Final Review Ch7-10 Flashcards
(212 cards)
1
Q
What is the effect of diabetes on white blood cell function?
A
WBC function is affected, leading to reduced phagocytic activity in macrophages, delayed chemotaxis in neutrophils, and adversely affected lymphocyte function.
This increases susceptibility to infection.
2
Q
What happens to collagen production in chronic hypoglycemia?
A
Collagen production is abnormal, impairing healing and contributing to periodontal disease.
3
Q
What is primary hyperparathyroidism characterized by?
A
- Hypercalcemia: Elevated blood levels of calcium
- Hypophosphatemia: Low levels of blood phosphorus
- Abnormal bone metabolism
4
Q
What are the causes of hypothyroidism?
A
- Developmental disturbances
- Autoimmune destruction of thyroid (Hashimoto thyroiditis)
- Iodine deficiency
- Drugs
5
Q
What are the clinical features of hyperparathyroidism?
A
- Mild cases may be asymptomatic
- Joint pain or stiffness
- Severe cases may cause lethargy and coma
- Stones, bones, and abdominal groans
6
Q
What are the oral manifestations of hyperparathyroidism?
A
- Loosening of teeth
- Well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies
- ‘Ground glass’ appearance and loss of lamina dura
7
Q
What is the most common treatment for hyperthyroidism?
A
Radioactive iodine is the most common treatment in adults.
8
Q
What characterizes hyperpituitarism?
A
Excess hormone production by the anterior pituitary gland, often due to a benign tumor (pituitary adenoma) producing growth hormone.
9
Q
What is acromegaly?
A
Acromegaly results from hypersecretion of growth hormone occurring during adult life.
10
Q
What is the primary cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A
Kidney failure, leading to abnormal calcium excretion and increased PTH production.
11
Q
What is osteomalacia?
A
Softening of the bones due to vitamin D deficiency, which can be induced by certain tumors.
12
Q
What are the three cardinal features of temporomandibular disorders (TMDs)?
A
- Orofacial pain
- Joint noise
- Restricted jaw function
13
Q
What imaging techniques are used for TMD evaluation?
A
- Panoramic
- Transcranial
- Tomography
- Computed tomography
- Magnetic resonance imaging
- Arthrography
14
Q
What is myofascial pain and dysfunction?
A
A condition characterized by dysfunctional muscle hyperactivity, regional pain, tenderness, and variable amounts of reduced opening.
15
Q
What is the role of insulin in the body?
A
Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose into fat and skeletal muscle, serving as an energy source.
16
Q
What are the common causes of hyperthyroidism?
A
- Graves disease (autoimmune disorder)
- Thyroid hyperplasia
- Tumors
- Pituitary gland disease
- Metastatic tumors
17
Q
What is the difference between primary and secondary hypothyroidism?
A
Primary hypothyroidism arises from an abnormal thyroid gland, while secondary hypothyroidism is due to insufficient TSH production by the pituitary gland.
18
Q
Fill in the blank: Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by abnormally high blood glucose levels, also known as _______.
A
hyperglycemia
19
Q
True or False: The thyroid gland enlarges in hyperthyroidism.
A
True
20
Q
What are the clinical features of hyperthyroidism?
A
- Thyroid enlargement (goiter)
- Rosy complexion
- Excessive sweating
- Exophthalmos
- Anxiety and restlessness
21
Q
What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism focused on?
A
Correcting the cause of increased hormone production, such as tumors or renal disease.
22
Q
What are the forms of surgical treatment for TMD?
A
- Arthrocentesis
- Arthroscopy
- Open joint surgery
- Eminentectomy
23
Q
What systemic diseases are associated with TMD?
A
- Depression
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Chronic fatigue syndrome
- Fibromyalgia
24
Q
What is arthrocentesis?
A
Lavaging the joint through a needle
25
What is arthroscopy?
Allows direct visualization and manipulation of the joint
26
What is open joint surgery used for?
