Final Practice Questions Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
Consider the principles of electrical stimulation and select the most accurate statement about electricity.
A
The electrical current will flow from the cathode to the anode.
2
Q
What type of electrical current is identified by the fact that electron flow is interrupted by discrete periods of no electron flow?
A
Pulsed current
3
Q
What property of electrical current identifies the maximum distance that the pulse rises above or below the isoelectric point?
A
Amplitude
4
Q
What type of current do interferential stimulators use?
A
Alternating current
5
Q
What parameter of interferential current identified as the distance from the peak on the positive side of the baseline to the peak on the negative side?
A
Peak-to-peak amplitude
6
Q
When using an alternating current, how many times would a current of 100 Hz change its direction of flow in two seconds?
A
200
7
Q
What type of current does high-voltage pulsed stimulation use?
A
Monophasic
8
Q
Due to the lower charge per phase, which of the following waveforms tends to be the most comfortable for patients?
A
Symmetrical biphasic
9
Q
When examining the pulse characteristics, what is the most important factor when determining what type of tissue will be stimulated?
A
Phase duration
10
Q
What is the unit of potential difference and represents the amount of work required to move one coulomb of charge?
A
Current
11
Q
What is used to measure a material’s resistance to the movement of electrons?
A
Ohm
12
Q
What biological tissue is the primary resistor to therapeutic electrical flow?
A
Skin
13
Q
What unit is used to express the relationship between voltage and amperage?
A
Wattage
14
Q
. In a parallel circuit, the ____________ is varied, but the ____________ remains constant?
A
amperage; voltage
15
Q
The physiological effects of electrical stimulation are related to what characteristic?
A
Current density
16
Q
When using a monophasic current, what parameters are synonymous and refer to the same aspect of the current? Select all that apply.
A
Pulse
Waveform
Phase
17
Q
When examining the attributes of the pulse, which of the following will lead to an increase in the total charge of the pulse? Select all that apply.
A
Increase amplitude
Increase pulse duration
18
Q
An electrical stimulation unit uses what carrier frequencies for their heating effects? Select all that apply.
A
10,000 cycles per second
100,000 cycles per second
200,000 cycles per second
19
Q
What two properties are collectively known as impedance? Select all that apply.
A
Inductance
Capacitance
20
Q
Ohm’s law describes the relationship between what characteristics of electrical currents? Select all that apply.
A
Amperage
Voltage
Resistance
21
Q
What tissue has the greatest resistance to current flow?
A
Cell membrane
22
Q
What type of resistance does the skin present to electrical current flow?
A
Capacitive and parallel
23
Q
What type of electrode is able to deliver the most current at the lowest skin impedance?
A
Carbon-rubber electrodes
24
Q
Which of the following is considered a trigger point?
A
A pathological and localized area of pain that is hypersensitive to electrical current flow
25
When targeting deeper tissues, how should you place the electrodes?
Farther apart
26
What electrode placement technique utilizes two sets of electrodes, each with its own channel?
Quadripolar
27
What stimulation level has an intensity that produces a visible muscle contraction without causing pain?
Motor-level stimulation
28
Electrical stimulation has little to no effect on which of the following?
Inflammatory process
29
What best describes habituation?
The CNS process one experiences everyday of filtering out a continuous, nonmeaningful stimuli.
30
Due to summation, at what pulse frequency do individual muscle contractions become less distinguishable?
15 to 25 pps
31
What are the correct pain control parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment meant to trigger the release of enkephalins?
High-pulse frequency with motor-level stimulation
32
Which is an accurate statement regarding the use of motor-level stimulation to reduce swelling?
Motor-level stimulation has more clinical efficacy than the sensory-level stimulation.
33
What type of electrical current is primarily used for neuromuscular reeducation and strength augmentation?
Neuromuscular electrical stimulation
34
Which is true regarding electrically induced muscle contractions?
Contractions and recruitment are synchronous.
35
Which of the following represents a wound healing effect under the anode, positive pole, while using direct current or high-volt pulsed stimulation?
Increased pH
36
What tissues are excitable? Select all that apply.
Nerves
Muscle fibers
Cell membranes
37
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning the size of electrode? Select all that apply.
Smaller electrodes require less current to stimulate tissue.
