-kit genes (ex. hox genes)

135
Q

Mutations of _____ sequences of DNA determine how tool-kit genes are used.

A

regulatory

136
Q

_____ of embryonic cells is weak and can be reversed. Only over time when cells become deeply _____ is it irreversible.

A

Commitment, committed

137
Q

Shortly after _____, a cell has not yet acquired specialized features of a differentiated cell.

A

determination

138
Q

_____ cells are partially de-differentiated

A

cancer

139
Q

A gene or protein that can unleash a series of events that produce specialized cell types, tissue, or body structures. (ex. MyoD) :

A

master regulator

140
Q

Adult cells that can be made embryonic. The hope is that specialized cells derived from these _____ cells can be introduced back into defective organs to restore its function.

A

IPS