Final Practice Questions Flashcards

Include Exam 2 in Studying (54 cards)

1
Q

What is dementia?

A

A disease process involving progressive decline in cognitive function and memory loss

Over 170 types of dementias exist, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common.

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2
Q

How is dementia treated?

A

Pharmacotherapy and person-centred care

Medications can help with chemical changes but not structural changes.

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3
Q

What are cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Medications like donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine that stop the breakdown of acetylcholine

They show modest improvement in cognition, function, and behavior.

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4
Q

What is the role of memantine in treating Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Blocks the pathological effects of abnormal glutamate release

It is indicated for moderate to severe Alzheimer’s and shown to slow cognitive decline.

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5
Q

What is the main function of the thalamus?

A

Major relay centre for almost all sensory information prior to reaching the cerebrum.

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6
Q

What are the four major lobes of the cerebrum?

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Temporal
  • Occipital
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7
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Coordinates fine motor movements, maintains balance and posture.

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Tremor
  • Rigidity
  • Akinesia
  • Bradykinesia
  • Postural instability
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9
Q

What is the primary cause of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the basal ganglia.

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10
Q

What does the blood-brain barrier do?

A

Limits movement of substances into the CNS, allowing only lipophilic substances to cross.

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11
Q

What is the role of the basal nuclei?

A

Regulates starting and stopping of skeletal muscle movements and assists with cognitive functions.

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12
Q

What does the reticular activating system (RAS) do?

A

Promotes wakefulness and alertness; inhibits sleepiness and drowsiness.

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13
Q

What are common risks associated with acute care admissions for patients with dementia?

A
  • Delay to diagnosis
  • Increased incidence of delirium, falls, and infections
  • Increased length of stay
  • Increased mortality
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14
Q

What are dopamine agonists?

A

Medications that directly stimulate dopamine receptors

Examples include bromocriptine and pramipexole.

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: Alzheimer’s disease accounts for approximately _______ of all dementias.

A

70%

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16
Q

What is the primary function of the hypothalamus?

A

Major visceral control centre for hunger, thirst, body temperature, and regulation of sympathetic functions.

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17
Q

What characterizes Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

Demyelination of neurons affecting both sensory and motor branches.

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18
Q

What are the early signs of Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Visual disturbances
  • Paresthesia
  • Bladder control problems
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19
Q

What are some causes of seizures?

A
  • Infectious diseases
  • Trauma
  • Metabolic disorders
  • Vascular disease
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20
Q

True or False: All convulsions are seizures.

A

True

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21
Q

How do seizures typically progress?

A

They have a beginning (aura), middle (ictus), and end (post-ictal period).

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22
Q

What is the ‘on-off’ phenomenon in Parkinson’s Disease?

A

A long-term adverse effect where symptoms fluctuate between control and uncontrolled states.

23
Q

What are the main functions of the limbic system?

A
  • Emotional states
  • Learning
  • Memory
24
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognition affected by Alzheimer’s?

A

Acetylcholine

25
What is the role of GABA as a neurotransmitter?
Always inhibitory
26
What is the period referred to as after a seizure?
Post-ictal period ## Footnote An ictus is a seizure.
27
What are some known causes of seizures?
* Fever (rapid, febrile) * Infectious disease * Trauma * Metabolic disorder * Pediatric disorder * Vascular disease * Neoplastic disease
28
What is epilepsy?
Any disorder in which a client experiences recurrent seizures.
29
What percentage of epilepsy cases are idiopathic?
More than 50%.
30
How are seizures categorized?
Based on symptoms and distribution of abnormal activity in the brain (generalized onset vs. partial onset).
31
What are the two types of partial (focal) seizures?
* Simple partial * Complex partial
32
What characterizes simple partial seizures?
Regional symptoms including motor and non-motor symptoms.
33
What is a complex partial seizure?
Altered level of consciousness, often with aura, may include motor, sensory, and autonomic symptoms.
34
What are generalized seizures?
Multiple foci that spread abnormal neuronal discharges across both hemispheres of the brain simultaneously.
35
What are absence seizures?
Staring and transient loss of consciousness, usually in children, lasting a few seconds.
36
What are atonic seizures also known as?
Drop attacks.
37
What characterizes tonic-clonic seizures?
Aura, intense muscle contraction, and loss of consciousness.
38
What is status epilepticus?
Series of generalized seizures that occur without full recovery of consciousness between attacks.
39
What are the risks associated with status epilepticus?
Respiratory arrest leading to hypoxia and potential brain damage.
40
What is a medical emergency related to seizures?
Status epilepticus.
41
What are some treatments used for status epilepticus?
* Cerbyx * Ativan * Valium IV * Oxygen and airway device/intubation * IV hydration using glucose
42
What are the four mechanisms of action for drugs used to treat seizures?
* Increasing stimulation of GABA receptors * Reducing Na+ influx into neurons * Reducing Ca+2 influx into neurons * Blocking glutamate receptors
43
What are barbiturates primarily indicated for?
Tonic-clonic seizures.
44
What is gabapentin indicated for?
Partial seizures.
45
What are hydantoins indicated for?
All seizures except absence.
46
What is IVIG therapy?
Intravenous immunoglobulin that works to suppress inflammation related to neurological disorders.
47
What is the ketogenic therapy?
A rigid, mathematically calculated, doctor-supervised diet for controlling seizures.
48
Who is a candidate for ketogenic therapy?
Individuals with uncontrolled seizures that have failed at least two medications.
49
What is the primary energy source shifted by the ketogenic diet?
Fat-based (ketones) instead of sugar-based (glucose).
50
What are potential side effects of the ketogenic diet?
* Lack of weight gain * Slightly decreased growth * High cholesterol * Constipation * Kidney stones * Acidosis
51
What is important for client adherence in seizure management?
Following directions for administering anti-seizure medications.
52
What should be done during a seizure?
* Keep calm * Time the seizure * Clear the area of hard objects * Place something soft under the head * Turn the patient onto one side
53
What are immediate potential injuries from seizures?
* Lacerations * Bruises * Burns * Head trauma * Fractures * Drowning/near drowning
54
What should be documented during seizure observation?
What happened before, during, and after the event.