final for prin 2 Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
If an individual is suspected of acute fluoride toxicity in the dental chair, what should the clinician do immediately?
A
Induce vomiting
2
Q
Which of the following best describes enamel?
A
Acid-soluble
3
Q
Fluoride uptake is greatest in soft tissues of the body.
A
False
4
Q
Dental caries is a multifactorial disease that may be caused by all of the following except:
A
Excess consumption of acidic beverages
5
Q
What is the goal of dental caries management?
A
To restore and maintain a balance between protective factors and pathologic factors
6
Q
1.23% APF gel contains _______ ppm of fluoride.
A
12,300 ppm
7
Q
12,300 ppmFluoride is excreted from the body from which major organ?
A
Kidneys
8
Q
A Caries risk factor that immediatley places an individual at severe risk for dental caries
A
Radiation therapy
9
Q
Root surface deminerlization occurs at what PH
A
6-6.7
10
Q
All of the following bacteria are related to caries develeopment Except Streptococuss sobrinus Lactobacillus Streptococcus mutan Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
11
Q
All are examples of clinical caries disease indicators except
White spots
Restoration placed in 6m
Decay into dentin
Xerostomia
A
Xerostomia
12
Q
In caries risk assesment heavy biofilm formation is example of
A
Caries risk Factor
13
Q
Biologic/ therputic influences that can collectevly offset the challenge presented by caries risk are known as
A
Caries protective factors
14
Q
Optimal fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.2ppm.
A
False
15
Q
Optimal fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.2ppm.
A
False
optimal= .7ppm
16
Q
5% NaF varnish contains 1000-1100ppm in one unit dose
A
False
22,600ppm
17
Q
Which of the following types of flouride hardens on the tooth structure in prescence of saliva
A
5% NaF varnish
18
Q
Flouride :
Inhibits demineralization
Inhibition of biofilm:
Enhance remineralization:
A
Dose not
Enhance Biofil formation
19
Q
Dental cares are reversable in the intial phase
A
True
20
Q
Biological influences/factors that contribute to developing new caries are known as
A
Caries risk factors
21
Q
Which professional used topical fluoride formulation has a PH of 3.5
A
1.23 APF
22
Q
Slowly dissolving foods are able to clear the oral cavity easily and contribute minimally to caries development.
A
False
contribute alot to caries
23
Q
Acid formation begins immediately when a cariogenic substance is taken into the biofilm.
Food particles are not needed for biofilm to form.
A
Both statements are true.
24
Q
Sodium bicarbonate as a caries preventive agent is most effective for reducing acids in a toothpaste formulation.
A
False
SB= good for Xerostomia
25
Neutralizes acids produced by acidogenic bacteria
| Severe caries risk patients with xerostomia benefit from sodium bicarbonate rinse
Sodium Bicarbonate
26
Example of low potency/ high frequency flouride mouth rinse for caries prevention?
0.05% NaF: 230ppm
27
Fluoride varnish is the primary source of fluoride for PTs of all level of caries risk.
False
28
```
All maybe used as desensitizing agents for dental hypersensitivity except :
5% NaF varnish
Products containing potassium salts
Dentifrice with added CPP-ACP
.12% CHX Gluconate
```
.12% CHX Gluconate
29
Naturally occurring 5-carbon sugar alcohol
Enhances remineralization and assists stimulate saliva
○ Xylitol should be listed as first ingredient : • Inhibits attachment and transmission of bacteria
Helps prevent erosion
Xylitol
30
* 0.12% ....rinse 1x/daily for 1 week each month shown to reduce levels of caries causing bacteria
* Cons: alters taste, stains teeth, increases calculus formation :High and severe caries risk patients
Chlorohexidine
31
According to the hydrodynamic theory, dentinal hypersensitivity is related to pressure from fluid movement across dental tubules to the pulp
True
32
Remineralization therapy is contraindicated for those with milk allergies
CPP-ACP
33
The most effective prevention for occlusion pit and fissure dental caries is use of 5% NaF varnish
False
Purpose of dental sealants
• To provide a physical barrier to “seal off” pit or fissure
• To prevent oral bacteria from collecting in the pit or fissure
To fill the pit or fissure as deep as possible and with a tight junction to the surface of the enamel
34
what Fluoride with concentration of 22,600ppm and is the fluoride choice for treating hypersensitivity
5% NaF Varnish
35
Type of sealant that doesn't need occlusion adjustment
Unfilled
36
The best description on use of acid etch prior to sealants
To enhance penetration and retention of sealants
37
Naturally occurring 5- carbon sugar alcohol that inhibits biofilm attachment
Xylitol
38
Presence of white spots demineralization is a contraindication for the use of CPP-ACP
Flase
| Milk allergies is
39
Age and eruption patterns must be considered when choosing remineralization therapy
True
40
For scute fluoride toxicity liquid that maybe used
Milk, lime water
41
CHX Gluconate for prevention of caries is recommended
Once daily, for a week, every month
42
Remineralization therapy solution that has the ability to stabilize calcium and phosphate in a solution to increase their levels in dental biofilm
CPP-ACP
43
Xylitol is more effective at remineralization the fluoride.
