Final (OB|GYN) Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

Which vaccine should be avoided

A

Live Vaccines
- Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
- Varicella (VZV))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which vaccines may be given to a pregnant mother?

A

1 - COVID
2 - FLU
3 - TDAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nursing interventions for Late Decelerations on fetal monitor strip.

A

1 - Reposition
2 - Increase IV Fluids
3 - Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long should you avoid pregnancy after receiving a Rubella Vaccine?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the reflection of fetal cerebral oxygenation and fetal reserve?

A

Variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which STI is contraindicated for breastfeeding?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CNS depressant; relaxes smooth muscle; inhibits uterine activity. Neuro protection of the neonate.

A

Magnesium Sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Beta-Adrenergic Agonist; Relaxes smooth muscle; Inhibits uterine activity; Bronchodilator

A

Terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Painless bright red vaginal bleeding during second or third trimester from stretching or thinning of lower uterine segment.

A

Placenta Previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is Placenta Previa diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment such that it completely or partially covers the cervix or is close enough to the cervix to cause bleeding when the cervix dilates or the lower uterine segment effaces.

A

Placenta Previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Placenta Previa:
Abdominal examination usually reveals a _____, _______, non-tender ______ with ________ tone.

A

Abdominal examination usually reveals a soft, relaxed, non tender uterus with normal tone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 things that should be avoided if a patient has placenta previa.

A

1 - Vaginal Exams
2 - Rectal Exams
3 - Intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the premature separation of the placenta.

A

Placenta Abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Painful vaginal bleeding; Abdominal pain; Uterine tenderness; Board-like abdomen

A

Placenta Abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mild-to-severe uterine hypertonicity is present. Pain is mild to severe and localized over one region of the uterus or diffusely over the uterus with board-like abdomen.

A

Placenta Abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Shortening and thinning of the cervix during the first stage of labor is?

A

Effacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The enlargement or widening of the cervical opening and the cervical canal that normally occurs once labor has begun is?

A

Dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What marks the end of the first stage of labor?

A

Full cervical dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first stage of labor?

A

Cervical DIlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is stage 2 of labor?

A

Delivery of the baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is stage 3 of labor?

A

Placenta Delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is stage 4 of labor?

A

Post-Partum (Recovery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which is the longest stage of labor?

