Final Material Flashcards
(178 cards)
1
Q
Influenza belongs to which of the following virus families?
A
orthomyxoviridae
2
Q
Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are 2 kinds of glycoprotein spikes. They are:
A
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
3
Q
The hemagglutinin of influenza:
A
binds to sialic acid
4
Q
What are the target(s) of anti-virals that are used to treat influenza?
A
the viral neuraminidase and viral uncoating in the endocytic vesicle
5
Q
Which of the following is an example of a segmented virus?
A
influenza
6
Q
The neuraminidase of influenza:
A
cleaves sialic acid
7
Q
Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
A
it results in new subtypes over time
8
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct?
A
the influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus
9
Q
Influenza is a viral infection that infects:
A
upper and lower respiratory tract
10
Q
Which of the following is responsible for the major changes in influenza antigenic type?
A
antigenic shift
11
Q
Which of the following is responsible for the systemic effects of influenza (body aches, high fever, and headache)?
A
production of cytokines and interferons by the immune response
12
Q
Which of the following drugs is NOT recommended for use in the US for the treatment of influenza?
A
amantadine
13
Q
Which of the following injections can be safely given to a child undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia?
A
influenza vaccine
14
Q
Which of the following is the target cell receptor for influenza virus?
A
sialic acid on epithelial cells
15
Q
The M2 channel inhibitor influenza drugs interfere with which of the following steps of the influenza life cycle?
A
nucleic acid uncoating
16
Q
Which of the following is NOT associated with influenza epidemics
A
influenza C
17
Q
The viral genome of influenza is composed of:
A
8 segments of ssRNA (negative sense)
18
Q
How many types of influenza are there?
A
3
19
Q
Which type of influenza is the worst?
A
A
20
Q
Which type of influenza causes mild respiratory distress?
A
C
21
Q
How many different HA and NA are there?
A
16 HA
9 NA
22
Q
Does antigenic shift or drift cause more dramatic changes?
A
antigenic shift
23
Q
Antigenic ___ is perhaps a result of 2 viruses infecting the same cell and swapping segments
A
shift
24
Q
All subtypes of influenza can be found in ___
A
birds
25
Systemic effects of influenza are due to:
immune response (interferons)
26
Local effects of influenza are due to:
cell changes (mucus secretion; epithelial damage)
27
How long is someone with influenza contagious?
contagious 1 day before symptoms to 5 days after symptoms
28
___ causes acute encephalopathy in children and is a complication of flu or chicken pox after aspirin use
Reyes syndrome
29
What's the best test to diagnose influenza?
Rapid Ag testing (nasopharyngeal specimen usually the best)
30
What do you do if the rapid ag test for influenza is negative?
may still treat for flu b/c false negative is common due to the fact that the Ab present in test can't be 100% accurate for the antigen you're infected with
31
What indicates a positive rapid Ag test for influenza?
a line on the test
32
antigenic __ occurs less often than ___
shift; drift
33
Where do influenza pandemics usually begin?
in china
34
False ___ rapid Ag testing for influenza is more common than false ___
negative; positive
35
The two drugs used for influenza are ___ and ___ and are considered to be:
1. oseltamivir (tamiflu)
2. zanamivir (relenza)
neuraminidase inhibitors
36
The 2 drugs used to treat influenza treat which types?
A and B
37
Zanamivir (Relenza) is not recommended for use in who?
people with underlying respiratory disease (asthma, COPD, etc) b/c it's an inhalation
38
Neuraminidase inhibitors act by:
blocking the release of the virion particle by not allowing sialic acid to be cleaved
39
Fluzone High-Dose is a new influenza tx formulation that is for:
people 65 or older
40
The intradermal flu vaccine is approved for the use in:
adults 18-64
41
The inactivated flu vaccine is grown in __, purified and inactivated with ___
egg; formalin
42
The live, attenuated intranasal flu vaccine is approved for:
ages 2-49 with no underlying illness and not pregnant
43
Rotavirus belongs to which family?
Reoviridae
44
Norovirus belongs to which family?
Calciviridae
45
A 6-month old child develops symptoms of a respiratory tract infection. Which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this infection?
rotavirus
46
The new rotavirus vaccine is called a pentavalent reassortant vaccine. Where are the reassortant virus segments coming from?
some of the RNA segments come from human rotavirus and some of the RNA segments come from bovine rotavirus
47
What makes the structure of reoviridae unique?
It has a double layered capsid; some properties of enveloped virus during replication but really its a naked virus
48
Which virus family includes the varicella virus?
herpes virus
49
The hepatitis virus that is described as an enveloped DNA virus of the hepadnavirus family is responsible for hepatitis__________.