To perform disk reconstruction with a prosthetic device or autogenous graft
27
What is eminectomy?
Removal of the articular eminence of the temporal bone
28
What does the second phase of nonsurgical treatment involve?
Use of occlusal appliances
29
What are the goals of nonsurgical treatment for temporomandibular joint disorders?
Improving function and reducing pain
30
What types of pharmacologic therapy are used in nonsurgical treatment?
* Pain medication
* Muscle relaxants
* Antianxiety agents
31
What are some nonsurgical treatment methods for temporomandibular joint disorders?
* Moist heat
* Physical therapy
* Soft mechanical diet
* Jaw stretching
* Coordination exercises
* Occlusal adjustments
32
What are the main categories of treatment for temporomandibular joint disorders?
* Nonsurgical treatment
* Surgical treatment
* Multidisciplinary treatment
33
What is osteochondroma?
A type of tumor of the temporomandibular joint
34
What is synovial chondromatosis?
Most common benign neoplasm of the synovium
35
What is an osteogenic sarcoma?
Commonly occurring malignant bone tumor
36
What is ankylosis?
Immobility of the condyle caused by fibrous or bony union between articulating surfaces
37
What percentage of joint infections after trauma accounts for all cases of ankylosis?
50%
38
How is ankylosis classified?
* Tissue type (fibrous, bony)
* Location (intraarticular, extraarticular)
* Extent of fusion (complete, incomplete)
39
What is dislocation in the context of hypermobility disorders?
When one or both of the condyles translates anterior to the articular eminence
40
What is subluxation?
Hypermobility in which the patient can relocate the mandible back into the glenoid fossa
41
What is osteoarthritis characterized by?
Degenerative changes of the cartilage
42
What are common symptoms of osteoarthritis?
* Pain symptoms worse in the evening
* Limited opening
* Muscle splinting
* Crepitus
43
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
An inflammatory, immunologic disorder of the joints
44
What symptoms are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
* Symptoms worse in the morning
* Limited opening
* Occlusal changes
* Preauricular edema
* Tenderness
45
What is disk displacement with reduction?
Displaced anteriorly and returns to normal position when the mouth is opened
46
What problems may patients experience with disk displacement without reduction?
* Intermittent locking of the jaw
* Sudden onset of limited mouth opening
* Cessation of joint sounds
* Deflection of the mandible
* Restricted lateral excursive movements
47
What is an aneurysmal bone cyst?
A pseudocyst most common in the mandibular posterior region
48
What are the clinical features of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
* Blood-filled spaces
* Multinucleated giant cells
* Fibrous connective tissue
49
What is florid cemento-osseous dysplasia?
A condition of disordered cementum and bone development
50
Who is most affected by florid cemento-osseous dysplasia?
Black women older than 40 years
51
What is the treatment for focal cemento-osseous dysplasia?
None; follow-up is essential
52
What is fibrous dysplasia?
A developmental disease characterized by replacement of bone with abnormal fibrous connective tissue
53
What genetic mutation is associated with fibrous dysplasia?
GNAS gene
54
What are the types of fibrous dysplasia?
* Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
* Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
55
What is monostotic fibrous dysplasia?
Characterized by involvement of a single bone
56
What is polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?
Characterized by involvement of more than one bone
57
What is the prognosis for severe and progressive polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?
No treatment exists; radiation treatment is contraindicated
58
What is a central giant cell granuloma?
A nonneoplastic, intraosseous lesion of unclear pathogenesis
59
What are the complications of Paget disease of bone?
* Fracture of the involved bone
* Development of malignant tumors
* Heart disease (rare)
60
What is the treatment for Paget disease of bone?
Bisphosphonate
61
What is the significance of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase in Paget disease?
It is significantly elevated in active disease
62
What types of tumors are included in tumors of blood-forming tissues?
* Leukemia
* Lymphoma
* Multiple myeloma
63
What characterizes leukemia?
