Final Exam - Weeks 1 & 2 Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
Why are research approaches and evidence-based practice important for OT’s? (Link back to the CAOT position statement)
A
The Canadian Association of Occupational Therapists (CAOT) recognizes that a strong health system is guided by evidence-informed decision making.
Research evidence is essential to advance the knowledge related to occupation as a determinant of health and occupational therapy as an essential health service in every community.
2
Q
Describe the FAME acronym in relation to evidence-based practice.
A
When making clinical decisions, health professionals are concerned with whether their approach is Feasible, Appropriate, Meaningful and Effective (FAME).
3
Q
Evidence-based practice involves decision-making that considers the _______________, __________________, ________________, and _________________________ of practices. The best available evidence, the context in which the care is delivered, the individual patient and professional judgement and expertise of the health professional inform this process.
A
Feasibility, appropriateness, meaningfulness, and effectiveness (FAME).
4
Q
Explain what feasibility means in the FAME acronym.
A
Feasibility is the extent to which an activity is practical and practicable. Clinical feasibility refers to whether or not an activity or intervention is physically, culturally or financially practical or possible within a given context.
(Feasibility=practical and/or possible within a given context?)
5
Q
Explain what appropriateness means in the FAME acronym.
A
Appropriateness is the extent to which an intervention or activity fits with or is apt in a situation. Clinical appropriateness is about how an activity or intervention relates to the cultural or ethical context in which care is given.
(Appropriateness=relatability to cultural or ethical context)
6
Q
Explain what meaningfulness means in the FAME acronym.
A
Meaningfulness refers to the meanings clients associate with an intervention or activity as a result of their experience of it. Meaningfulness relates to the personal experience, opinions, values, thoughts, beliefs, and interpretations of clients.
(Meaningfulness=personal experience and interpretations of clients)
7
Q
Explain what effectiveness means in the FAME acronym.
A
Effectiveness is the extent to which an intervention, when used appropriately, achieves the intended effect. Clinical effectiveness is about the relationship between an intervention and clinical or health outcomes.
(Effectiveness=relationship between intervention and clinical/health outcomes)
8
Q
As a clinician, name some ways you can be involved in research.
A
Producing research, collaborating with researchers, consuming research, advocating for new research, and program evaluation.
9
Q
Explain how research may influence occupational therapy practice.
A
Research may be used to validate tests and assessments used in practice, examine how OTs use clinical reasoning, evaluate the effectiveness of interventions, advocacy and inspiring of change through participatory research.
10
Q
_______ relates to how close study results are to the truth, specifically in connection to study design.
A
Bias
11
Q
________ is related to remaining uncertainty in results (specifically in connection to sample size).
A
Precision
12
Q
Association and causation are the same thing, true or false?
A
False!
Association refers to a statistical relationship between two variables, where a change in one variable is associated with a change in another variable. In other words, when two variables are correlated, we say that they are associated with each other.
Causation refers to a relationship between two variables where one variable directly causes the other variable to change. In other words, causation implies that a change in one variable leads to a change in another variable.
The difference between association and causation is that association simply means that two variables are related, while causation implies that one variable causes the other to change. It is possible for two variables to be associated without one causing the other.
13
Q
Explain what a research paradigm is.
A
Research paradigms are broad philosophical frameworks or approaches that researchers use to guide their investigations. They are a set of shared assumptions, methods, and procedures that help researchers define their research questions, identify appropriate research methods, and interpret their findings.
14
Q
These varying definitions refer to _______________.
“sets of beliefs and practices, shared by communities of researchers, which regulate inquiry within disciplines”
“sets of philosophical underpinnings from which specific research approaches flow”
“identification of the underlying basis that is used to construct a scientific investigation”
A
Research paradigms.
15
Q
Explain a positivist paradigm.
A
Positivism is a research paradigm that assumes that there is an objective reality that can be observed and measured through quantitative methods.