B
50
Hepatitis B is often spread from mother to offspring:
across the placenta
51
Reactivation of varicella is called herpes zoster or:
shingles
52
Hepatitis A is acquired through the ___ route
fecal-oral
53
Which life stage of Giardia lamblia is responsible for infection?
trophozoite
54
Which cell type is susceptible to HIV infeciton?
macrophages
55
The fever of malaria is due to the
release of the merozoites from the hepatocytes
56
Which of the following is a genital tract infection that is caused by a protozoan?
trichomoniasis
57
The chronic degenerative brain disease that is associated with cannibalism is:
kuru
58
The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and the presence of clue cells is
trichomoniasis
59
Which of the following is the recommended procedure for the prevention of Hepatitis C in healthcare workers?
there isn't a treatment that is effective in the prevention of hepatitis C infections
60
Which of the following best describes the severity of hepatitis B infections in infants?
less severe acute disease, but more likely to be chronically infected
61
The reverse transcriptase inhibitors of HIV owe their effectiveness to their resemblance to the normal purine and pyrimidine building blocks of
nucleic acids
62
The cells that are infected by the Epstein-Barr virus are the
B lymphocytes
63
The DNA virus of the herpesvirus family which is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is called:
Epstein-Barr virus
64
how many species of plasmodium cause human malaria?
many
65
In which phase of the life cycle is the malaria parasite able to infect its vector?
gametocyte
66
Which of the following enzymes is a target of antiretroviral medicines currently available for treating AIDS?
protease
67
The host cell co-receptor for HIV is:
a chemokine receptor
68
The hepatitis virus that is described as a flavivirus is responsible for hepatitis:
C
69
Which cell type is susceptible to HIV infection?
macrophages
70
Which of the following statements about herpes simplex is true?
The herpes lesions are painful, but benign
71
The chronic degenerative brain disease that is associated with cannibalism
Kuru
72
Acyclovir only works in herpes simplex infected cells b/c the drug must first be activated by the viral:
kinase
73
The cells that are infected by the cytomegalovirus are the:
T lymphocytes
74
Post-exposure prophylaxis and follow up for occupational exposure to HIV includes all of the following except
administration of immunoglobulin
75
Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of HIV?
giving blood
76
Reyes syndrome in children is:
an acute encephalopathy after aspirin use (A-flu or chicken pox after aspirin use)
77
Which of the following enzymes is a target of antiretroviral medicines currently available for treating AIDS?
reverse transcriptase
78
Which of the following is most likely to lead to chronic or persistent hepatitis
hepatitis C
79
What is a Dane particle?
The infectious hepatitis B virion
80
how many antigenic types of hepatitis A virus are known today?
one
81
Retroviruses encode an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. The function of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is
RNA dependent DNA polymerase activity
82
Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
it results in new subtypes over time
83
A patient with jaundice and dark urine tested positive for HAV IgM antibody. The physician can tell the patient that
he may transmit the infection to family members by person to person spread
84
Human papillomavirus can cause lead to cancer in humans and is most commonly associated with
anogenital cancers
85
AZT acts as an antiviral by interfering with which of the following steps in HIV replication:
reverse transcription of the viral genome
86
Where are the adherence spikes of an enveloped virus located?
in the envelope
87
Which of the following virus(es) use reverse transcriptase for viral replication?
retroviruses
88
Parvovirus B19 grows in
red blood cell precursors
89
Where does viral nucleic acid replication occur during a small pox infection?
cytoplasm
90
Which of the following does not lead to chronic liver disease?
hepatitis A
91
Which of the following is the most common post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis A exposure?
immune serum globulin (passive immunization)
92
Which of the following Hepatitis B panels would indicate a chronic infection with hepatitis B?
HBsAg positive, anti-HBc Ab postitive, anti-HBc IgM negative, anti-HBs Ab negative
93
what kind of vaccination is the hepatitis B vaccine?
sub-unit vaccination (HepBsAg)
94
Which of the following viruses is the most infectious following a needle stick to a non-immune person?
hepatitis B
95
During a latent infection with herpes simplex where is the viral nucleic acid?
free in the cytoplasm of the sensory nerve ganglion
96
The heterophile Ab used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is
Non specific Ab produced during an infection with EBV
97
Exanthem caused by a herpesvirus:
roseola
98
Upon uncoating of the HIV nucleic acid, which of the following steps happens first?
synthesis of viral DNA using the RNA as a template
99
Which of the following infections is typically responsible for the “slapped face” rash?
