Final Final Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
What types of parasites grow in phagocytes?
A
toxoplasma
2
Q
What is the pathogenesis of giardia lamblia?
A
sucking disc adheres to duodenum wall
3
Q
Signs/symptoms of giardia?
A
foul smelling, fatty diarrhea
4
Q
How/where is giardia transmitted?
A
water in the woods contaminated by cysts
5
Q
What treats giardia?
A
metronidazole
6
Q
How is giardia diagnosed?
A
pear-shaped trophozoites in stool “falling leaf motility”
7
Q
How is crypto transmitted?
A
undercooked meat, water.. even if it is chlorinated
8
Q
How is crypto diagnosed?
A
acid fast stain of stool reveals oocysts
9
Q
What parasite can cause pus and blood in stool?
A
entamoeba histolytica
10
Q
What type of lesions does entamoeba histolytica present?
A
inverted flask shaped lesions in large instestine
11
Q
How is histolytica diagnosed?
A
trophozoites (eat the RBCs) or cysts in stool
12
Q
What parasite is especially dangerous for pregnant women or HIV patients to contract?
A
toxoplasma gondii
13
Q
What type of animal feces should pregnant women avoid having contact with? Why?
A
cat feces because of toxoplasma
14
Q
What happens when we don’t have any immunity?
A
SCID
15
Q
What type of immune molecules are made of glycoprotein and have high affinty and specificity?
A
antibodies
16
Q
What produces antibodies?
A
B cells
17
Q
What is an epitope?
A
specific portion of an Ag that an Ab binds
18
Q
What are the generative/primary/central lymphoid organs?
A
bone marrow
thymus
19
Q
What are the peripheral lymphoid organs?
A
lymph nodes
spleen
adenoids
tonsils
mucosal/cutaneous immune systems
20
Q
What are the two fates of a multipotential hematopoietic stem cell?
A
common myloid progenitor
or
common lymphoid progenitor
21
Q
What cytokine is responsible for the differentiation of HSCs into common lymphoid progenitors?
A
IL7
22
Q
What is the fate of a common lymphoid progenitor cell?
A
NK cells
or
B or T cells
B cells can futher differentiate into plasma cells
23
Q
What are the granulocytes?
A
neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils
mast cells
24
Q
What is the most abundant type of granulocyte?
A
neutrophils
25
What are neutrophils also considered and why?
polymorphonuclear leukocytes because they have segmented nuclei
26
What are band cells?
immature form of neutrophils
27
When are neutrophils elavated?
protazoa or EC pathogens
28
Esophils are elevated in what type of infection?
metazoans
29
Cats are the essential definitive host in what parasitic infection?
toxoplasmosis
30
What are the symptoms of congenital toxoplasmosis?
chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications
31
For people with HIV, what disease can cause ring-enhancing lesions in the brain?
toxoplasmosis
32
What disease are these associated with and what are they called?
Tachyzoites of toxoplasmosis
33
How is naegleria fowleri transmitted?
warm water in nose
34
What disease does naegleria fowleri cause and what is the prognosis?
amebic meningoencephalitis and is fatal
35
How does N. fowleri cause infection?
enters through nose, travels via olfactory nerve through cribriform plate (more porous in younger people) until it enters CNS
36
What disease is known as the African sleeping disease?
trypanosoma brucei
37
How is T. brucei transmitted?
tsetse fly bite
38
What disease causes this rash?
brucei
39
How does T. brucei evade the immune system?
antigenic variation
40
How is T. brucei diagnosed?
trypomastigote in blood smear
41
What parasite causes this to be found in the blood?
T. brucei
42
What parasite causes malaria?
plasmodium
43
How is plasmodium spread?
mosquito
44
What parasite can cause anemia and agglutination of red blood cells?
plasmodium
45
What is the difference in uncomplicated malaria and complicated malaria?
Uncomplicated: crappy sx PLUS seizures (in P. falciparum)
Complicated: altered mental state- possible seizures
respiratory distress- possible ARDS
46
What type of plasmodium is dx by ameboid trophozoites?
P. vivax
47
What is the worst type of plasmodium infection?
P. falciparum b/c it can cause cerebral malaria
48
What parasite is dx due to multiple ring forms and cresent shaped gametes?
P. falciparum
49
Why is P. falciparum so severe?
it can enter reticulocytes and RBC, secret ps causing KNOBS which adhere to vascular epithelium causing clots
50
What parasite is transmitted via ticks?
babesia
51
What is a potential coinfection for a person infected with babesia?
B. burgdoferi (LYME)
52
How does babesia cause disease?
they infect RBCs to replicate and then lysis RBCs when leaving
53
How is babesia dx?
maltese crosses and rings in RBCs
54
What parasite would cause this to be seen in a blood smear and how is it transmitted?
Babesia transmitted via ticks
55
What disease does babesia cause?
hemolytic anemia
56
What parasite is transmitted via the reduviid bug?