It is based on the idea that knowledge is acquired through empirical observation and scientific inquiry, and that the goal of research is to discover universal laws and generalizations that can be applied to different contexts.
“knowledge is discovered and verified through direct observations or measurements of phenomena”
16
Q
What research paradigm is being described? “knowledge is discovered and verified through direct observations or measurements of phenomena”
A
Positivist.
17
Q
In a positivist research paradigm is the researcher independent of the study participant?
A
Yes.
18
Q
What research paradigm is being described? “knowledge is established through the meaning attached to the phenomena studied”
A
A naturalistic paradigm.
19
Q
Explain a naturalistic research paradigm.
A
A naturalistic research paradigm is a research approach that assumes that reality is subjective and that it is constructed by individuals through their own experiences and interpretations. In a naturalistic paradigm, the researcher seeks to understand the subjective experiences and meanings that individuals attach to their world, rather than identifying universal laws and generalizations.
20
Q
In a naturalistic research paradigm, research questions are framed in terms of how individuals experience and interpret their world. Data is collected using _______________ methods such as interviews, observations, and document analysis, and is analyzed using interpretive techniques such as content analysis or narrative analysis.
A
Qualitative
21
Q
In a positivist research paradigm, research questions are framed as hypotheses that can be tested through ________________ or ____________. Data is collected through objective and standardized methods, such as surveys, experiments, or observations, and analyzed using statistical techniques to identify patterns and relationships.
A
experimentation or statistical analysis.
22
Q
Naturalistic research has been criticized for its emphasis on subjectivity and lack of generalizability, which can limit the…
A
applicability of findings to different contexts or populations.
(Naturalistic = interpretivist = qualitative)
23
Q
Positivist research has been criticized for its focus on objectivity and quantification, which can lead to…
A
oversimplification of complex phenomena and neglect of subjective experiences.
(Positivist = generalist = quantitative)
24
Q
If you follow a positivist paradigm, the goal of the study is to identify one set of results (one true reality) that can be ___________________ to a larger population.
A
generalizable
25
If you follow a __________ paradigm, you may interview only a handful of clients for longer periods of time to understand multiple meanings of a phenomenon in the minds of people who experience it, the researcher neither attempts to unearth a single "truth" from the realities of participants nor tries to achieve outside verification of his or her analysis.
Naturalist
26
______________________ refers to the systematic and theoretical analysis of the methods or procedures used to conduct research or solve a problem. It is the process of selecting and using appropriate methods, techniques, and procedures to collect, analyze, and interpret data, and to draw conclusions based on the findings.
Methodology
27
Qualitative = _____________ paradigm = r_________
Quantitative = _____________paradigm = r_________
Qualitative = naturalist = relativism
Quantitative = positivist = realism
28
___________________ involves the selection of methodological tools that are most appropriate for solving a knowledge problem, is driven by the research question, and can be equally qualitative and quantitative or weighted more to one than the other.
Mixed methods design
29
Research questions can be classified into three different levels based on their scope and specificity: __________, ___________and ___________.
descriptive, relational, and causal.
30
Explain descriptive research questions.
These questions aim to describe a phenomenon or a population. They seek to provide a detailed and comprehensive account of a particular aspect of the world, such as behavior, and event, or a group of people.
Descriptive research questions typically start with words such as "what", "who", "where", "when" and "how many".
31
The following is an example of what type of research question?
"What percentage of the population owns a smartphone?"
Descriptive.
32
Explain relational research questions.
These questions aim to explore the relationship between two or more variables. They seek to understand how changes in one variable affect changes in another variable, or how two variables are related to each other. Relational research questions typically start with "what is the relationship between," "what is the effect of," or "how does X affect Y."
33
The following is an example of what type of research question?
"What is the relationship between stress and job performance?"
Relational.
34
The following is an example of what type of research question?
"Does regular exercise lead to better mental health?"
Causal.
35
Explain causal research questions.