Overproduction of atypical white blood cells
64
What are the two forms of leukemia?
* Acute leukemia
* Chronic leukemia
65
What is multiple myeloma?
A systematic, malignant proliferation of plasma cells
66
What is the most common intraoral location for lymphoma?
The tonsils
67
What is the prognosis for metastatic tumors that have spread to the jaws?
Poor prognosis
68
What is dysplasia in the context of bone diseases?
Abnormal and disordered production of cementum and bone
69
What are benign fibro-osseous lesions of the jaws?
Cemento-osseous dysplasia (COD) and fibrous dysplasia
70
What is periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
A relatively common disease affecting periapical bone
71
What is the typical demographic for periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
Most commonly affects black women over 30 years
72
What is the serum alkaline phosphatase level in active disease?
Significantly elevated
## Footnote
This indicates active disease in conditions such as Paget disease of bone.
73
What does histologic examination reveal in active bone disease?
Bony trabeculae surfaced with numerous osteoclasts and osteoblasts
74
What is the treatment for Paget disease of bone?
Bisphosphonate
## Footnote
One intravenous dose of zoledronic acid has been effective in keeping the disease in remission for up to 6 years.
75
What is a characteristic radiographic feature of a central giant cell granuloma?
Multilocular radiolucency in the maxilla or mandible
76
What are common features of a central giant cell granuloma?
Pain (not common), slow-growing, destructive, unilocular or multilocular radiolucency, sclerotic or ill-defined borders, divergence of roots
77
What is the treatment for a central giant cell granuloma?
Surgical excision
78
What is the gender prevalence for central giant cell granuloma?
Females > males
79
What is the typical appearance of a peripheral giant cell granuloma?
Many multinucleated giant cells, well-vascularized connective tissue, RBCs, and chronic inflammatory cells
80
How does peripheral giant cell granuloma differ from central giant cell granuloma?
Peripheral giant cell granuloma occurs outside of bone, while central giant cell granuloma occurs within bone
81
What is a radiographic feature of Paget disease of bone?
Patchy radiolucency and radiopacity, referred to as 'cotton wool'
82
What is a common complaint of patients with Paget disease of bone?
Pain
83
What is the classic radiographic appearance of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?
Diffuse radiopacity looking like 'ground glass'
84
What are the types of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?
* Craniofacial fibrous dysplasia
* Jaffe type
* Albright syndrome
85
What does McCune-Albright syndrome affect?
Bones, skin, and several hormone-producing tissues
86
What is a key feature of McCune-Albright syndrome?
Endocrine abnormalities, precocious puberty in females
87
What is Paget disease of bone also known as?
Osteitis deformans and leontiasis ossea
88
What is the primary characteristic of Paget disease of bone?
Interference with normal bone recycling process
89
What demographic is most commonly affected by Paget disease of bone?
Men over age 50 years
90
What is a common feature of temporomandibular disorders (TMDs)?
Abnormalities in the function of the joint or associated structures
91
In which age group are TMDs most prevalent?
20 to 40 years of age
92
What is a common pathophysiology associated with TMDs?
Role of female sex hormones
93
What is the hallmark feature of sickle cell anemia?
Pain
94
What are common clinical features of sickle cell anemia?
* Weakness
* Shortness of breath
* Fatigue
* Joint pain
* Nausea
95
What is the primary characteristic of thalassemia?
Inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis
96
What is a common oral manifestation of pernicious anemia?
Angular cheilitis
97
What is the cause of pernicious anemia?
Deficiency in intrinsic factor
98
What type of diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance?
Type 2: Non–Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
99
What is the most common inherited disorder of RBCs?
Sickle Cell Anemia
100
What laboratory test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia?
Schilling test
101
What is the treatment for sickle cell anemia?
* Administration of hydroxyurea
* Blood transfusions
* Administration of oxygen
* Intravenous (IV) fluids
* Oral fluids
102
What is the prognosis for patients with thalassemia?
