Final SG Flashcards
(202 cards)
1
Q
Gregor Mendel
A
Considered the father of modern genetics
2
Q
William Bateson
A
First to use word “gene”
3
Q
Archibald Garrod
A
Considered father of human biochemical genetics and pharmacogenetics (genetics and pharmaceutical interactions)
4
Q
Charles Darwin
A
credited for the theories of evolution and natural selection
5
Q
what method did Mendel use to demonstrate inheritance in pea plants that made it possible to identify the units of heritability?
A
he cross pollinated the plants himself, likely using a paint brush
6
Q
if widows peaks are a recessive trait (allele=w) and no widows peak us a dominant trait (allele=W), then an offspring who inherits the genotype Ww will have a phenotype of
A
no widows peak
7
Q
if widows peaks are a recessive trait (allele=w) and no widows peak is a dominant trait (allele=W), then the possible genotype combinations for offspring to inherit are: WW, Ww, wW, ww. How many phenotypes would one expect these four genotypes to code for?
A
2
8
Q
allele
A
two copies/types of a gene for a trait
9
Q
genotype
A
DNA coding for traits
10
Q
Phenotype
A
observable physical characteristics produced by gene + environment
11
Q
dominant allele
A
one or two alleles with a genotype for a trait results in the trait
12
Q
Recessive allele
A
two alleles with the genotype are required for the trait to be expressed
13
Q
A ? mutation for cystic fibrosis has been identified and sequenced, and is a candidate for gene therapy
A
single-gene or single-gene mutation
14
Q
Huntington’s Disease (HD) is caused by a single-gene defect that causes involuntary movements of the hands and feet followed by the gradual loss of memory/cognitive skills, and ultimately, early death.
True of False: the onset of HD is usually between 20 and 40 years old.
A
False-onset is between 40 and 50 generally. this is an important point because it means symptoms appear AFTER childbearing years, making it harder to know if one risks passing it on to their children
15
Q
single-gene mutations are believed to occur in [percent] of newborns
A
0.4%
16
Q
the single-gene mutations involved in Duchene Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) impairs the production of [blank] , a protein involved in muscle contraction
A
Dystrophin
17
Q
chromosomes
A
tightly wound strands of DNA that undergo mitosis and meiosis
18
Q
molecule
A
smallest fundamental unit of a chemical compound that can take part in a chemical reaction
19
Q
proteins
A
chains of amino acids, what comes together to cause traits
20
Q
amino acids
A
building blocks of proteins produced by three codon pairs
21
Q
genome
A
the complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism
22
Q
what corresponds to replication of genetic material
A
meiosis and mitosis
23
Q
T or F: DNA is stored in the nucleus of cells, whereas RNA can be in the nucleus or in other parts of the cell
A
True
24
Q
transciption
A
the synthesis of RNA from DNA template (“opening the book”)
25
translation
the synthesis of amino acids sequences that make up proteins from RNA ("reading the book")
26
mitosis
the process by which most cells in the body divide/replicate (making a copy)
27
meiosis
the process by which gametes (sperm and egg cells) are produced ("copying the book")
28
what is true about humans
more genetic materials comes from mothers than fathers
29
according to the sugar text, most of the many ideas about aging can be organized into the following three theories of aging. which of the theories does sugar argues is best supported by the biological evidence?
evolutionary senescence theory
30
T or F: nobody knows why specific hairs turn gray or white and others do not, and at the present time, there is no known process to help cells continue producing their original color (sugar text)
true
31
mitochondrial theory of aging
energy-producing cell organelle is constantly hit with assaults and eventually fails to function
32
telomere theory of aging
DNA sequences at the ends of our chromosomes shorten with each replication
33
inflammation theory of aging
inflammation can damage tissues and cause cell death
34
immune theory of aging
the breakdown in the cellular and molecular defense mechanisms (DNA repair enzymes...) that is genetically controlled
35
evolutionary theory of aging
aging is the result from a decline in the force of natural selection, generally due to the life
36
free radical theory of aging
unstable molecules that want an extra electron will take it
37
what is the (disease) evidence for the telomere theory of aging?
cancer (immortal cells), Werner's disease, Hutchinson-Gillford progeria
38
what are the (diseases) evidence for the inflammation theory of aging?
dementia, atherosclerosis, diabetes
39
issues older people have with temperature control, hypothermia, and heat stress are due to (blank) and (blank)
slower blood flow, less fat
40
the three main problems older people have with vision are:
farsightedness, cataracts, dry eyes
41
what does a population pyramid represent, and what are the MAIN/MOST important comparisons
centered count of number of people in a population by age and gender. it is used to compare developed and developing countries, and demands on public health infrastructure and medical care by different generations
42
telomere
specialized DNA sequences that are at the end of a chromosome that stabilize the chromosome
43
evolution
changes over time driven by heritable changes in DNA
44
natural selection
when given an organisms particular environment, a heritable trait increases or...