Larger electrodes yield a more comfortable treatment when there is an adipose layer greater than 2 cm.
38
A nerve’s response to the electrical stimulation is based on what factor(s)? Select all that apply.
Diameter of the nerve
Depth of the nerve
Phase duration of the current
39
When attempting to achieve motor-level stimulation, what are the primary pulse characteristics that determine the quality of the muscle contraction? Select all that apply.
Phase duration
Intensity
Pulse frequency
40
When using electrical stimulation to address strength, which functional loads placed on the muscle have the potential to increase strength? Select all that apply.
30 percent of the maximum voluntary isometric contraction
40 percent of the maximum voluntary isometric contraction
41
When preparing the patient for a pain-control technique with electrical stimulation, one should ask about caffeine intake. The effectiveness of electrical stimulation on pain control is diminished after how many milligrams of caffeine have been ingested?
200
42
When using a monopolar technique, where is a good area to place the dispersive electrode?
Thigh
43
What electrotherapy agent strictly uses a monophasic current?
High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
44
When applying transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), which protocol provides relief for hours and uses two to four pulses per second?
Low TENS
45
What iontophoresis medication can be used on a heterotopic ossification?
Acetic acid
46
What output modulation of interferential stimulation is analogous to the number of cycles per second?
Beta frequency
47
When attempting to control pain via the gate-control mechanism, what are correct high-voltage pulsed stimulation parameter settings?
Pulse frequency of 60 to 100 pps
48
The primary purpose of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is to control pain by depolarizing what nerves?
Sensory, motor, or proprioceptive
49
What electrical current frequency will experience the least capacitive skin resistance?
5000 Hz
50
When applying iontophoresis with lidocaine, in concentrations up to 50 percent, what is the minimum time of application to anesthetize the skin?
10 min
51
What feature distinguishes microcurrent from other electrical modalities?
Microcurrent does not attempt to excite peripheral nerves.
52
What type of electrical interference occurs when two electrical currents are in perfect phase, meaning the wavelengths are equal and the phases cross the baseline at the same point?
Constructive interference
53
"Russian” stimulation is an excellent method for what purpose?
Decreasing muscular atrophy
54
What is a proper indication for use of neuromuscular electrical stimulation?
Prevention of joint contractures
55
What is an indication for the use of iontophoresis?
Reduction of muscle spasm
56
Most effects of electrical stimulation are the direct result of stimulation to what? Select all that apply.
Sensory nerves
Motor nerves
Muscle fibers
57
Which electrotherapy agents are indicated for muscle disuse atrophy? Select all that apply.
High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
| Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)
58
What are indications for the use of microcurrent electrical stimulation? Select all that apply.
Sprain
Neuropathies
Superficial wound healing
59
Why is neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) able to provide stronger neuromuscular stimulation? Select all that apply.
Large amplitude
| Long phase duration
60
Which of the following are indications for the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation? Select all that apply.
Acute pain
| Postsurgical pain
61
According to the practical evidence, in comparison to intermittent compression, constant compression units are primarily used for what two purposes?
Preventing swelling and assisting in venous return
62
Which statement is true concerning the pressure gradient created by the application of external compression?
Spreading solid edematous matter over a larger area with external compression allows more lymphatic ducts to absorb the wastes.
63
When using external compression to treat lower leg edema, pressures of _______ have been shown to increase venous flow by 175 percent.
35 to 55 mm Hg
64
Where on the foot does external compression need to be applied to successfully reduce foot edema?
Plantar aspect
65
Excess fluids that build up within a joint can lead to what inhibitory reflex?
Arthrogenic muscle inhibition
66
When treating lymphedema, what is the typical treatment time of intermittent compression?
Several hours
67
What is the normal pressure range when using intermittent compression to treat the upper extremity?
30 to 60 mm Hg
68
Which statement is true concerning the evidence of intermittent compression?
Research on the optimal treatment duration and duty cycle for reducing lymphedema is inconclusive.
69
When using intermittent compression to treat lymphedema, what is the common duration of treatment?
Several hours
70
When applying intermittent compression for long periods of time, which of the following should be checked regularly?
Capillary refill and unexpected pitting edema
71
T/F: Protein-rich matter is more responsive to intermittent compression than fluids
False
72
T/F: Intermittent compression is substantially more effective at treating lymphedema than post-traumatic edema.