Poor prognosis, but improving due to advances in treatment
103
What are the blood cell count characteristics in aplastic anemia?
Decrease in all circulating blood cells: Pancytopenia
104
What are common clinical manifestations of aplastic anemia?
* Fatigue
* Weakness
* Low platelets
* Ecchymosis
* Pallor of the oral mucosa
105
What vitamin is needed for DNA synthesis?
Vitamin B12
## Footnote
Essential for cellular function and development.
106
What type of diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance?
Type 2: Non-Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
## Footnote
97% of all diabetic patients have this type.
107
At what age does Type 2 diabetes typically occur?
Usually occurs in patients 35 to 40 years of age or older.
108
What is a common social and cultural factor associated with Type 2 diabetes?
Weight gain.
109
What is the role of dentists and dental hygienists in managing diabetes?
Patient education.
110
Which system is most severely affected in NIDDM?
Vascular system.
111
What are common skin infections associated with NIDDM?
Furuncles and urinary tract infections (UTIs).
112
What condition can atherosclerosis lead to in NIDDM patients?
Impaired circulation, causing ulceration and gangrene of the feet.
113
What is diabetic retinopathy?
A condition that can lead to blindness in NIDDM patients.
114
What is Acanthosis Nigricans?
A skin condition often associated with insulin resistance.
115
List alternative methods of treatment for IDDM.
* Oral hypoglycemic medications
* Transplantation of pancreatic beta cells
* Stem cell infusion
* Insulin pump.
116
What is the typical management approach for patients with Type 1 diabetes?
Multiple insulin injections, proper diet, exercise, and frequent blood glucose monitoring.
117
Define hypoglycemia.
Low blood sugar.
118
What are the symptoms of Type 1 diabetes?
* Polydipsia: Excessive thirst
* Polyuria: Excessive urination
* Polyphagia: Excessive appetite.
119
What defines prediabetes?
Fasting blood glucose between 100 and 125 mg/dL.
120
What is the normal blood glucose range?
70 to 120 mg/dL.
121
What is the significance of a glycosylated hemoglobin level greater than or equal to 6.5%?
It indicates diabetes.
122
What complications can occur with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?
* Blindness
* End-stage kidney failure
* Paresthesia or numbness.
123
What is the most common oral complication of NIDDM?
Oral candidiasis.
124
What is Addison disease?
Primary hypoadrenocorticism caused by adrenal gland destruction.
125
What laboratory tests are indicative of iron deficiency anemia?
Low hemoglobin content and reduced hematocrit.
126
What are the symptoms of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
* Weakness
* Fatigue
* Shortness of breath.
127
What is the most common cause of anemia in the United States?
Iron deficiency anemia.
128
What is a key characteristic of anemia?
A reduction in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
129
What is hypercortisolism also known as?
Cushing Syndrome.
130
What is a major clinical feature of Addison disease?
Bronzing of the skin.
131
What can cause relative polycythemia?
Decreased plasma volume.
132
What are oral manifestations of polycythemia?
* Deep red to purple oral mucosa
* Edematous gingiva that bleeds easily.
133
What is mucositis?
Painful inflammation of the mucous membranes during radiation therapy.
134
What is the diagnosis criteria for hemophilia?
Normal bleeding time and PT, prolonged PTT.
135
What causes spontaneous gingival bleeding in hemophilia?
Deficiency in plasma proteins involved in coagulation.
136
What are the two types of hemophilia?
* Type A: Factor VIII deficiency
* Type B: Factor IX deficiency (Christmas disease).
137
What is the coagulation cascade?
A series of processes where coagulation factors remain inactive until needed.
138
What is medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ)?
A complication associated with bisphosphonate therapy.
139
What are common treatments for oral cancer?
* Surgery
* Radiation therapy
* Chemotherapy.
140
What is openic Purpura?