parvovirus B19
100
The heterophile Abs used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis are:
non specific Abs produced during an infection with EBV
101
The new vaccine to target cervical cancer actually contains antigens of:
the serotypes of HPV that are most often associated with cervical cancer
102
The M2 channel inhibitor influenza drugs interfere with which of the following steps of the influenza life cycle?
nucleic acid uncoating
103
A 19 year old man presented with a week long history of jaundice and dark yellow urine. He also complained of GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, low-grade fever, and abdominal pain). He had recently returned from a vacation in Venezuela, where he said he consumed lots of shellfish. Which of the following infectious agents is likely to have caused his jaundice?
hepatitis A
104
What type of cells do papilloma viruses infect?
basal keratinocytes
105
What is the best explanation for the selective action of acyclovir in herpes simplex virus-infected cells?
a viral kinase phosphorylates the acyclovir more effectively than the host cell kinases
106
The eradication of small pox was facilitated by several features of the virus. Which of the following contributed the LEAST to eradication?
it multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected cells
107
A 20 year old man, who for many years had received daily injections of growth hormone prepared from human pituitary glands, develops difficulty with muscle movements, slurred speech, and dementia. At autopsy the brain showed widespread neuronal degeneration and many vacuoles. There is no evidence of virus particles. The most LIKELY diagnosis is
creutzfeldt-jakob disease
108
A 30 year old man develops fever and jaundice. The physician checks for antibody response to HepBsAg (anti-HepBsAg) and finds it to be negative. Which of the following additional test would be MOST useful to establish if the patient has hepatitis due to Hepatitis B?
Anti-HepBc Ab
109
which of the following is characterized as a defective virus?
hepatitis D
110
Which of the following is the normal function of the HIV co-receptor CCR5?
chemokine signaling
111
Which of the following steps of the HIV lifecycle is NOT currently targeted by an anti-viral agent?
integration of viral nucleic acid into the host DNA
112
which of the following is the typical route of transmission for varicella-zoster virus?
respiratory droplets
113
Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are both similar in that they both affect the liver. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between these 2 viruses or the diseases that they cause?
one is an RNA virus, and the other is a DNA virus
114
Where do you find the Plasmodium parasites when the patient is experiencing the recurrent fever associated with malaria?
free in the blood, having not yet entered new red blood cells
115
hepatitis D infection occurs as a co-infection with which of the following?
HBV
116
Which of the following drugs is NOT recommended for use in the US for the treatment of influenza?
amantadine
117
In order to cause an infection the papilloma virus must infect cells of which cellular layer?
basal layer of the epithelium
118
The probability that a patient will develop cirrhosis of the liver following infection with hepatitis A is __________ than the probability of developing cirrhosis of the liver following Hepatitis B infection
less than
119
Which of the following viral components is important for the adherence of HIV to its target cell?
gp120
120
What are the antigen components of the GARDASIL vaccine?
papilloma capsid proteins
121
Which step in viral replication is inhibited by HIV protease inhibitors
viral assembly
122
Which of the following is the normal function of the HIV co-receptor CXCR4?
chemokine signaling
123
Which type of cells typically contain the latent virus following infectious mononucleosis?
B lymphocytes
124
A 28 year old man visits student health because he has a rash on his face and neck. He says that he has been feeling run down, has a cough, and runny nose. Upon examination the physician finds conjunctivitis, small lesions on the insides of his cheeks, and fever. Prevention of this infection is typically accomplished by
vaccination with live attenuated virus vaccine
125
Premalignant cells are seen in a pap smear from a 40 year old woman. Which agent is most likely to be present in these cells?
HPV type 16
126
A 38 year old man complains of jaundice, dark urine, abdominal pain, and malaise. Serologic tests are positive for antibody specific for HBsAg, and negative for antibody specific for HBcAg and negative for HBsAg. Which interpretation is most consistent with these findings?
the patient is not infected with HBV
127
Which of the following viral enzymes is associated with herpes simplex one viruses?
thymidine kinase
128
Which of the following is the hepatitis that we should be most concerned about if a food handler in a restaurant has hepatitis?