A

Stage 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
As the cervix is stretched what is released that stimulates contractions?
Oxytocin
26
This stage of labor is from the time the cervix is fully dilated to the birth of the infant.
Second Stage
27
What are the two phases in the first stage of labor?
1 - Latent 2 - Active
28
This stage of labor lasts from the infant's birth to expulsion of the placenta.
3rd Stage of Labor
29
This stage of labor begins with the delivery of the placenta and includes at least the 1st 2 hours after birth.
4th Stage of Labor
30
This stage of labor is more progress in effacement of the cervix and little increase in descent.
1st Stage of Labor (Latent Phase)
31
This stage of labor is more rapid dilation of the cervix and increased rate of descent of the presenting part.
1st Stage of Labor (Active Phase)
32
Which stage of labor is the fetus continues to descend passively through the birth canal and rotate to an anterior position as a result of ongoing uterine contractions?
2nd Stage of Labor (Latent Phase)
33
Which stage of labor is the woman has strong urges to bear down as the presenting part of the fetus descends and presses on the stretch receptors of the pelvic floor?
2nd Stage of Labor (Active Pushing Phase)
34
Which stage of labor does the placenta normally separates from the uterine wall?
3rd Stage of Labor
35
Which stage of labor does the woman begins to recover physically from birth?
4th Stage of Labor
36
Normal range of FHR at term?
110 -160bpm
37
When does the anterior fontanel close?
18 months
38
When does the posterior fontanel close?
6 - 8 weeks
39
What is the newborn priority if a mother has pre gestational or gestational diabetes?
Check blood glucose 1hr after birth
40
What is the first sign of respiratory distress in newborns?
Tachypnea
41
This edematous area, present at birth, extends across suture lines of the skill and usually disappears spontaneously within 3-4 days.
Caput Succedaneum
42
This hematoma at birth is firmer and better defined, does not cross a cranial suture line, and resolves in 2-8 weeks.
Cephalhematoma
43
What can occur as a hematoma resolves in an newborn, hemolysis of RBCs occurs and this may result?
Hyperbilirubinemia
44
When should Rubella vaccine be given to a mother who just delivered?
In the hospital before discharge
45
What is the onset of hypertension without proteinuria after week 20 of pregnancy?
Gestational Hypertension
46
What is pregnancy-specific condition In which hypertension and proteinuria develop after 20 weeks of gestation?
Preeclampsia
47
What is the onset of seizure activity in a woman with preeclampsia?
Eclampsia
48
Women may be diagnosed with this once it is evident that hypertension persists after the postpartum period?
Chronic Hypertension
49
The goal of therapy for women with gestational hypertension and preeclampsia without severe features.
To ensure maternal safety and to deliver a healthy newborn as close to term as possible.
50
Women diagnosed with severe levels of gestational hypertension or preeclampsia with severe features should be hospitalized immediately for a thorough evaluation of maternal-fetal status and placed on which medication?
Magnesium Sulfate
51
What medication prevents eclamptic seizures?
Magnesium Sulfate
52
Women with severe levels of gestational hypertension who are less than 34 weeks of gestation have no indication for giving birth immediately may be candidates for which medications?
1 - Magnesium Sulfate 2 - Corticosteroids
53
Why is dexamethasone given to a mother with severe levels of gestational hypertension that is less than 34 weeks?
To enhance fetal lung maturation
54
What is the priority for a patient with severe features of preeclampsia to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?
IV and oral fluids should NOT exceed 125mL/hr
55
You are monitoring a patient who is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. You observe that her previously normal deep tendon reflexes are now undetectable, she is breathing at a significantly slower rate, and she is not responding to verbal stimuli as promptly as before. Question: Considering these observations, what complication should be immediately suspected and addressed?
Magnesium Toxicity
56
Which medication has been found to reduce preeclampsia and adverse outcomes in selected-high-risk women?
Low-Dose Aspirin
57
Which medication is given to reverse magnesium toxicity?
Calcium Gluconate
58
What is the term for the rhythmic, oscillating movements observed in response to sustained muscle stretching, often seen in patients with significant neurological hyperexcitability, such as severe pre-eclampsia?
Clonus
59
What is the term for a family structure that results from divorce and remarriage, typically consisting of stepparents, stepchildren, and stepsiblings?
Married-Blended Family
60
What is the term used to describe a traditional family structure consisting of a husband, wife, and their biological or adopted children?
Nuclear Family
61
What term describes a family structure that includes grandparents, parents, and grandchildren, living together or maintaining close relationships?
Multigenerational Family
62
What is the term for a family structure that encompasses not only the nuclear family but also other relatives such as grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins, who may or may not reside together?
Extended Family
63
What is the term used to describe amniotic fluid that is tinged with fetal stool, indicating that the fetus may have experienced stress or hypoxia in utero?
Meconium-Stained Amniotic Fluid
64
What are the essential steps and maneuvers a healthcare provider should perform when encountering shoulder dystocia during delivery?
1 - McRoberts Maneuver (Flex legs on abdomen) 2 - Apply suprapubic pressure (NOT fundal pressure)
65
What are the crucial nursing interventions in the event of an umbilical cord prolapse?
1 - Manually elevate the presenting part of the fetus off the cord if, using a sterile gloved hand, inserting 2 fingers. 2 - Promptly position the mother to relieve pressure on the cord (Modified Sims, Trendelenburg, or Knee-Chest) 3 - Oxygen
66
What is the gold standard method for breast cancer screening and early detection, widely recognized for its effectiveness?
Mammography
67
What diagnostic procedure is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of a suspected pathology, such as a tumor or a suspicious lesion?
Needle Biopsy
68
What is the most common benign breast condition, often found to varying degrees in healthy women, characterized by lumpy, sometimes tender breasts, especially in response to hormonal changes?
Fibrocystic Breast Changes
69
What is the name of the most common solid benign breast mass, typically seen in adolescents and young women, characterized as a discrete, usually solitary lump that is generally less than 3 cm in diameter?
Fibroadenoma
70
hat is the term for a benign, often bilateral, spontaneous nipple discharge that is milky and sticky, commonly seen in pregnancy, but can also occur in other conditions?
Galactorrhea
71
What is the name of the benign condition characterized by unilateral, spontaneous nipple discharge that can be serous, serosanguineous, or bloody, typically originating in the terminal nipple ducts?
Intraductal Papilloma
72
What is the condition called where the breast presents as painful, red, and inflamed, often with thickened skin that feels warm or hot to the touch, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
Cellulitis
73
Which specific genetic mutations significantly elevate a woman's lifetime risk of developing breast cancer, with some estimates suggesting up to an 85% chance?
BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations
74
Nursing interventions for magnesium toxicity?
Stop magnesium sulfate
75
A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonsalable, immobile, and contender. Which condition is this client experiencing? a) Fibroadenoma b) Lipoma c) Intraductal Papilloma d) Mammary Duct Ectasia
c) Intraductal Papilloma
76