T. cruzi
57
How is T. cruzi transmitted?
reduviid bugs pass the parasite in their feces which enters the body via mucous membranes or cuts
58
What disease does T. cruzi cause?
Chagas
59
How is T. cruzi dx?
trypomastigotes in blood smear
60
What parasite can cause a Romana sign?
T. cruzi
61
What disease is transmitted via sandfly?
leishmania
62
How is leishmania dx?
macrophages containing amastigotes
63
What parasite can lead to skin ulcers and is transmitted via sandfly?
leishmania
64
Which protezoan infection is sexually transmitted?
trichomonas vaginalis
65
What parasite is exclusive to humans and causes vaginal discharge?
T. vaginalis
66
What protozoan infection can lead to preterm delivery, low birth weight, and increased mortality?
T. vaginalis
67
How is t. vaginalis dx?
motile trichomonas trophozoites ona WET PREP
68
What are the anti-malerial drugs called?
quinolines
69
How do quinolones work?
block heme metabolism by parasites
70
What drug is used for chloroquine-resistant strains of malaria?
quinine/quinidine
71
Where do B cells mature?
bone marrow
72
What are naive lymphocytes?
mature lymphocytes that have had no Ag contact
73
What type of lymphocytes secrete cytokines, Abs, and kill pathogens?
effector lymphocytes
74
Where are B cells located in lymph nodes?
follicles
75
Where are T cells located in lymphocytes?
parafollicular cortex
76
Why are B and T cells segregated in peripheral lymphoid organs?
in order to mount an effective response
77
What is an important lymphatic structure in mucosa?
Peyer's patch
78
What type of cells are important for Peyer's patches?
M cells
79
What are the resident macrophages of the skin called?
langerhans cells
80
What is innate immunity?
immunity you are born with and mediates INITIAL protection
81
What is adaptive immunity?
immunity that develops slowly and provides more specialized/effective defenses
82
What are the cells of adaptive immunity?
T and B cells, and Abs
83
How is innate immunity specific?
PAMP recognition
84
What are the blood proteins of innate immunity?
complement
85
Process of humoral immunity
B cells secrete Abs that block infections and eliminate EXTRACELLULAR microbes
86
What type of cells respond to phagocytosed microbes?
CD4
87
What types of cells respond to intracellular microbes?
CD8
88
Skeletal muscle characteristics
striated, multinucleated, peripherally placed nuclei
89
Cardiac muscle characteristics
branched, single central nucleus, intercalated discs
90
Smooth muscle characteristics
Not striated, single central nucleus, spindle shaped
91
A group of skeletal muscle fibers is called a
fascicle
92
What type of stem cell gives rise to skeletal muscle cells?
satellite cells
93
What are the regulatory proteins of the thin filaments?
troponin and tropomyosin
94
What divides the sarcomeres?
Z discs
95
What is the basic contractile muscle unit?
sarcomere
96
What is located on either side of the z discs?
I bands
97
What is the length tension relationship?
the optimal length at which maximal force can be achieved during contraction
98
Isotonic muscle contracting means
the muscle is CHANGING length
99
Isometric muscle contracting is when
the muscle DOES NOT change length
100
What is latency during muscle action?
the time from the action potential to contraction
101
What are the slow twitch oxidative muscle fibers?
Red
102
What is the fastest source of muscle energy?
phosphocreatine
103
What is spatial summation in muscle activation?
recruitment of more/bigger motor units to increase force needed for contraction
104
What is it called when muscle contraction frequency is so close that contractions fuse together?
tetany
105
What joins multiple cardiac fibers together?
intercalated discs
106
What is the difference between the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?
Each skeletal muscle cell is innervated by 1 motor neuron where cardiac muscle cells have several fibers innervated by each neuromuscular junction
107
What transmits the muscle impulse to the SR in skeletal muscles?
T tubules
108
What is the difference between skeletal and cardic muscle channels?
APs by BOTH fast sodium AND slow calcium channels in cardiac muscle
109
How are smooth muscles linked together?
gap junctions
110
What provides mechanical linkage between smooth muscle cells?
adherens junctions
111
What are the 2 mechanisms of excitation coupling of smooth muscles and what do they do?
electromechanical coupling- membrane depolarization causes Ca2+ influx via voltage gated channels
pharmacomechanical coupling- agonist binding GPCR activates PLC which increases IP3 and stimuates Ca2+ release from ER
112
What are the GPCR agonists for smooth muscle contraction?
NE, angiotensin II, and edothelin 1
113
A unique feature of smooth muscle is the latch mechanism. What is this and how does it occur?
Latch is a way for smooth muscles to stay constricted without utilizing much ATP.