These questions aim to establish a cause-and-effect relationship between two or more variables. They seek to determine whether changes in one variable cause changes in another variable, or whether there is a direct or indirect causal relationship between two or more variables. Causal research questions typically start with words such as "does X cause Y," "what is the effect of X on Y," or "how does X lead to Y."
36
Name the 3 levels of research questions:
Level 1:______________
Level 2:______________
Level 3:______________
1: Descriptive
2: Relational
3: Causal
(DRC)
37
Explain the Nuremberg code and how it relates to research ethics.
The Nuremberg code is a set of ethical guidelines developed in response to the unethical medical experiments conducted by Nazi doctors during World War II. It was developed in 1947 by an international tribunal at the Nuremberg trials, and it established the principles of informed consent and ethical research involving human subjects.
The Nuremberg code has ten principles, including:
1. The voluntary consent of the human subject is absolutely essential.
2. The experiment should be designed to yield results for the good of society, unprocurable by other methods.
3. The experiment should be conducted only by scientifically qualified persons.
4. The subject should be at liberty to bring the experiment to an end if he has reached the physical or mental state where continuation of the experiment seems to him to be impossible.
The Nuremberg code established the principles of informed consent, voluntary participation, and protection of human subjects from harm in research. It has been a significant influence on the development of research ethics guidelines and regulations around the world, including the Declaration of Helsinki and the Belmont Report.
Today, the Nuremberg code serves as a foundation for ethical conduct in research involving human subjects, and it is used as a reference point in discussions and debates about research ethics. Its principles continue to be relevant and essential for protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in research.
38
Explain the Declaration of Helsinki and how it relates to research ethics.
The Declaration of Helsinki is a set of ethical guidelines that provide guidance for physicians and other researchers conducting biomedical research involving human subjects. It was first developed in 1964 by the World Medical Association and has been revised several times since then, with the most recent version being adopted in 2013.
The Declaration of Helsinki outlines the ethical principles that should guide research involving human subjects, including the requirement for informed consent, the need to protect the privacy and confidentiality of research participants, the importance of ensuring that risks are minimized and benefits are maximized, and the obligation to conduct research in accordance with accepted scientific and ethical principles.
One of the key contributions of the Declaration of Helsinki to research ethics is its emphasis on the importance of protecting vulnerable populations, such as children, prisoners, pregnant women, and individuals with impaired decision-making capacity. The Declaration requires that additional safeguards be put in place to protect these groups from exploitation and harm in research.
The Declaration of Helsinki has been influential in shaping research ethics guidelines and regulations around the world, and it has played a significant role in promoting ethical conduct in biomedical research involving human subjects. It is often used as a reference point in discussions and debates about research ethics, and its principles continue to be relevant and important for protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in research.
39
Explain the Belmont report and how it relates to research ethics.
The Belmont Report is a document that provides ethical guidelines for research involving human subjects in the United States. It was developed by the National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research in 1979, in response to the unethical medical experiments conducted during the 20th century.
The Belmont Report outlines three ethical principles that should guide research involving human subjects: respect for persons, beneficence, and justice. Respect for persons means that individuals should be treated as autonomous agents capable of making informed decisions about their participation in research. Beneficence means that research should maximize benefits and minimize harms to participants. Justice means that the benefits and burdens of research should be distributed fairly.
The Belmont Report has been influential in shaping research ethics guidelines and regulations in the United States, and it has played a significant role in promoting ethical conduct in research involving human subjects. Its principles continue to be relevant and important for protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in research.
One of the key contributions of the Belmont Report to research ethics is its emphasis on the importance of informed consent, which requires that participants be provided with sufficient information about the research to make an informed decision about whether to participate. The Belmont Report also highlights the importance of protecting vulnerable populations, such as children, pregnant women, and individuals with impaired decision-making capacity, from exploitation and harm in research.
