Final exam review (?'s from quizzes and past tests) Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

What muscle would be most involved in raising the horse’s head and neck?

A

Splenius

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2
Q

The ossification of the lateral cartilages

A

sidebone

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3
Q

A bony growth at the joints of either the long and short pastern bones (high) or the short pastern bone and the coffin bone (low)

A

ringbone

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4
Q

The drug Lasix can help with what condition? (hint- this drug increases urination, which would be helpful because it decreases the blood volume and therefore can decrease pressure in the vessels)

A

EIPH (Exercise Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage)

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5
Q

Examples of flexor tendons

A

deep digital and superficial digital flexor tendon

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6
Q

Which system is most involved in temperature regulation in the horse?

A

skin and coat

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7
Q

tendons attach

A

muscle to bone

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8
Q

What is the name of the specialized reflective structure at the back of the horse’s eye that allows them to have excellent night vision?

A

Tapetum lucidum

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9
Q

The vertebrae of the horse’s neck which are specialized to allow for increased movement are called the:

A

Cervical vertebrae

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10
Q

When the nutrients pass into the bloodstream from the gastrointestinal tract

A

absorption

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11
Q

Breakdown of feed into smaller particles

A

digestion

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12
Q

What is the most important feedstuff in your horse’s diet

A

forage

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13
Q

What mineral is required for normal thyroid function

A

Iodine

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14
Q

Feeding a straight legume hay would be most suitable for what type of horse?

A

lactating mare (needs more protein and Ca)

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15
Q

Polysaccharide storage myopathy is a condition where

A

the glycogen in the muscle is abnormal

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16
Q

Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism of what?

A

carbohydrates

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17
Q

Becoming more responsive to a stimulus as a result of experience

A

Sensitization

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18
Q

When should imprint training be performed?

A

During the first 48-96 hours of life

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19
Q

Effective ways to prevent horses from developing stereotypies

A

Oral enrichment
Increase turn-out time
Allow social interaction with other horses

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20
Q

When an established behavior occurs in response to a new stimulus

A

Classical conditioning

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21
Q

Horses are prey animals and therefore are

A

Flight animals (flee when they face danger)

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22
Q

Advantages to bands in wild horses

A

Protection of food sources
Genetic diversity
Protection from predators

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23
Q

What situation is most likely to cause a horse to tear while being handled or ridden by a human?

A

When the horse feels cornered or trapped

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24
Q

An example of negative reinforcement

A

Using a rump rope to teach a horse to lead (rope applies pressure to hind quarters when the horse is not leading/following along)

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25
Under North Carolina law, an equine professional is not liable for the death of a participant in equine activities resulting exclusively from the inherent risks of equine activities T/F
True
26
What's important for a boarding contract? (4 things)
barn rules/ health requirements (Negative coggins) cost of board per month emergency contact info Insurance info/ liability
27
Approximately how many pounds of waste (manure, urine, bedding) do horses produce in a day?
100 lbs
28
Methods to weaning a foal (5)
cold turkey (sudden removal of mare from foal) physical separation time separation (remove mare for a few hours at a time with increasing lengths) single remover (remove one mare at a time) babysitter (removing mare from foal and replacing with babysitter)
29
How tall should horse fences be? (at least)
4' 8''
30
What is the normal time to wean a horse at a breeding facility?
4-8 months
31
Approximately how much manure does a 1000 lb horse produce per day?
50 lbs
32
Approximately how much urine does a 1000 lb horse produce per day
6 to 10 lbs
33
Costs that change periodically based on circumstances are called
variable costs
34
A horse with a club foot has
Short upright hoof and pastern angles
35
What is the term used to describe when the lower jaw is juts out farther than the upper jaw?
monkey mouth
36
the term used in class to describe when the rear foot strikes the front foot on the same side of the body, and is also called over-reaching
forging or over-reaching
37
What is the footfall order of a right lead canter?
Left hind, Right hind and Left front together, Right front
38
the distance between imprints of the two front feet (or two hind feet)
steps
39
What should the shoulder angle be? (angle to the ground or horizon)
45
40
An Arabian breed of horse most likely has which of the following hindquarter conformations?
level croup
41
A horse with too much angle to its hock is said to be:
sickle hocked
42
Cannons fail to come from the center of the knees (front view)
bench knees
43
Horse stands with point of hocks turned inward, base wide and splay footed (back view)
cow hocked
44
What movement fault would most likely occur in pacers
cross firing
45
What is the approximate stride of a 16 hh horse at the canter (used when designing jumping courses)?
12 ft
46
What is another phrase to describe a horse that is buck kneed in front? (side view)
over at the knee
47
What is the term used to describe when the upper jaw is juts out farther than the lower jaw?
parrot mouth
48
If a mare has the genotype Ee and the sire has the genotype EE, what is the percentage chance that a foal would be EE?
50%
49
How many chromosome pairs do horses have?
32
50
If two palominos are bred, what are the chances of getting a cremello?
25%
51
If you breed a horse that displays mild signs of HYPP to a horse with no signs, what is the chance you'd have a foal that could show mild signs of HYPP?
50%
52
If you breed a cremello and a chestnut, what are the chances of getting a palomino foal?
100%
53
The recipient mare for embryo transfer should be high quality because her genetic material is also passed to the foal T/F
False; the recipient mare's genetic material is not passed to the foal
54
Which disease results in no immunity for a foal?
CID (combined immunodeficiency disorder)
55
The allele "G" when dominant produces what color of horse?
gray
56
``` Which of the following traits would have the highest heritability? Select one: Height Fertility Trotting earnings Conformation ```
Height
57
If you breed 2 cremellos, what are the chances you'd get a palomino?
0%
58
the structure that forms inside the uterus that the fetus develops in, that must be expelled during the 3rd stage of parturition.
placenta
59
Give an example of an accessory sex gland of the stallion
cowper's gland
60
What is the term used to describe when a horse is "in heat"
estrus
61
What is it called when one testicle does not descend and remains inside the body?
ridgling or cryptorchid
62
Appaloosas must have what three traits?
mottled skin sclera of eye visible striped hooves
63
Origin of Lipizzaner breed
Spain
64
Origin of Dutch Warmblood breed
Netherlands
65
Origin of Morgan breed
U.S.A
66
Origin of Thoroughbred breed
England
67
Origin of Clydesdale
Scotland
68
A pale cream or light tan body color, slightly darker mane with a reddish tinge and having blue eyes
Perlino
69
What breed can both pace and trot
Standardbred
70
Foundation sires of thoroughbreds
Darley Arabian, Godolphin Arabian, Byerly Turk
71
What are the key extensor tendons?
common digital and lateral digital extensor tendons
72
How often should a horse get their teeth "floated"
1 to 2 years