Bleeding disorders that can result from either a defect in capillary walls or disorders of platelet function
## Footnote
Vitamin C deficiency, infections, chemicals, and allergies may alter vascular walls; drugs, allergy, and autoimmune diseases may affect platelet function.
141
What is the cause of von Willebrand disease?
An autosomal dominant disorder of platelet function
142
What is the normal WBC count range?
4500 to 10,000 cells/microliter
143
What characterizes agranulocytosis?
Marked reduction in WBC count to less than 1000 cells/microliter
144
What are the treatments for agranulocytosis?
* Transfusions
* Antibiotics
* Removal of the cause for the secondary form
145
What is cyclic neutropenia?
An inherited autosomal-dominant condition characterized by a cyclic decrease in the number of circulating neutrophilic leukocytes
146
What gene mutation is associated with cyclic neutropenia?
Mutation of gene ELA-2
147
What are oral manifestations of cyclic neutropenia?
* Gingival inflammation
* Ulceration of tongue
* Ulceration of mucosal tissue
148
What defines leukemia?
Malignant neoplasms of hematopoietic stem cells characterized by excessive abnormal WBCs in circulating blood
149
What are the two types of acute leukemias?
* Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
* Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML)
150
What is a common feature of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?
Involves immature lymphocytes and primarily affects children and young adults
151
What are common clinical features of acute leukemias?
* Sudden onset of fever
* Chills
* Jaundice
* Weakness
* Sore throat
* Oral infection
* Oral necrotizing ulcerations
* Excessive oral bleeding
* Lymphadenopathy
152
What laboratory findings are associated with acute leukemias?
* Elevated WBC count with immature cells
* Anemia
* Low platelet count
153
What is thrombocytopenic purpura?
A bleeding disorder resulting from a severe reduction in circulating platelets
154
What are the laboratory findings in thrombocytopenic purpura?
* Significant decrease in platelets
* Prolonged bleeding time
* Positive capillary fragility test
155
What are clinical manifestations of thrombocytopenic purpura?
* Spontaneous purpuric lesions
* Easy bruising
* Blood in urine
* Frequent nosebleeds
* Spontaneous gingival bleeding
156
What is purpura?
A reddish-blue or purplish discoloration of skin or mucosa from spontaneous extravasation of blood
157
What is the definition of hemostasis?
Cessation of bleeding
158
What is celiac disease?
A chronic disorder associated with sensitivity to dietary gluten leading to malabsorption of nutrients and anemia
159
What oral manifestations are associated with celiac disease?
* Painful burning tongue
* Atrophy of papillae of tongue
* Ulceration of oral mucosa
160
What is the treatment for chronic leukemias?
* Chemotherapy
* Bone marrow transplantation
161
What is the most common type of chronic leukemia?
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
162
What is osteosarcoma?
A malignant tumor of bone-forming tissue and the most common primary malignant tumor of bone in patients less than 40 years old
163
What is the average age of patients with osteosarcoma involving the jaws?
About 37 years
164
What are the common radiographic features of osteosarcoma?
* May vary from radiolucent to radiopaque
* Usually a destructive, poorly defined lesion
* May show a 'sunburst' pattern
165
What is an ameloblastic fibroma?
A benign, rare, nonencapsulated odontogenic tumor occurring in young children and young adults
166
What is the treatment for ameloblastic fibroma?
Surgical excision with a low recurrence rate
167
What characterizes a central cementifying fibroma?
A benign neoplasm often attached to the root of an affected tooth, leading to tooth displacement and root resorption
168
What is the treatment for cementoblastoma?
Enucleation of the tumor and removal of the involved tooth
169
What is the adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT)?
An encapsulated, benign epithelial odontogenic tumor that occurs primarily in females under age 20
170
What are the radiographic features of an ameloblastoma?
A multilocular soap bubble-like or honeycombed radiolucency
171
What is the treatment for ameloblastoma?
Surgical removal with a common recurrence
172
What is a common association of a dentigerous cyst?