40
The 3 main principles stated in the Tri-council Policy Statement: Ethical Conduct for Research Involving Humans are:
1. Respect for persons
2. Concern for welfare (beneficence)
3. Justice
Explain these 3 principles.
Respect for persons: This principle requires that research participants be treated with respect and dignity, and that their autonomy and right to make decisions about their participation in the research be upheld. This means that researchers must obtain informed consent from participants before they can be included in the study. Informed consent involves providing participants with information about the study's purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits, and giving them the opportunity to ask questions and make an informed decision about whether to participate. Researchers must also respect the privacy and confidentiality of participants and ensure that their personal information is protected.
Concern for welfare (beneficence): This principle requires that researchers minimize harm and maximize benefits to research participants. This means that researchers must carefully consider the risks and benefits of their research and take steps to minimize potential harm to participants. They must also ensure that any potential benefits of the research outweigh the risks, and that participants receive appropriate compensation for their time and any expenses incurred as a result of their participation.
Justice: This principle requires that research participants be recruited fairly and that the burdens and benefits of the research be distributed fairly across society. This means that researchers must ensure that their research does not exploit vulnerable populations or unfairly exclude certain groups from participating. They must also ensure that any benefits that result from the research are distributed fairly across society, and that any potential harms are not disproportionately borne by certain groups. Finally, researchers must be transparent about their research methods and results, and ensure that the wider community has access to the knowledge generated by their research.
41
Informed consent in research involves providing participants with information about the study's ___________, __________, _________, and _________, and giving them the opportunity to ask questions and make an informed decision about whether to participate.
purpose, procedures, risks, and benefits.
42
Research involving living human participants requires ethical review, true or false?
True
43
Research involving human biological materials, as well as human embryos, fetuses, fetal tissue, reproductive materials and stem cells (from both living and deceased individuals) requires ethical review, true or false?
True
44
Name some instances in research during which ethical review is not necessary.
Research that uses only publicly available data or information that is already in the public domain may not require ethical review.
Research that involves only non-human subjects, such as laboratory animals, may not require ethical review from a human participant perspective. However, it may still require ethical review from an animal welfare perspective.
Research that involves only secondary analysis of de-identified data that has already been collected for another purpose, such as administrative or clinical records, may not require ethical review.
Research that involves only the analysis of existing public data sets, such as census data or publicly available health statistics, may not require ethical review.
Some forms of quality improvement or program evaluation activities, such as assessing the effectiveness of routine clinical care or public health interventions, may not require ethical review if they do not involve significant risk to participants and are not intended to generate generalizable knowledge.
45
Explain Research Ethics Boards (REBs).
REBs are responsible for reviewing research proposals to ensure that they are ethically sound and that the rights, welfare, and dignity of research participants are protected. REBs are typically made up of a group of experts from various fields, including researchers, ethicists, community representatives, and legal experts.
The primary role of the REB is to evaluate research proposals and provide feedback and guidance to researchers on how to conduct the research in an ethical and responsible manner. The REB also monitors ongoing research to ensure that ethical standards continue to be met throughout the course of the research project.
46
What does REB consider when it reviews research?
- Protection of human subjects
- Assess risks (minimal/relative) and benefits
- Assess research design to ensure minimal risk is upheld while meeting objectives
- Review subject recruitment to ensure informed consent
- Protection of vulnerable groups
47
__________ is the ability of potential/actual participants to understand information about a research project and appreciate the potential consequences of their decision to participate/not participate.
Capacity
48
A situation where a research participant may lose the capacity to make decisions about their participation in the research due to a progressive or degenerative condition such as Alzheimer's disease, dementia, or a severe mental illness.
Future incapacity, also known as anticipated incapacity.
49
In research, it is important to consider the potential for future incapacity and how it may affect a participant's ability to provide informed consent or withdraw from the research. What might researchers need to plan for alternative forms of consent?
Researchers may need to plan for alternative forms of consent, such as obtaining consent from a substitute decision-maker or obtaining advance consent from participants while they still have the capacity to make decisions.