| Xytol must be the first active ingredient
False
| True
44
All Pt would benefit from using rinsing with .20 NaF; 905ppm BUT
PT with localized demineralization
PT with generalized demineralization
High caries risk
PT with orthodontic brackets/ moderate biofilm
PT with localized demineralization
45
Pain subsides or is alleviated with removal of the stimuli
Characteristic of dental hypersensitivity
46
Contraindication for sealant
Interproximal decay- on xray
47
Presence of pit and fissure with deep and irregular grooves on a tooth surface is
Caries risk
48
Preventive agent toothpaste clinically effective for reduction of root caries
Brushing daily with toothpaste 1.1% NaF 5,000ppm
49
Hypersensitivity is often difficult to diagnose because the presenting symptoms can be confused with other types of dental pain and different etiology
True
50
* Teeth with clear cavitation or radiographic lesions that penetrate into dentin
* Approximal radiographic lesions confined to enamel only
* Visual white spots on smooth surfaces
* ANY restorations placed in the last 3 years for a new patient OR in the last 12 months for a patient of record
Caries Disease Indicators
YOU CAN SEE IT
PAST/PRESENT
51
```
Tobacco use,
mod-heavy biofilm
deep pits/ fissures
exposed roots
frequent snacks/ sugar bevs
radiation therapy*
drug use
oral appliances
```
Caries Risk Factors
| Factors of New desisaes that hasn’t happened yet!
52
contributes to progression of carious lesion
Lactobacilli
53
•what potency/ frequency for PT with
High caries rinse adolescents
• Generalized demineralization
• Patients with oral appliances contributing to biofilm accumulation
• Patients with significant root exposure
High Potency/Low frequency
54
* Moderate caries risk patients
* Newly erupted teeth
* Adolescents and preteens
* Areas of demineralizations
Patients with xerostomia*
Low potency/high frequency
55
Best describes fluorides mechanism of action in caries prevention
It is able to inhibit biofilm growth / deminerlization
56
Best describes S.Mutans and their ability to thrive in the oral cavity?
Have the ability to produce acid and live in low PH
57
may be used to arrest and remineralize caries
Best discription of 38% SDF
58
Flouride concentration of a 1.1% NaF prescription gel for at home use
5000ppm
59
Kaposi's sarcoma is a fungal infection common in HIV patients.
True
60
An individual with uncontrolled HIV is classified as:
Asa 3
61
Acute infection
The initial exposure to the HIV virus prior to diagnosis is known as
62
What is the most common oral side effect related to the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy?
Xerostomia
63
The call HIV uses to replicate within the body
T lymphocytes
64
High viral load and CD4+ T cell count <200cells/mm
Which of the following best describes an individual with AIDS?
65
All of the following may present as opportunistic infections in uncontrolled HIV patients except:
Dental Caries
66
The period of time after exposure to HIV where the blood changes from negative to positive for the serum marker is known as:
Seroconversion
67
Infection disease that take advantage of a weakend immune system are known as
Opportunistic infection
68
Infection disease that take advantage of a weakend immune system are known as
Opportunistic infection
69
Asubstance capable of inducing a specific immune response and of reacting with the products of that specific antibody is known as
Antigen
70
Protects individuals with HIV from discrimination based on HIV status
ADA; Amaericans with disabilities
| Protects individuals with HIV from discrimination based on HIV status
71
Viral supression
Low levels of HIV RNA copies making the virus undetctable
| viral load count less than 200 copies of HIV/mm so it is undetectable in blood test
72
Hairy leukoplakia often presents as curd like patches that may be wiped off
False
| cant not be wiped off
73
A viral load of less than 200 copies of HIV/mm indicates AIDS.
False
Positive HIV Test + Very low CD4 count (<200 cells) OR presence of specific cancers or infections = AIDS
healthy immune system normally has a CD4 count ranging from 500 to 1,600 cells per cubic millimeter of blood (cells/mm3),
74
The ability of HIV to insert itself in the DNA of the CD4+ T cell is known as reverese transcription.
false.
Integration:
75
Integration:
76
Exposure to HIV is immediately detectable by blood tests.
true.
77
Which of the following best describes thrombocytopenia?