False
73
T/F: Circumferential compression applies an equal amount of pressure to all parts of the extremity simultaneously.
True
74
T/F: There is an increase in venous blood flow from the leg when sequential compression is applied to the foot and leg when compared to intermittent compression of the calf alone.
True
75
T/F: The primary contraindications to intermittent compression are associated with the significant increase in flow through the venous system.
False
76
Compression units should not be used until what pathologies have been ruled out? Select all that apply.
Fracture
| Compartment syndrome
77
When subacute or chronic conditions exist, what is an intermittent or sequential compression unit best used for? Select all that apply.
Reducing edema
| Decreasing ecchymosis
78
Through what mechanism(s) does external compression reduce pain? Select all that apply.
Decreasing mechanical pressure
Restoring normal joint ROM
Restoring normal joint function
79
Which are contraindications to the application of intermittent compression? Select all that apply.
PVD
Arteriosclerosis
Thrombophlebitis
80
Which are indications for the use of intermittent compression as a treatment? Select all that apply.
Post-traumatic edema
Postsurgical edema
Prevention of DVT
81
While continuous passive motion can be used on many different joints, what joint is it predominantly used with?
Knee
82
The design of what continuous passive motion device is similar to manually moving the patient’s limb through a range of motion?
Free linkage design
83
What continuous passive motion design is most suitable for use with the knee?
Anatomic design
84
Which form of continuous passive motion device allows for compensatory motion between the patient’s extremity and the carriage of the device?
Non-anatomic design
85
Which option below best represents the philosophy regarding the effects of continuous passive motion?
Motion that is never lost need never be regained. It is the regaining of movement that is painful.
86
Throughout a range of motion, when is joint volume normally at its greatest?
Full extension
87
According to the practical evidence, knee flexion and knee extension motion is increased only _________ when continuous passive motion is used following knee arthroplasty?
2 to 3 degrees
88
Which of the following is not a benefit realized through the use of continuous passive motion?
Increased strength
89
The application of continuous passive motion is thought to stimulate the circulation of synovial fluid, which enhances the uptake of nutrients by what tissue in the knee?
Meniscal cartilage and articular cartilage
90
The passive movements and elevation of the body part are components of continuous passive motion that increase which factors?
Venous and lymphatic return
91
Continuous passive motion can possibly provide pain reduction via the gate mechanism, which occurs from the stimulation of afferent nerves located in what tissues?
Skin, joint, and muscle
92
After surgery, continuous passive motion is typically used for _______ hours a day.
6 to 8
93
T/F: The decision to use continuous passive motion should be based on the specific pathology to be treated.
False
94
T/F: Continuous passive motion is more effective than static stretching when increasing range of motion due to soft tissue restriction.
True
95
T/F: When compared to faster speeds, slower speeds of continuous passive motion are theorized to produce better tensile properties of healing tendons.
False
96
Robert Salter originally proposed the use of continuous passive motion and hypothesized that its application would be beneficial in which ways? Select all that apply.
Enhancing the nutrition and metabolic activity of articular cartilage
Stimulating tissue remodeling and regrowth of articular cartilage
Accelerating the healing of articular cartilage, tendons, and ligaments
97
Which of the following is reduced during the realignment of collagen that occurs with the use of continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.
Functional shortening of collagen
Cross-linking of collagen
Capsular adhesions
98
The pumping action created by continuous passive motion circulates synovial fluid and assists in the removal of what? Select all that apply.
Joint hemarthrosis
Periarticular edema
Blood from tissue surrounding the joint
99
Which are considered contraindications to the use of continual passive motion? Select all that apply.
Unstable fracture
| Uncontrolled infection
100
Which of the following are indications to treat with continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.
After joint arthroplasty
Joint contracture
Thrombophlebitis
After meniscectomy
101
Which modality is considered one of the oldest healing techniques?
Massage
102
Due to the possibility of misuse, many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?
Licensure
103
Which form of massage is described as a stroking of the skin?
Effleurage
104
What type of effleurage stroke encourages blood flow and stimulates the tissues?
