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Final Round Flashcards

Incorrect UWORLD Questions (86 cards)

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1
Q

what is the treatment for legionnaires disease

A

levofloxacin (resp floroquinolone)

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2
Q

what are the only two immunologic disorders that are treated with stem cell transplant

A

Wiskott-Aldrich

SCID

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3
Q

what is the common lab finding in methemoglobulinemia

A 
normal PaO2 (arterial partial pressure of oxygen) 
-because this measures unbound oxygen

low pulse Ox

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4
Q

what is the meaning of methemoglobulinemia

A

one of the four oxygen binding sites is changed to ferric (Fe3) which cannot bind oxygen, so less oxygen is delivered to the tissues

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5
Q

a blue-green discoloration of blood and mucous surfaces is seen in

A

sulfahemoglobinemia

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6
Q

what is the antidote for cholinergic toxicity

A

pralidoxime

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7
Q

wat is the tx for ethelyene glycol or methingestion

A

fomepizole

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8
Q

treating hyponatremia too fast will cause

A

osmotic demyelination (don’t exceed more than .5/hr)

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9
Q

treating hypernatermia too fast will cause

A

cerebral edema

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10
Q

the development of AV block in a patient with endocarditis should make one think of

A

Perivalvular Abscess

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11
Q

myotonic dystrophy (myotonia) has what trinucelotide repeat

A

CTG

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12
Q
  • patient cannot release their grip after shaking a hand
  • muscle weakness in the face, forearms and hands
  • bilateral foot drop
  • adolescent
  • testicular atrophy
A

myotonia (myotonic dystrophy)

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13
Q

what is the first AB test you should always order for SLE

A

ANA

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14
Q

what antidepressant has been linked to causing HTN at high doses (>300)

A

Venlafaxine

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15
Q

trinucleotide repeat for friedrich ataxia

A

GAA

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16
Q

myotonic dystrophy is what kind of condition

A

autosomal dominant

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17
Q

duchenne and Becker are what kind of condition

A

x-linked recessive

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18
Q

patients with BAT who have signs of splenic injury who have a negative FAST should have what next step in management

A

CT

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19
Q

what are the two complications of giant cell arteritis

A

polymyalgia rheumatica and aorta aneurysm

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20
Q

what is the mechanism behind myopathy of proximal muscles seen in Cushings

A

Cortisol causes muscle atrophy which results in painless muscle weakness

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21
Q

patients on isoniazid can develop what

A

mild hepatic injury (severe hepatic injury should be require stopping INH)

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22
Q

what are the three steps to evaluate secondary amenorrhea

A
  1. bHCG
  2. LH/FSH (rule out hypothalamus)
  3. Prolactin Level (rule out pituitary)
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23
Q

describe what is seen in aromatase deficiency

A
  1. virilization of external genitalia (cliteromegaly)
  2. normal internal genitalia
  3. undetectable estrogen levels (no breast development)
  4. delayed puberty
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24
Q