Blood platelets less than 20,000 mcL
78
Viral load
The amount of HIV RNA copies per millleter of blood
79
Has roughness , not smooth
Can be bilateral, unilateral
-Asymptomatic, vertically corrugated, hyperkeratotic patches on lateral borders of tongue
-Cannot be wiped off!
-More common in male HIV patients than females
-More commonly associated with low CD4+ T cell count (<200)
Hairy Leukoplakia
80
- Most common HIV associated oral malignancy
- Red, bluish, or purplish macular lesion often asymptomatic until ulceration
- Most often occur on palate of gingiva
- Caused by HHV-8
- Can be unrelated to CD4+ T cell or viral load
- Often establishes diagnosis of AIDS
Kaposi’s Sarcoma
81
-Fungal infection
-Typically presents as pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush), erythematous candidiasis, or radiating fissures at the corner of the mouth w/ angular cheilitis
-Candida albicans most common type with HIV
Can be wiped off
Oral Candidiasis
82
A patient with an A1C of 9% indicates which ASA classification:
ASA III
83
Emergencies involving diabetic patients occur most frequently with which type of diabetes?
Type 1
84
Uncontrolled diabetes is an example of a caries disease indicator.
False
well controlled= not a risk
uncontrolled = risk
85
Individuals with poorly controlled diabetes are at low risk for poor wound healing and infection.
False
high risk*
86
A1c from 5.7 to 6.4%
8% or higher
Healthy is less then 5.7
Prediabetes= 5.7 to 6.4%
• Diabetes diagnosis greater than or equal to 6.5%
8/higher = uncontrolled
87
Happens over days :
| underlying infection, disruption of insulin treatment, and new onset of diabetes.
Ketoacidosis
88
body’s response to loss of excess glucose
```
Polyuria= excess frequent urination
Polydipsia= excess thirst
Polyphagia= excess hunger
```
89
sudden, confusion, drowsy, lack of coordination, weakness, sweaty skin, blurry vision, dilated pupils, normal or slightly elevated blood pressure
More common!
Insulin Shock/Hypoglycemia
WHAT TO DO: GIVE SUGAR (juice, frosting, glucose tablets), revival is prompt if not, then IV glucose
90
develops slowly, flushed skin, abdominal pain, dry mouth, fruity smelling breath, low blood pressure, rapid but weak pulse
Ketoacidosis
Only type 1
• WHAT TO DO: activate EMS, monitor vital signs, keep patient warm, insulin injection AFTER medical assessment
DO NOT GIVE SUGAR
91
The most common condition of coronary artherosclerotic heart disease is:
Angina pectoris
92
```
Which of the following is not a congenital heart disease
Pulmonary stenosis
Ventricular septal defect
Myocardial infraction
Patent ductus arteriosus
```
Myocardial infraction
93
The chronic condition related to abnormal cardiac fundtion that may result from ischemic heart disease is known as:
Congestive heart failure
94
What is the recommendation for use of the ultrasonic for a patient with an implantable cardiac pacemaker?
It is necessary to consult with the cardiologist
95
A patient is taking the medication warfarin. What adverse reaction would the clinician consider with tis patient
Excessive bleeding
96
Which of the following os an example of a medication used as part of antiplatelet therapy?
Plavix
97
Secondary hypertension may result from sedentary lifestyle and poor diet.
Diet and lifestyle are modifiable risk factors for hypertension.
The first statement is false.
The second statement is true.
diet= primary
Secound= underlying conditions
sleep apnea, renal , drug/ alcohol
98
Most congenital anomalies originate between the fifth and eighth week of life.
True
99
A semi-supine position is contraindicated for a patient with congestive heart failure
False
| it is good
100
Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia
True
101
Gingival enlargement, xerostomia, and poor diet in the cardiac patient are example of
Caries risk factors
102
What medications is used to treat a patient experiencing symptoms of angina pectoris
nitroglycerin
103
medications for cardiac conditions may relate to gingival enlargement due to
Calcium channel blockers
104
The eithology of rhemuatic fever is related to what cells
Beta- hemolytic group A streptococci
105
coronary artery disease
Conditions arising from reduction or arrest of blood flow to myocrdium
106
What is the target INR value for a patient taking anticoagulant therapy
2.0-3.0
107
A myocardial infraction results from
Sudden arest of coronary blood flow
108
Chew tobacco users are at an increased risk for root caries due to:
Fermentable carbohydrates contained in smokeless tobacco
109
Type of tobacco cessation provided should be based on a patients readines to quit.
True
110
Tobacco use decreases the risk of peri implantitis after implant placement.
False
111
Nicotine replacement therapy comes in all of the following forms except:
Injection
112
What is the purpose of nicotine replacement therapy?
to provide some blood concentration of nicotine to reduce withdrawal
113
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the pH of a tobacco product and the availability of free nicotine?
