Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What controls the BSG?

A

BCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of the VIGVs?

A
  • Maintain efficiency of the compressor by…
  • controlling the amount of air entering the compressor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The pilot has APU written on the PFD, what does this mean?

A
  • The #1 Engine is acting as an APU
  • Has the Eng1 Drive selected to ACC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The pilot sees a blinking 2.5m on the PFD, what else appears?

A

[1(2) ENG LIM EXPIRE]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of the Crank?

A

Spring loaded switch which cranks the selected engine without ignition
- Maintenance
- Prime engine fuel system
- To cool engine post exhaust fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is on the triple tacho?

A
  • NF1
  • NR
  • NF2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 parameters of the PI?

A

Composite of the three primary engine parameters:
- Ng
- ITT
- Tq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What engines are fitted?

A

PW 210-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the aircraft monitor the performance of the Fuel filter?

A

Px difference measured and displayed in the cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does fuel arrive at the FCU?

A

Via suction of the engine driven LP fuel pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of the Fuel Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE)?

A
  • Pre-heats fuel
  • Prevents ice forming in the fuel filter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When are the IGNITERS de energised?

A

50% Ng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MTOW?

A

4600kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What alert on the CAS do you get with a Baggage Bay fire?

A
  • [BAG FIRE]
  • “WARNING, WARNING”
    Not spoken warning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What fire indication, if any is on the Fire Detection/Extinguishing control panel?

A

FIRE illuminated on the relevant button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is fitted so that content of either bottle can be discharged into either engine?

A

Double Check Tee Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does ONLY VENT provide in the EDCU ESC page?

A

Enables control of the ventilation fan speeds only, with no heating control available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to the ECS bleed valves with loss of power?

A

They close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens if you select the EMER LTS push button on the CLCP?

A

All internal and external lights ON.
- 2 internal
- 2 externals
(Powered by the EPSU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do the storm lights provide?

A
  • 2 white, non-dimmable LED lights
  • Non-NVG compatible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is fuel spillage prevented during an aircraft rollover?

A

Snorkels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much flight time do you have when the fuel is below the interconnect
(in the collector cells)

A

-160Kg
-50mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In order to activate the Fuel SOV in the EDCU what condition must the engine be in?

A

OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the advisory [ENG 1(2) FIRE ARMED] mean in the EDCU Fuel SOV page?

A

Fuel SOV has been commanded to activate when the FIRE ARMED is active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Min speed to activate NAV
40kts
26
How is NLOC achieved?
- FMS 1/2 selected as primary Nav source on PFD - Then APP is selected on the ACP
27
Below what height does V/S disengage in a descent?
200ft
28
Where do the AFCS Modes appear?
AFCS Annunciations are presented above the PFI
29
What is the authority of the MRA SCAS Actuator?
+/- 10%
30
Under what height will the ALTA not work and will go to RHT?
200ft (300ft in ECL)
31
With the AFCS off, the pilot presses the WLVL button - what happens? How is it disengaged?
+6° nose up 0° roll Followed by ALT Disengaged by pressing ATT button and then selecting another mode
32
Where can you find the AP OFF button
Cyclic
33
How can you adjust and select ALTA?
- Set by rotating ALTA knob - press to engage
34
How many switches??????
4
35
When is “DECISION HEIGHT” annunciation and aural warning inhibited?
During takeoff until RALT is greater than DH +10’
36
Which system is the ADF associated with?
NAV2
37
How long does the SVS take to initialise?
180 seconds
38
How do you test the RADALT?
1. Press RA TEST button on the DH knob 2. TEST will annunciate vertically beside the RALT tape for 15s 2. Will show 50’/50’ & vertical tape 50ft to show PASS.
39
How do you interface with the HTAWS?
Virtual Control Panel
40
What does a hollow pitch ref bug mean?
It’s changing
41
What is the minimum height of man-made objects in the SVS?
>50ft
42
How do you set the Heading to Tru/Mag?
EDCU settings
43
You suffer a TR actuator failure what happens to the SCAS?
It will become non-functioning
44
What level does the TRSOV close in Hyd 1?
55%
45
What happens to the power during the ignition phase of starting?
Ignition Exciter converts low voltage to high voltage (3000V) sparks to ignite fuel/air mix in the combustion chamber
46
How do you change the squelch?
Squelch toggle on EDCU VHF Page
47
The basic communication system comprises? (2)
- ICS - 2 x VHF Radios
48
What temp triggers an overheat in the VHF?
160°C
49
Where are the VHF antennae located?
1. Upper 2. Lower
50
Under what circumstance cause a EMERGENCY MODE in the ACP be activated?
When the AMU detects loss of communication with one of the two pilot ACPs
51
During total loss of AMMS (double AMMC) failure how can you guarantee use of the radio?
Selecting RADIO BACKUP on the EDCU Operates via the ARINC 429
52
What are the elastomeric made from?
laminate of metallic and elastomeric shims vulcanised together
53
What is the purpose of the tension links
Torsional Toads
54
Where can the wipers be activated?
- Modes self via EDCU - Wipers activated by cyclic WIPER button
55
How can you control the pitot heat?
EDCU
56
Where is the EMER bus bar located?
Behind the EMER CB panel
57
What takes the ESS bus bar loads during engine start?
AUX BATTERY
58
How is gas vented from the batteries?
Battery case incorporates vent ports for tubing to route gasses overboard
59
How can the virtual circuit breakers be controlled?
EDCU
60
Where is the EXT PWR recipticle located?
Aft of right sponson
61
Where are the BSG’s located?
On the ERG of the engine (Engine reduction gearbox)
62
What is the interface between the SSEPMs and the pilot? (Solid State Electrical Power Management System)
EDCU
63
When do you get [ROTOR HIGH] warning?
Where the permitted rotor speed is exceeded by 2%
64
How many oil pumps fitted on the MGB?
2
65
How many times can you activate the chip burner?
6 times
66
What section 6 of the RFM?
Weight & Balance
67
What is section 4 of the RFM?
Performance Data
68
When will you get “AIRSPEED AIRSPEED”?
- VNE exceedance
69
What is the aircrew interface with the DTD?
Via the DTD function keys
70
What colour does the EDCU when it is working on something (like testing)?
Cyan
71
What are the priorities of the CAS?
- WARNINGS - CAUTIONS - ADVISORIES - STATUS MESSAGES
72
Where are the DCPs located?
Between the PFDs and MFDs
73
What is the purpose of the CCJs?
Allows manipulation of the MFD without the pilot removing his hands from the controls
74
Something about warnings, cautions
5 seconds
75
What colour is the alert on the EDCU?
Red alert triangle with MSG below
76
What are the W&B charts in Section 6 of the RFM?
A - Equipment list B - Helicopter Weighing Record C - Basic Weight & Balance Record D - Data for helicopter Weight & Balance computation E - Weight & Balance computation
77
How long will the ULB last for?
30 days
78
Where is the ADALT located?
Baggage compartment
79
What is contained within the ADALT Configuration Unit?
Aircraft Identification
80
What does the Tail Rotor do?
- Provide anti-torque - Yaw control - Balanced flight in the cruise
81
How can VDAM data be taken?
DTD
82
Where is the brake fluid reservoir?
Nose
83
How many brakes are there and where are they located?
2 MLG
84
Where is the aircraft weight sensor?
One on each L/G Nose & Main
85
What conditions have to be satisfied in order to retract the gear?
- Nose wheel Locked - Nose wheel centred - WOW not active