Final Review Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

In evaluating the reasonableness of an accounting estimate, an auditor most likely would concentrate on methods and significant assumptions that are: Deviations from…

A

Historical patterns

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2
Q

A period during which GDP is rising and unemployment is falling is called a(n):
A. Recession.
B. Peak.
C. Expansion.
D. Trough.

A

Expansion

Economic phases are Trough, Expansion, Peak, and Recession

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3
Q

An auditor would be least likely to consider with respect to fair values: The effect on fair value measurement and disclosure of information available…

A

Subsequent to the audit

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4
Q

When an employee is a cashier but also has custody over cash and is also performing the reconciliation, this is called a Control Deficiency in…

A

Design

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5
Q

What is not a primary factor affecting the efficiency and effectiveness of substantive analytical procedures in detecting misstatements? Applying analytical procedures to assertions where misstatements are…

A

Apparent

Analytical procedures work best when misstatements aren’t obvious from detailed reviews.

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6
Q

Which of the following is true about using analytical procedures as a substantive test? Analytical procedures are ________ required as a substantive test and are more effective for predictable accounts.

A

Not

Analytical procedures work best when accounts follow consistent patterns, making deviations easier to spot.

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7
Q

In directional testing an auditor in order to ensure that an asset has not been overstated, an auditor may want to look at the…

A

Source Documentation

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8
Q

After confirming a related party transaction, what should an auditor do? ____________ the business purpose of the transaction

A

Understand

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9
Q

Which audit procedure is not used to test valuation, allocation, and accuracy? ___________ transactions to supporting documentation

A

Vouching

This is because auditors recalculate, reconcile, or foot account balances to test valuation. (RRF)

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10
Q

What must a report say when financial statements of a nonissuer are reviewed? That they are less in _______ than an audit.

A

Scope

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11
Q

What is a key control for ensuring sales are properly authorized? Sales orders are ______________by the ________department before processing.

A

Approved, Credit

This ensures customers have the ability to pay, reducing financial risk before fulfilling the order.

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12
Q

After obtaining an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its system of internal control, an auditor decided to perform tests of controls. This is likely because: The auditor’s ____________ is based on the effective ______________________.

A

Risk assessment, operation of controls

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13
Q

An auditor most likely would issue a disclaimer of opinion due to: _____________ refusal to furnish a client representation letter.

A

Management’s

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14
Q

Which of the following factors is most relevant when an auditor considers the client’s organizational structure in the context of control risk? The suitability of the client’s _________________.

A

Lines of reporting.

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15
Q

An auditor is planning to use substantive analytical procedures in the current audit. Which of the following is not a primary factor affecting their efficiency and effectiveness in detecting misstatements? Misstatements that are _____________ from detailed evidence

A

Obvious

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16
Q

An accountant’s working papers for an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonpublic entity would be least likely to include which of the following forms of documentation?

A

Study and evaluation of internal control.

17
Q

Which of the following procedures regarding notes payable would an accountant most likely perform during a nonissuer’s review engagement?

A

Making inquiries of management regarding maturities, interest rate, and collateral.

17
Q

An accountant’s working papers for an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonpublic entity would be least likely to include which of the following forms of documentation?

A

Study and evaluation of internal control

Because the accountant is not required to obtain an understanding of internal control or to assess control risk.

18
Q

In an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonissuer, the accountant most likely would perform which of the following procedures?

A

Analysis of inventory turnover.

19
Q

Evidence came to Baker’s attention that indicated substantial doubt as to Hall’s ability to continue as a going concern. Based on the review evidence obtained, Baker concludes that management’s plans alleviate the substantial doubt. Which of the following statements best describes Baker’s reporting responsibility concerning this matter?

A

Baker is not required to modify the accountant’s review report.

20
Q

Which of the following strategies most likely could improve the response rate of the confirmation of accounts receivable?

A

Including a list of items or invoices that constitute the account balance.

21
Q

When determining the nature, extent, and timing of supervision for an audit, the audit supervisor may consider all of the following, except for which factor?

A

The assistant’s familiarity with the client’s industry.

22
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the use of negative confirmation requests?

A

Unreturned negative confirmation requests rarely provide significant explicit evidence.

23
Q

A weakness in internal control over recording retirements of equipment may cause an auditor to:

A

Select certain items of equipment from the accounting records and locate them in the plant.

24
In using the work of a specialist, an auditor referred to the specialist's findings in the auditor's report. This would be an appropriate reporting practice if the:
Auditor, as a result of the specialist's findings, adds an explanatory paragraph in a modified opinion emphasizing a matter regarding the financial statements.
25
The audit plan usually cannot be finalized until the:
Consideration of the entity's system of internal control has been completed.
26
The COSO Cube is used to illustrate the relationship between:
Categories of objectives, internal control components, and entity organizational levels.
27
As part of the current audit, the auditor performs a preliminary review of a large client’s internal controls over accounts receivable. Which of the items below would the auditor flag as an internal control weakness over accounts receivable?
An aging schedule is prepared and all accounts ninety days or more are written off with prior authorization of the controller.
28
In the integrated audit of an issuer, an auditor has identified entity-level controls that are important to the conclusion as to whether the company has effective internal control over financial reporting. Each of the following is an example of an entity-level control, except:
Controls over the completeness of deposited cash.
29
An accountant who is conducting a review of the unaudited financial statements of a nonissuer in accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services would be required to:
Obtain a management representation letter.
30
Under U.S. auditing standards, in which of the following situations would an auditor ordinarily issue an unmodified audit opinion without an emphasis-of-matter paragraph?
The auditor decides to make reference to the audit of a component auditor as a basis, in part, for the auditor's opinion in the audit of a nonissuer.
31
Which of the following is not a control environment factor?
Proper segregation of duties Policies and procedures involving segregation of duties are control activities, not control environment factors.
32
An auditor finds that a client has recorded a lower credit loss allowance than the acceptable range. What adjustment should be proposed?
Since the client's allowance ($800,000) is lower than the auditor's minimum acceptable range ($1.5 million), the difference is $700,000. The auditor will propose: Debit: Credit loss expense $700,000 Credit: Allowance for credit losses $700,000 This adjustment corrects the understatement to align with acceptable accounting standards.
33
A client asks their CPA to change an audit into a compilation. What must the CPA consider before agreeing?
The CPA must consider how much work remains to complete the audit and the reason behind the request. If the audit is nearly finished, they should assess whether the request is reasonable.
34
When assessing an internal auditor's objectivity, an independent auditor should:
Consider the organizational level to which the internal auditor reports.
35
Analytical procedures used in the planning phase of an audit should focus on:
Enhancing the auditor's understanding of the transactions and events that have occurred since the last audit.
36
A CPA is drafting the current year's auditor report for financial statements that include the prior year's statements, but the prior auditor’s report (which had a qualified opinion) is not presented. What must the new auditor include in their report?
Not name the predecessor auditor unless their practice was acquired or merged. Indicate the type of report issued by the predecessor auditor. Explain the substantive reasons for the predecessor auditor’s qualification. This ensures transparency about the prior audit findings while properly addressing comparative statements.
37