neutropenia, splenomegaly, skin ulcers and RA in a woman in her 40’s

A

Felty Syndrome

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25
tx for Felty syndrome
methotrexate (tx RA)
26
who should you avoid giving the copper IUD too
women who are anemic or who have heavy periods
27
what does a hazard ratio of <1 means
the treatment group had a lower event rate
28
hazard ratios of more than 1 mean
the treatment group had a higher event rate
29
two or more experimental interventions with two or more variables being measured independently is an example of what kind of design
factorial design
30
a study that assigns one treatment to one group and another treatment to another group (placebo) is an example of what kind of study
parallel study
31
what is a drug that causes acute dystonia that is not an antipsychotic
metoclopramide or prochlorperazine (treat nausea)
32
what patients are at the highest risk for reactive TB
HIV (immunosuppressed patients)
33
cryptococcal infections in HIV patients causes what sickness
meningitis
34
which patients have a lower risk of Sarcoidosis because of their immune dysfunction
HIV pts
35
what should be done for the initial evaluation for Addisons Disease
8 AM serum cortisol (LOW) and cosinotropyin stimulation test (stimualtes the production of ACTH) - if ACTH rises then we know it is a primary adrenal problem
36
what is the next step for a patient who most likely has a PE
IV heparin if there is no contraindication before doing any diagnostic testing
37
what condition is associated with a resistance to protein C
Factor V Leyiden
38
complication of preeclampsia that presents with sudden dyspnea, hypoxia and crackles
pulmonary edema (there is increased after load in preeclampsia and the heart tries to pump against this causing edema)
39
what will the liver biopsy of a child with Reye Syndrome show
micro vesicular fatty infiltration
40
when is it okay to give aspirin to a child
Kawasaki disease or Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
41
when will you see macro vesicular fatty infiltrates on a liver bx
in alcoholic hepatitis and in nonalcoholic fattty liver disease
42
when is sinusoidal congestion and hemorrhagic necrosis of the liver seen
in the setting of CHF
43
what are the drugs used to tx tourettes
antidopaminergic drugs - antipsychotics - tetrabenzine (dopamine depleting agent)
44
what is the treatment for bronchitis
symptomatic treatment because it is self limiting
45
non-tender dilation of the GB in the presence of painless jaundice is associated with
pancreatic cancer (Courvoiser Sign)
46
what does pancreatic cancer in the head of the pancreas cause because of compression on the bile ducts
intra and extrahepatic biliary tract dilation
47
what is the most effective way to treating mild HTN in non-obese individuals
DASH diet
48
blood transfusions before 1990 where not checked for
Hep C
49
tx for entamoeba hystolytica
metronidazole (don't drain the liver abscess)
50
what is the most strong risk factor for acute cerebral infarction
HTN
51
how does a glucagonoma present
weight loss diarrhea migratory necrolytic erythema (large painful inflammatory blisters) and anemia
52
glucagon levels >500
glucagonoma
53
adenosine and carotid massage are used to treat
PSVT
54
contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss and deviation of the eyes toward the side of the lesion in someone with uncontrolled HTN is
a putaminal hemorrhage (basal ganglia)
55
contralateral paralysis of the arm, contralateral loss of position sense and deviation of the tongue to the side of the lesion is a
medial medullary syndrome (supplied by the vertebral arteries)
56
pinpoint pupils, coma and total paralysis is seen in
bilateral hemorrhage of the pons
57
what is the first diagnostic step for pancreatic cancer
abdominalUS (if this shows nothing then get a CT)
58
for RUQ abdominal issues when should ERCP used
only after diagnosis with an abdominal US
59
cholesterol emboli can cause?
livido reticular, acute kidney injury and pancreatitis
60
what is the pathology behind Menieres disease
increased endolymphatic pressure
61
loose calcium debris in the semicircular canal is seen in
BPPV
62
irregular contractions and a closed cervix is
Braxton Hicks (false labor)
63
if someone is positive for GBBS at 35 weeks what do you do
wait to give PNC during labor, if you give it before the chances of GBBS coming back is high
64
ude of furosemide
bilateral hearing loss
65
BP of 152/45 is?
a widened pulse pressure (AR)
66
1st line tx for sciatica
NSAID or Acetominophen (usually spontaneous resolution occurs )
67
What drugs cause SIADH
SSRI NSAID or carbamazepine
68
how do you CONFIRM fibroadenoma
biopsy
69
how do you initially diagnose fibroademona in a woman <30
US
70
how do you measure cervical length in a woman who had a cold knife colonization
Transvaginal US
71
recurrent pulmonary infections and cutaneous abscesses are seen in
chronic granulomatous disease (problem with oxidative bursts)
72
how do you DX chronic granulomatous disease
neutrophile function testing - dihydrorhodamie testing - nitro blue tetrazolium testing
73
cells with bacteria on gram stain is seen in
CGD
74
low B cell count sinopulmonary infections GI infections
X Linked Agammaglobulinemia
75
lytic bone lesion (punched out) | rash (eczematous) and signs of Diabetes Insipidus
Langerhanss Histocytosis
76
sunburst pattern lesion in the metaphysis of the bone
osteosarcoma
77
what is the first lien treatment for pseudo tumor cerebra
acetozolamide or furosemide
78
tachycardia that resolves with cold water immersion is
PSVT
79
what is the most common form of PSVT
atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia
80
how does venlafaxine cause HTN at high doses
at high doses this drug also blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine which can increase systolic bP
81
because neutrophils are abnormal and do not function well in CML what is low
leukocyte alkaline phosphate score
82
myelocytes>metamyelocytes
CML
83
metamyelocytes > myelocytes
leukemiod reaction
84
treatment for tachycardia associated cardiomyopathy
rate and rhythm control, it is reversible
85
the preferred HIV screening test detects what
p24 antigen and HIV antibodies
86
what is the test to give to someone with high suspicion of HIV but negative antibody test
HIV RNA Testing

STEP 2 CK! (2 decks)

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