45
fitness
the ability to reproduce successfully, as measured by the number of an organism
46
behavior and lifestyle
50%
47
genetic
20%
48
social and environmental
20%
49
medical care
10%
50
T or F: phenotypes are determined by both environmental and genetic factors
true
51
sources of "risk factors"
health behaviors, environmental exposures
52
contemporary theories of health behavior can be broadly categorized as "cognitive-behavioral", and apply to/use what three levels of influence on human behavior
community, individual (intrapersonal), interpersonal
53
examples of intrapersonal factors that influence individual-level behaviors
attitudes, skills, motivation, knowledge, self-concept, beliefs, developmental history, past experience
54
ways in which ACEs can impact health in adulthood
increased risk of mental illness, disrupted neurodevelopment, direct bodily damage, biological embedding, adoption of health risk behaviors
55
T or F: fetal alcohol syndrome is the second most common cause of preventable birth defects and developmental disabilities in the US
false
56
systematic review
summary of all research (that meets eligibility criteria) ona specific topic
57
meta-analysis
data from multiple studies re-analyzed to produce one pooled estimate
58
measure of association
a number showing how an exposure is related to an outcome/disease
59
odds ratio
odds of disease given exposure divided by odds of disease given no exposure
60
this relative risk of ADHD, 1.76, is interpreted as FAS patients are (what %) more likely to have ADHD compared to a non-FAS patient
76%
61
which hills postulate does a 76% increased chance of ADHD pertain to?
strength of association
62
which hills postulate for causality is represented by the fact that jones, ulleland, and burd all published studies that suggests alcohol consumption causes FAS...or similarly by the fact that 38 studies have examined relationships between ACEs and diabetes and 36 found an association
consistency
63
which two hills postulates for causality are represented by the facts that:
1. one of the ways in which we know alcohol consumption during pregnancy causes negative health outcomes for the baby is that alcohol impairs placenta-fetal blood flow resulting in hypoxia
2. as more alcohol is consumed by a mother, the level of hypoxia the fetus experiences increases
dose response, biological plausibility
64
a meta analysis was used to calculate the pooled odds ration for the association between exposure to four or more ACes and developing type II diabetes in adulthood.
interpret the results; OR=1.15, 95% CI=1.07-1.25
the odds of diabetes are 15% higher among those with 4+ ACE compared to those with none
65
T or F: according the the CDC, just over 1 in 10 adults in the US have diabetes. therefore your chance of getting diabetes is also 1 in 10.
false
66
according to CDC, approx. 1 in 3 American adults have pre-diabetes but losing weight by eating healthy and being more active can cut the risk of progressing to type 2 in half. therefore...
approx. 30% of American adults can reduce their risk of type 2 diabetes by 50% if they lose weight by eating healthy and being more active
67
where in the mothers body does alcohol impact the baby
placenta
68
alcohol is a (term) when consumed by pregnant women because it is a substance capable of disrupting fetal growth
teratogen
69
according to the quick guide to health literacy, strategies that help create user- friendly health websites that minimize confusion due to limited health literacy in the general population include
limit paragraph size, use bullets and short lists. use color or underline to identify links. include a simple search function. use meaningful headings. make web content printer friendly.
70
process whereby students learn by doing and by reflecting on the experience
experiential learning
71
the study of different teaching methods
pedagogy
72
blended learning where students are introduced to content at home and practice working through it at school
flipped classroom
73
Sickle cell anemia has an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Where in the world is sickle cell anemia the most common and why might that be?
74
why is Huntington's disease used as evidence to support the Evolutionary theory of aging? use the words natural selection and fitness in your answer.
75
in your own words, please define what a "risk factor" is in public health and provide three examples. (address more than just behavioral risk factors)
76
list two examples of how health/mathematical literacy is important to an individual's health
77
one type of virus called (blank) become part of DNA in the organism. About (blank)% of the human genome is thought to be from such viruses.
78
role of the RNA polymerase
to make more virus RNA
79
public health implication of RNA polymerase weakness
need yearly booster shot
80
genetic result of limitation of RNA polymerase
mutations because doesn't proofread replication
81
antigenic drift
pandemics: about 20% change in amino acid sequence from previous strains
82
antigenic shift
seasonal outbreaks: about 1% change in amino acid sequence from previous strains
83
carcinogenesis is the term for the initiation of cancer formation. Carcinogenesis is the multistep process that begins with (blank)
a DNA mutation
84
causes no problem, in cancer, means a growth that is not malignant
Benign
85
invasive, has a tendency to grow and may spread to other parts of the body
Malignant
86
lump in or on the body caused by the abnormal growth of cells. it can be either malignant or benign
Tumor
87
something capable of causing cancer.