The more alkaline the pH the more available free nicotine
114
Tobacco users are at greater risk for increased bleeding during dental hygiene treatment then non tobacco users.
False
115
```
FalseAll of the following are complications related to tobacco use and periodontal conditions EXCEPT:
Increased tissue vascularity
Alteration of IgG production
Decreased host immune response
Decreassed vascularization of tissue
```
Increased tissue vascularity
116
After completing nonsurgical periodontal therapy on an individual who is daily smoker, what is a necessary part of patient education
The patients healing and progression of clinical attachment loss is related to continued smoking and tobacco use
117
Which of the following chemicals is not released from the brainwith exposure to nicotine
Arsenic
118
Vaping as a form of tobacco use in an example of what caries factor
Caries risk factor
119
Term carcinogenic means caner causing
true
120
Nicotine withdrwal may present as all symptoms Except
Depression
Increased irritability
Decreased hunger
insomia
Decreased hunger
121
Hookah smoking is less harmful use of tobacco because there is no metabolism of nicotine
False
| 1 session = 100 cigs
122
Which of the following is an example of a pharmacotherapy used for tobacco cessation?
Bupropion
123
All of the following are potential intraoral manifestations associated with tobacco use except:
Apthous ulcer
124
The most common oral manifestation associated with pregnancy is:
Pregnancy gingivitis
125
Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Phenolic-based essential oils
126
Preclampsia during pregnancy indicates:
An increase in maternal blood pressure
127
A patient with uncontrolled preclampsia during pregnancy is an ASA II.
False
128
FalseReccomended amount of flouridated toothpaste for an infant 12 months of age for daily brushing.
A grain of rice sized amount
129
Preagnant women with gestational diabetes are at higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes
True
130
Goal of PT education for the pregnant pt
Educate on the risk of biofilm from mother to infact
131
Risk factor that increases an infants risk for early childhood caries
Frequent exposure to cariogenic beverages
132
Osteopina, the precursor to osteoporosis, is a risk factor for periodontal disease for
Post menopause women
133
Use of anesthetics for pain control are dontradicted during pregnancy
False
134
What age is the first infamt dental appointment recommended
12 months
135
Which antibiotics is contraindicting during pregnancy
Tetracyclyin
136
What teeth are offten effected by ECC in an infant PT
Maxialry anteriors
137
Oral sympom that is the highest complaint by women in menopause
Xerstomia
138
To relive pressure of uterus on the vena cave. Its recommended the PT rolls on the right side for DH treatment
```
False= right side
LEFT!!= True
```
139
Oral pyogenic granulomas are a malignant condition associated with pregnancy
True
140
Women who have gingivitis before pregnancy are more prone to exacerbation during pregnancy
True
141
Educateing the care givers on the infant care and what to expect from the childs current and net development stage is known as
Anticipatory guidance
142
Medicationd that would be recommended for a pregnant women for pain management following an SRP
Acetaminophen
143
The fluoride concentration for OTC childrens toothpaste is 1000-1100 ppm.
TRUE
144
Which of the following steps is necessary to increase retentiveness on the surface of the enamel during sealant placement and orthodontic bracket placement?
Acid etch
145
At what age is it recommended to begin cessation of nonnutritive sucking habits like thumb sucking?
3 years
146
Best describes caries risk in the adolescent population.
Caries risk increases due to increased need for nutritional intake and frequent consumption of cariogenic substances
147
Improper use of fluoridated toothpaste may result in mild fluorosis
TRUE
148
Which preventive flouride treatment is recommended for the pediatric patient under the age of 6?
5% NaF Varnish
149
What is best form patient education for a 5 year- old pt
Show, Tell, Do
150
The first primary teeth to erupt into the oral cavity are:
Mandibular anterior central incisors
151
Ultrasonic scaling is the most effective instrumentation for calculus removal on primary teeth.
False
152
A tooth structure is most likely to be damaged during which stage of orthodontics.
During the debonding of bracketrs
153
The shape of the interdental papilla of the primary dentition usually presents.
Flat or saddle shaped
154
At which age is a pea- sized amount of toothpaste reccomended for twice daily use
3-6 years
155
"Risk taking behavior" is a characteristic of which patient population
Adolescents
156
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is associated with which of the following communcable diseases
HSV-1
157
All are childhood caries risk factors EXCEPT
Heavy biofilm and poor oral hygiene of parent caregiver
Prolonged bottle feeding with out cleaning tooth surface
Low socioeconomic status
Thumb sucking
Thumb sucking
158
White lesions on primary teeth are an example of a caries risk factor for ECC
false
| disease indicators
159
Dental sealants may not be placed on permanent teeth until the child reaches 12 years of age
False
| 6 years
160
period of time between conseption and birth
gestation
| 40 weeks