Can occur in association with a dentigerous cyst
173
What is a common treatment for tumors such as Pindborg tumor?
Surgical removal
174
What is a key characteristic of the Pindborg tumor?
Composed of islands and sheets of polyhedral epithelial cells
175
What type of material is often seen in Pindborg tumors?
Amyloid-like material with calcifications
176
Which demographic is most often affected by Pindborg tumors?
Most often affects adults; men = women
177
What is the typical radiographic appearance of a Pindborg tumor?
A unilocular or multilocular radiolucency
178
Where do Pindborg tumors most commonly occur?
More often in mandible than maxilla, especially in bicuspid and molar area
179
What is the recurrence rate after treatment for Pindborg tumors?
Recurrence is common
180
What is the Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor (CEOT) characterized by?
Part of a group of lesions that are characterized by odontogenic-containing 'ghost cells'
181
What is a key feature of the ghost cells found in CEOT?
Ghost cells are round structures with clear centers
182
What is the typical age demographic for CEOT?
Most commonly seen in individuals under 40 years old; men = women
183
What is the typical radiographic appearance of a CEOT?
Usually a well-defined lesion, may be unilocular or multilocular, may have calcifications
184
What is the treatment for Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor?
Surgical enucleation
185
What is a Lipoma?
A benign tumor of mature fat cells
186
What is the clinical appearance of a Lipoma?
A yellowish mass surrounded by a thin layer of epithelium
187
Where are Lipomas most commonly located?
Most commonly located on the buccal mucosa and the vestibule
188
What is the typical demographic for Lipomas?
Most occur in individuals over age 40; men = women
189
What is the treatment for Lipomas?
Surgical excision, generally does not recur
190
What condition is characterized by the production of ketone acid that lowers blood pH?
Ketoacidosis
191
What leads to the production of ketone acid in Ketoacidosis?
Breakdown of fatty tissue
192
What is a common intraoral location for Neurofibromas?
The tongue
193
What is the difference between Neurofibroma and Schwannoma?
Neurofibroma is a diffuse proliferation of spindle-shaped Schwann cells; Schwannoma has cells arranged in palisaded whorls
194
What is the treatment for Neurofibromas and Schwannomas?
Surgical excision, generally do not recur
195
What is a Lymphangioma?
A benign tumor of lymphatic vessels
196
What is a common treatment for Lymphangiomas?
Surgical excision, will not shrink with sclerosing solution
197
What are the most common intraoral locations for Kaposi sarcoma?
Hard palate and gingiva
198
What is a primary characteristic of Malignant Melanoma?
Usually presents as a rapidly enlarging blue-to-black mass
199
What is the prognosis for Malignant Melanoma?
Poor prognosis
200
What is an Osteoma?
A slow growing, asymptomatic benign tumor composed of benign compact bone
201
What is the most common location for Osteomas?
Most common is posterior mandible
202
What is a Hemangioma?
A benign proliferation of capillaries
203
What is the typical demographic for Hemangiomas?
Most are present at birth or arise shortly thereafter; more common in children and teenagers
204
What is the treatment for Hemangiomas?
Variable; may include surgery or injection of sclerosing solution
205
What is a Rhabdomyosarcoma?
A malignant tumor of striated muscle
206
What is the treatment for Rhabdomyosarcoma?
Multidrug chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery
207
What is Neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen?
An autosomal dominant condition with multiple neurofibromas and other characteristics
208
What is a Granular Cell Tumor?
A benign tumor composed of large cells with a granular cytoplasm
209
Where does a Granular Cell Tumor most often occur?
Most often occurs on the tongue, followed by buccal mucosa
210
What is the treatment for Granular Cell Tumors?
Surgical excision and does not recur
211
What is a Congenital Epulis?
A benign neoplasm resembling a granular cell tumor, usually occurs on the anterior maxillary gingiva
212
What is the treatment for Congenital Epulis?
Surgical excision and does not recur