Rapid strokes
105
What type of massage uses the thumbs or fingertips to stroke the tissue from opposite directions while targeting the underlying tissue structure to treat trigger points, tendinitis, or postsurgical scars?
Transverse friction massage
106
When performing ischemic compression, the amount of pressure applied should be determined by the patient’s tolerance. On a scale of 1 to 10, what level should not be exceeded?
7 or 8
107
“Sports massage” is a broad term that is used to describe the combination of what massage techniques?
Effleurage, petrissage, and friction massage
108
What describes the proper procedure when performing the active assistive technique of “sports massage”?
Distal to proximal and perpendicular to the muscle fibers
109
Which of the following accurately describes a general form of myofascial release application?
Stabilize the superior with one hand while stretching with the other.
110
What is the most fundamental form of myofascial release?
J-stroke
111
Which is an accurate statement regarding self-myofascial release?
The athlete should roll perpendicular to the muscle fiber direction.
112
The active release technique of myofascial release can be very painful and should be limited to ____ glides per treatment, with a minimum of ______ hours between treatments.
3; 48
113
Which basic massage stroke is typically applied to increase blood flow and provide systemic invigoration of tissues?
Neuromuscular stroke
114
Which of the following is an indication for the use of friction massage and not petrissage?
Realignment of scar tissue
115
Which of the following is an indication for the use of therapeutic massage?
Pain-spasm cycle
116
Which of the following are contraindications to the use of therapeutic massage? Select all that apply.
Varicose veins
Thrombophlebitis
Arteriosclerosis
117
What are the different types of trigger points? Select all that apply.
Myofascial
Cutaneous
Fascial
Ligamentous
118
Petrissage includes what actions? Select all that apply.
Lifting
Kneading
Rolling
119
Which are goals of a deep stroking effleurage? Select all that apply.
Elongate muscle
| Promote movement of fluid through veins and lymph vessels
120
In general, massage is an effective treatment for what conditions? Select all that apply.
Reduce muscle spasm
Promote relaxation
Improve blood flow
Increase venous drainage
121
According the Food and Drug Administration’s Center for Devices and Radiological Health Laser Classification System, what class of laser has an output that does not exceed 1 mW and may produce visible light?
Class 1
122
Which type of therapeutic laser produces a wavelength of 488 nm and a blue light band?
Argon
123
Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?
Vasodilation of microvessels
124
Lasers produce highly refined, _____________ light in the ultraviolet, visible, or infrared range.
Monochromatic
125
What laser wavelength is associated with infrared light?
Greater than 780 nm
126
In the United States, which of the following laser wavelengths is in the range considered to be therapeutic?
1000 nm
127
Which laser feature identifies the fact that the beam of the laser does not tend to diverge as it travels through space?
Collimated
128
According to the practical evidence, which type of laser is considered to be the most effective for stimulating tissue healing?
Helium-neon
129
Which statement is true concerning a gallium arsenide (GaAs) laser?
GaAs is produced by a semiconductor diode chip
130
In general, acute conditions are commonly treated with what laser output?
Less than 0.5 J/cm2
131
Current evidence suggests that the biophysical benefits of laser are related to what?
Photomechanical or photochemical effects
132
T/F: In general, low-pulse frequencies are used to promote tissue healing when applying laser therapy.
True
133
T/F: According to the practical evidence, laser with a wavelength of 670 nm has demonstrated effectiveness in the short-term relief of pain associated with lateral epicondylalgia.
False
134
T/F: Laser is often used to assist in the healing of deep wounds, including surgical incisions and severe burns.
False
135
T/F: Effects of laser therapy that occur from the absorption of photons are termed “indirect effects.”
False
136
T/F: Longer laser wavelengths penetrate deeper into tissues than shorter wavelengths.
True
137
The Food and Drug Administration has approved low-level laser therapy for treatment of what conditions? Select all that apply.
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Musculoskeletal shoulder pain
Musculoskeletal neck pain
138
Which of the following contraindicate the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.
Application over the thyroid
| Application over DVT
139
While the efficacy has not been substantiated, which of the following represent indications for the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.
Osteoarthritis
Fibromyalgia
Fracture healing
140
Laser production requires what essential components? Select all that apply.
Amplifying medium
Mechanism for exciting medium
Reflective mirror
Partially reflective mirror