50
What information must be provided in the consent form for research participants?
- Title of the study
- Contact information of all researchers
- Invitation (statement that the individual is being invited to participate in a research study, with an explanation of why they have been selected to take part)
- Description of research (purpose and data collection methods. Description of the expected duration ad nature of the participation)
- Risks and benefits of participation
- REB contact
- Right to refuse to participate
- Privacy, confidentiality and anonymity
- Documented consent
51
Name some potential ethical issues of being a clinician researcher.
- Conflict of interest (competing interests, such as financial or professional interests)
- Role as clinician gives "insider status"
- Separation of role as clinician and researcher
- Participants are likely to have knowledge of the clinician's role
52
As a clinician researcher it is important to limit ethical issues through identifying your role in the context of the research, making you involvement overt, and to reflect on feelings, biases and power issues. Explain the power dynamic involved with being a clinician researcher and how to avoid ethical issues associated.
As a clinician you have access to client files and data, in research the confidentiality of participants must be protected so these files and data must be accessed only following strict guidelines. To avoid ethical issues the clinician researcher needs to navigate this dual relationship to the participants/patients. Avoiding implicit coercion (threat of harm) or undue influence (promise of unfair benefit).
53
Explain the PI/ECOT format for research questions.
P - Population
I - Intervention/exposure level 1
C - Comparison/exposure level 2
O - Outcome
T - Time
54
__________________ is the course of action for watchfully and systematically examining research to assess its reliability, value and relevance in order to direct professional in their vital clinical decision making.
Critical appraisal
55
What is critical appraisal?
Critical appraisal is a process of carefully and systematically evaluating research evidence to assess its validity, reliability, relevance, and applicability to a specific clinical or research question. The purpose of critical appraisal is to identify strengths and weaknesses in the research methodology, results, and conclusions, and to determine the extent to which the evidence can be trusted and applied in clinical practice or further research.
56
Explain the difference between internal and external validity.
Internal validity refers to the extent to which a research study provides accurate and valid conclusions about cause and effect relationships between variables within the study. In other words, internal validity is concerned with whether the study's results are free from bias, confounding variables, and other factors that could affect the accuracy of the results.
External validity, on the other hand, refers to the extent to which research findings can be generalized to other settings, populations, and time periods beyond the study itself. In other words, external validity is concerned with whether the study's results are applicable to other situations outside of the study.
57
In terms of critical appraisal relating to internal and external validity. Internal validity can be described as ________________ of the study and external validity can be described as the _______________ of the study.
Internal validity: believability (are the results of the study believable?)
External validity: meaningfulness (is the study clinically useful?)
58
A _______________ is a property or characteristic that can be measured and that varies across people, places and time.
Variable
59
Explain the difference between independent and dependent varibales?
An independent variable is a variable that is manipulated or changed by the researcher. It is called "independent" because it is not affected by any other variable in the experiment. The independent variable is usually the variable that the researcher is interested in testing to see if it has an effect on the dependent variable.
A dependent variable is a variable that is measured or observed and is affected by changes in the independent variable. It is called "dependent" because it depends on the independent variable.
60
In a study looking at the effects of exercise on weight loss, the independent variable would be __________________ and the dependent variable would be ____________________.
The amount of exercise (as this is the variable that the researcher is manipulating to see if it has an effect on weight loss).
Weight loss (as this is the variable that the researcher is interested in measuring to see if it is affected by the amount of exercise).
61
_______________ variable is also called risk factor, controlled variable, explanatory variable, exposure variable and input variable.
Independent variable.
62
______________ variable is also called response variable, observed variable, outcome variable , experimental variable, and output variable.
Dependent variable.
63
An _________________ is an attribute of an individual that is expected to change owing to the intervention or exposure.
Outcome.