HAV
129
Mad cow disease is caused by which of the following infectious agents
prions
130
Which of the following currently carries the greatest risk for acquiring hepatitis C?
injecting illegal drugs
131
Which of the following is a single-stranded DNA virus?
parvovirus B19
132
the herpes viruses are able to evade the immune response by:
establishing a latent infection
133
A cruise ship calls in epidemiology experts to evaluate an outbreak of disease in passengers on a cruise ship. The symptoms include diarrhea, vomiting, nausea, and headache. A small, single stranded, positive-sense RNA virus with an icosahedral non-enveloped capsid is isolated from stool samples. Which virus is most likely the cause of the disease?
norwalk virus
134
These cause Mad cow disease and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
prions
135
parvovirus b19 grows in:
red blood cell precursors
136
Which of the following patients are most likely to develop a chronic Hepatitis B infection if they acquire a hepatitis B infection?
children under the age of 5 years
137
Which of the following hepatitis virus infections is acquired through ingestion of the virus?
hep A
138
Which of the following is a vaccination that NC pharmacists may administer
zoster vaccine
139
Which of the following is responsible for the major changes in influenza antigenic type?
antigenic shift
140
infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following viruses?
Epstein-Barr virus
141
Which of the following best describes the reverse transcriptase of HIV?
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
142
Where do you find the Plasmodium parasites when the patient is experiencing the recurrent fever associated with malaria?
free in the blood
143
What is the role of the viral thymidine kinase in the action of acyclovir, the antiviral used in the treatment of herpes simplex 1?
the thymidine kinase adds the first phosphate to acyclovir, thereby activating it
144
Which of the following can lead to an acute-onset watery diarrhea with a particularly short incubation period (hours), almost like a toxin mediated illness?
norovirus
145
The rotavirus vaccine is
a live oral vaccine created by genetic reassortment
146
which of the following is a protozoan infection that can lead to lesions in the eye if it is acquired congenitally?
toxoplasmosis
147
Azidothymidine (AZT) inhibits this viral process.
nucleic acid synthesis
148
How does HIV leave the host cell?
budding
149
Herpes simplex 1 is able to reactivate because is remains latent in
the axons of sensory nerve ganglia
150
Which of the following is responsible for the systemic effects of influenza (body aches, high fever, and headache)?
production of cytokines and interferons by the immune response
151
Which of the following is the PEP for a known percutaneous exposure to Hepatitis C virus?
There is not a PEP for Hepatitis C
152
Patients with either acute or chronic hepatitis B infections are the only ones who can be infected with this virus.
hepatitis D
153
This Herpes virus causes chicken pox.
varicella zoster
154
Which of the following is the Hepatitis B vaccine currently used in the United States?
inactivated, subunit vaccine
155
Which of the following is the HIV component that mediates the adherence to the host cell?
gp120
156
The serotypes of papilloma virus that are most often associated with cancer are`
16 and 18
157
Which of the following is the target of the anti-flu drugs currently in use (Oseltamivir and Zanamivir)?
viral neuraminidase
158
which of the following is the currently used hepatitis B vaccine in the US?
subunit (viral component)
159
orthomyxoviridae viruses have which of the following genome?
segmented, RNA genome
160
Fungi and bacteria share which of the following morphological or physiological characteristics?
Cytoplasmic membrane surrounded by a cell wall
161
8-year old child develops a coin-sized, round itchy skin lesion on the right side of her neck. The peripheral area of this lesion is slightly elevated and clearly demarcated (contains a clearly marked edge) from the healthy skin. The first measure the physician should take is to
microscopically examine a KOH treated scraping of the affected area
162
Dimorphism in fungi refers to the ability of
certain fungi to grow in 2 forms (yeast and hyphae)
163
Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection that
can be on the hair, skin or nails
164
polyene antifungals target which of the following fungal structures?
ergosterol in the cell membrane
165
Candida vaginitis is an example of a(n):
endogenously acquired mycoses
166
Cutaneous mycoses known as tinea are caused by
fungi from several different genera
167
Primary systemic mycoses caused by Histoplasma are acquired from
the inhalation of the spore form
168
Which of the following statements about fungal cells walls is correct?
the major components of fungal cell walls are polysaccharides
169
The term dimorphic fungi indicates that the fungi
are able to grow as yeasts or molds depending on the environmental conditions
170
Which of the following would be considered a dermatophytosis?
tinea cruris
171
Most cases of Aspergilliosis are acquired by:
inhalation of the organism from the environment
172
Giardia is acquired by:
ingestion of Giardia lamblia cysts
173
Which of the following can lead to malaria with relapses of up to a year
Plasmodium vivax
174
In the human host the malaria parasites are
replicating by asexual replication
175
Pinworms are
nematodes
176
Polyene antifungals target which of the following fungal structures?
ergosterol in the cell membrane
177
Cutaneous mycoses known as tinea are caused by
fungi from several different genera
178
Give one example of an endogenously acquired mycosis:
any of the candida infections