Rho-Rho kinases activates myosin phosphatase which partially dephosphorylates myosin and slows cycle so cross bridges remain stuck for long periods of time
114
What are the 2 types of smooth muscles and where are they found?
tonic smooth muscle- found in the sphincters, blood vessels, and airways
phasic smooth muscle- found in the GI tract
115
Where is the site of calcium regulation in skeletal muscle and cardiac?
troponin on actin filaments
116
Where is the site of calcium regulation in smooth muscle?
calmodulin in the sarcoplasm
117
What is the relay path of sympathetic nerves?
hypothalamus---\> sympathetic ganglia----\> snapse at target organ
118
Where are the ganglia of parasympathetic neurons located?
close to or in the wall of the target organ
119
Beta 1 adrenergic receptors bind ____ and _____ cardiac contractility and vasoconstriction.
bind NE
increase
120
Beta 2 receptors ____ vascular, bronchial, GI etc smooth muscle.
relax
121
GqPCR pathway of alpha 1 post-synaptic receptors
activates PLC
122
What is glomerular filtration?
filtering of the blood into the nephron to form urine
123
What is tubular reabsorption?
reabsorption of important substances needed by the body from the nephron to the blood
124
What is tubular secretion?
secretion of waste from the blood into the nephron
125
What is starling law?
(Pc-Pif) - (Πc-Πif)
126
If Jv is positive then net movement _____ of the capillary
OUT OF
127
If Jv is negative then net movement _____ the capillary.
INTO
128
Angiotensinogen is coverted into angiotensin I by \_\_\_\_
angiotensin I is converted into angiotensin II by \_\_\_\_
renin
ACE
129
Angiotensin II causes Na ______ in the collecting duct
reabsorption
130
What protein causes an INCREASE in aldosterone secretion by the adrenal \_\_\_\_\_?
angiotensin II
by the adrenal cortex
131
What are the major effects of angiotensin II?
Increase in Na reabsorption by collecting duct
Increase tubular reabsorption of Na & Cl and increase of K EXCRETION
Increase in aldosterone secretion by adrenals
Vasoconstriction of vessels
Increase in BP
Increase in ADH
132
What blocks renin release?
increase in JGA perfusion
133
Excess water intake _____ ADH secretion.
decreases
134
What is the role of ANP?
to promote Na excretion (thus, water excretion)
135
If hypovolemia or ECV decreases, ANP \_\_\_\_\_.
decreases
136
What effect does ANP have on renal vessels?
increases blood flow to increase GFR
137
Worms that have unsegmented bodies?
nematodes
138
What is the most common helminth infection in the US?
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworms)
139
Itchy anus?
pinworms (enterobius)
140
How to dx pin worms (enterobius)?
tape the butt and look for ova with larvae inside
141
What helminth is most commonly transmitted via soil?
ascaris lumbricoides (roundworms)
142
What are the symptoms of ascarisis?
swollen belly
bowel obstruction
143
How is a. lumbricoides dx?
bile-stained, knobby eggs in fecal matter
144
What does strongyloides stercoralis cause?
hookworm infection
145
What can cause cutaneous larva migrans?
strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm)
OR
necator americanus (hookworm)
146
What syndrome can s. stercoralis cause?
Loeffler syndrome- pulmonary opacities and coughing due to larva in the lungs
147
How is a strongyloides stercoralis infection dx?
rhabditiform larvae in feces
148
What type of parasite is scabies?
ectoparasite
149
What helminth can cause itching at night and serpininous burrows between fingers and toes?
scabies
150
Pediculus humanus and phthirus pubis are also known as
lice
151
The scolex of a tapeworm is its
head
152
What part of a tapeworm produces the proglottids (segments)
neck
153
Adult tapeworms inhabit the _____ and do not tend to cause problems.
Ingestion of tapeworm ____ can lead to serious problems because the larva can \_\_\_\_\_.
small intestine
eggs migrate
154
Ingestion of raw freshwater fish can cause
diphyllobothrium latum infections
155
What are the largest tapeworms that can affect people?
diphyllobothrium latum
156
What type of helminth infection can lead to B12 deficiency?
What can this B12 deficiency lead to?
tapeworms (D. latum)
megaloblastic anemia
157
What type(s) of infection can be caused by ingestion of dog feces?
echinococcus granulosus
toxocara canis
158
What is the danger of a E. granulosus infection?
hydatid cysts in liver rupturing which can lead to anaphylaxis
159
What parasite can lead to biliary tract disease or cholangiocarcinoma?
clonorchis sinensis
160
What type of infection can lead to brain cysts and seizures?
T. solium
161
What infection can lead to hydatid liver cysts?
echinococcus granulosus
162
Anemia can be caused by
ancylostoma or necator
163
What infection can lead to periorbital edema and muscle pain?
trichinella spiralis
164
Perianal pruritis is caused by
enterobius (pin worms)
165
What infection can lead tcumo portal hypertension?
schistosoma mansoni or scistosoma japnicum
166
What do schistosoma infections cause?
hepatosplenomegaly
portal hypertension
squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
pulmonary hypertension
167
What is the best drug for intestinal worm infections?
benzimidazoles
168
What drug is used to treat pregnant women with toxoplasmosis?
spiramycin
169