64
Independent variable = ________________
Dependent variable = __________________
Independent = exposure
Dependent = outcome
65
In research, a ____________ refers to an abstract concept, idea, or theory that is not directly observable or measurable, but is inferred from observable indicators or measures. ____________ are used to describe and explain complex phenomena, such as attitudes, emotions, personality traits, or psychological disorders, that cannot be directly observed or measured using objective criteria.
construct(s)
66
Constructs need to be directly observable, true or false?
False, constructs do not necessarily need to be directly observable as they may be abstract.
67
Constructs need to be conceptually and operationally defined, true or false?
True, constructs are defined in two ways: conceptually and operationally.
Conceptual definitions refer to the abstract, theoretical meaning of a construct. They describe the underlying concept or idea being studied and help to specify the boundaries and scope of the construct. Conceptual definitions are often developed through a review of existing literature and theoretical frameworks and are typically refined through ongoing research.
Operational definitions, on the other hand, refer to the specific procedures or measures used to assess or quantify the construct. They define how the construct will be measured or observed in a specific study, and help to ensure that the construct is being studied in a consistent and replicable way. Operational definitions can include specific instructions, questionnaires, surveys, physiological measures, or other methods used to measure or observe the construct.
68
The construct of "anxiety" may be defined by a set of ______________ indicators, such as increased heart rate, sweating, and feelings of tension or apprehension. Similarly, the construct of "depression" may be defined by ___________ indicators, such as a lack of interest or pleasure in activities, feelings of sadness or hopelessness, and changes in appetite or sleep patterns.
observable
69
Constructs are an important concept in research, as they allow researchers to study and understand...
complex phenomena that are not directly observable or measurable.
70
Explain the main difference between operational and conceptual definitions.
The main difference between operational and conceptual definitions is that conceptual definitions are abstract and theoretical, while operational definitions are concrete and specific.
Conceptual definitions refer to the underlying concept or idea being studied. They describe the meaning, scope, and boundaries of a construct, and are often developed through a review of existing literature and theoretical frameworks.
Operational definitions, on the other hand, refer to the specific procedures or measures used to assess or quantify a construct. They define how the construct will be measured or observed in a particular study, and are often developed through pilot testing and refinement.
71
The conceptual definition of "intelligence" might describe it as a broad mental ability that includes problem-solving, reasoning, and abstract thinking. Whereas, the operational definition of "intelligence" might involve...
a specific intelligence test that assesses problem-solving, reasoning, and abstract thinking.
72
______________ definitions describe the theoretical meaning of a construct, ______________ definitions describe how it will be measured or observed in a specific study.
Conceptual definitions = theoretical meaning
Operations definitions = how it will be measured or observed
73
_________________ refers to the specific area(s) within a construct assess by a sub-scale or portion of a questionnaire or measuring instrument.
Domain/dimension.
74
What is causality?
Causality in research refers to the relationship between a cause and an effect. In other words, it refers to the idea that one variable (the cause) has a direct and predictable impact on another variable (the effect).
75
What are the 5 relevant outcomes in health?
- Mortality (death)
- Morbidity (disease)
- Disability (function)
- Dissatisfaction
- Cost (destitution)
76
In health we measure outcomes for a variety of reasons. An outcome measure is an instrument designed to measure the impact of an intervention. Name 3 reasons why outcome measures are important in health care.
- Discriminate between subjects
- Evaluate change over time
- Predict wither prognosis or the results of some tests
77
A _________________ is a tool for quantitative measurement of the degree to which individuals possess a specific attribute or trait.
measurement scale
78
_____________ scales are common in health care and measure the level of agreement or disagreement an individual has about a construct.
Likert scales
79
______________ scale is usually used to assess attitudes or beliefs. Respondents are asked to give a judgement about something along an ordered dimension anchored by polar extremes.
Semantic Differential Scale.
80
_________________ scales are designed to be unidimensional so they are designed to measure only one construct. The items on the scale are designed to gradually increase in intensity and are hierarchically arranged so that each response assumes the endorsement of all previous responses.
Guttman scales.
81
Reliability refers to:
The extent to which a test or measure provides the same results on repeated trials or from different raters (consistency, repeatability).
82
Validity of a outcome measure refers to:
The capacity of the instrument to measure the underlying construct it is assumed and anticipated to measure.
83
Responsiveness refers to:
The accurate detection of change when it has occurred and the ability to detect a minimally important difference in patient status.
84
The clustering of a sample at one end of the score, refers to?
Floor and ceiling effects.
85
Reliability is usually expressed as a correlation coefficient and can range from _________________.
0.00 to 1.00 (no correlation to full correlation)
86
If the correlation coefficient is 0.65 this can be interpreted as...
65% of the variation in scores is due to true scores and 35% is due to error.
87
The ______________________ is a statistical measure of the strength of a linear relationship between two variables.
correlation coefficient.
88
A strong correlation coefficient typically refers to a coefficient that is close to either ___________, indicating a high degree of linear association between two variables.
+1 or -1
89
The correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to +1, explain what a correlation efficient of each of these scores means.
A correlation coefficient of -1 indicates a perfect negative correlation, meaning that as one variable increases, the other variable decreases in a perfectly predictable way. A correlation coefficient of +1 indicates a perfect positive correlation, meaning that as one variable increases, the other variable also increases in a perfectly predictable way.
90
In general, a correlation coefficient of ______ or higher or ________ or lower is considered a strong correlation. This means that the two variables are highly associated with each other and that the relationship between them is likely to be significant and meaningful.
+0.7
-0.7
91
A strong correlation does not necessarily imply causality, true or false?
True, correlation only measures the strength of the relationship between two variables, and does not prove that one variable causes the other.
92
The correlation coefficient can represent the correlation between scores on two separate times (_____________) or by two different administrators (_____________).
test-retest, inter-rater
93
Reliability can be tested in a number of ways including stability, internal consistency, and equivalence. Explain each.
Stability: is usually measured by calculating test-retest correlations.
Internal consistency: is a reflection of the homogeneity of the measurement's representation of the construct (calculated with Cronbach's alpha, slit half, or Kuder-Richardson formula)
Equivalence: inter-rater reliability (Kapp coefficient) or alternate forms.
94
Explain these three different types of validity:
1. Content
2. Criterion
3. Construct
1. Content validity: refers to whether the items in the measurement tool are relevant and representative of the construct being studied.
2. Criterion validity: used to assess whether the measurement tool is accurately measuring the construct or concept it is intended to measure by comparing it to an established standard or criterion.
3. Construct validity is the extent to which a research study or test measures what it claims to measure.
95
Explain continuous quantitative data.
A type of numerical data that can only take on any value within a given range or interval, and can be measured on a continuous scale.
Continuous data is typically measured using tools such as rulers, scales, thermometers, or other measuring instruments. These measurements can be recorded to any level or precision.
Examples: Age, height, gait speed, ROM
96
In continuous type of quantitative data, distribution is not expected to be normal, true or false?
False, distribution is expected to be normal.
97
Explain the categorical/discrete type of quantitative data.
Discrete data is a type of numerical data that can only take on specific values, usually whole numbers, and can be counted in a finite or countable manner. Discrete data can be thought of as data that is "discrete" or separate, with no values in between.
Dichotomous or binary (2 levels)
Polychotomous (3 or more levels)
Examples: the number of children in a family, the number of cars in a parking lot, or the number of students in a classroom.
98
What is ordinal data?
Ordinal refers to a type of categorical/discrete data that has a natural ordering or ranking to its categories. This means that the categories can be arranged in a meaningful order or sequence, but the numerical difference between the categories is not known or not important.
For example, a survey question that asks respondents to rate their level of agreement on a 5-point Likert scale, ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," is an example of ordinal data. The categories can be ranked in order of agreement, but we cannot say that the difference between "strongly disagree" and "disagree" is the same as the difference between "neutral" and "agree."