Carcinogen
88
a change in one or several bases in DNA
Mutation
89
a cell that possesses genes that are not passed on to offspring (cells of the body other than sperm and ova). produced via mitosis
somatic cell
90
a sperm or egg cell. a cell that possesses genes that can be passed on to offspring. produced via meiosis
germline cell
91
Proto-oncogenes that have mutated and have become cancer-causing genes that increase the rate at which cells divide and proliferate
oncogene
92
posses the genetic code for the proteins that are needed for normal cell division and growth
proto-oncogenes
93
genes involved in repairing damaged cell DNA, inactivating carcogenes, improving the ability of the immune system to destroy cancer cells
tumar suppressor genes
94
greek word/root meaning "mass or tumor"
onco
95
T or F: natural killer cells are the search and destroy cells of the adaptive branch and killer T cells are the search and destroy cells of the innate branch
false
96
conducts "immune surveillance". wander the body searching for cells that are "non-self". identity alteration to the identification receptors carried by cancerous cells to recognize them as not being "correct" or "self" cells. initiate the process of killing the non-self cells through producing chemicals compounds/messengers that lead to apoptosis in the cancer cells
both Killer T cells and NK cells
97
(blank) are enzymes that are released by cytotoxic T cells and natural killers (NK) cells. they speed up the rate of chemical reactions to induce apoptosis in cancer cells
Granzymes
98
define and describe uncontrolled proliferation, loss of apoptosis, metastasis, and angiogenesis.
uncontrolled proliferation is when normal cells have the ability to differentiate and develop into specialized cells. loss of apoptosis is when cancer cells lack the ability to die, lack the "stop dividing" instruction and continue to divide on. Metastasis is when cancer cells lack adhesion which allows for the cells to travel from the original organ to the distant organs. Angiogenesis is when cancer cells are big enough, they need their own blood supply to continue to grow.
99
the main causes of cancer appear to be linked to interactions between (blank) and the (blank)
genes, environment
100
stage 1 cancer
no spread of the cancer from the original site of the cancer
101
stage 2 cancer
the cancer has spread to neighboring tissues
102
stage 3 cancer
the cancer has spread to nearby lymph nodes
103
stage 4 cancer
the cancer has spread to tissues and organs in other parts of the body
104
DNA is transcribed in (blank), which is translated into (blank)
RNA, protein
105
what best describes a translocation
a portion of DNA is moved from one part of a chromosome to another
106
T or F: the percentage of cancer cases attribute to obesity can be as high as 40% for some types of cancer. therefore, obesity is a risk factor for some types of cancer
true
107
hyperplasia
a cells mutation that causes it to lack the "stop dividing" instruction
108
pap test
cervical cancer screening to detect hyperplasia before it becomes cancer
109
localized cancer
a mutation that leads to lack of specialization
110
mammogram
breast tissue screening to detect small tumors/cancer early
111
coronary arteries supply oxygenated blood to which organ
heart
112
what is the function of capillary beds? what do they do in the body?
they are small blood vessels located in the lungs, kidneys, or brain that exchange materials like water and nutrients. they are how oxygen is supplied to the cells in organs/tissues of the body.
113
(blank) is primarily associated with atherosclerosis
myocardial infarction
114
best describes the relationship between HDL and LDL
LDL forms foam cells when in contact with macrophage, which can block arteries. HDL helps to reduce LDL by transporting it to the liver
115
the (blank) transport oxygen- depleted blood to the heart
veins
116
the (blank) transport oxygen-rich blood from the heart
arteries
117
blood vessels narrowing
stenosis
118
blood clot formation
thrombosis
119
artery blockage
embolism
120
blood vessel rupture
hemorrhage
121
term for problems with blood flow in arteries due to thickening/hardening from lipid accumulation. can lead to heart attack and/or stroke
arteriosclerosis
122
what happens when a blood vessel that carries oxygen and nutrients to the brain in blocked by a clot
ischemic stroke
123
cause of a heart attack
myocardial infarction
124
when a blood vessel that carries oxygen and nutrients to the brain bursts/ruptures
hemorrhagic stroke
125
blockages in the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart
coronary heart disease
126
blockages in the blood vessels that supply blood to the legs
peripheral arterial disease (PAD)
127
conditions that affect blood flow and the blood vessels in the brain
cerebrovascular disease
128
a general term for a range of birth defects that affect the normal way the heart works
congenital heart disease
129
blood clot in one of the large deep veins, usually in the legs, sometimes in the arms
deep vein thrombosis
130
when a blood clot that develops in a blood vessel in the body (often in the leg) travels to a lung artery where it suddenly blocks blood flow
pulmonary embolism
131
T or F: heart disease is the number one cause of death worldwide: more people die of heart disease than from anything else
true
132
the direction of blood flow in the human heart
deoxygenated blood enter the right atrium, then goes through the right ventricle, and then leaves through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. oxygen-rich blood enters the left atrium, then goes through the left ventricle, and then leaves through the aorta
133
atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis where the walls of the arteries are hard, thick and narrow as a result of lipid accumulation within the arterial walls. lipids (low-density lipoproteins LDL) are deposited on the tunica intima of the damaged blood vessel where oxidation of LDD takes place. the oxidised LDL then enters the tunica intima of arterial wall where they are ingested by macrophages. the lipid-filled macrophages then become (blank)
foam cells
134
identification of the risk factors for (blank) was not an accomplishment of the framingham study
all cancers
135
describe (1) what the framingham heart study was and generally when it occurred, and (2) at least three important things that were learned from the study
the study is a long-term cardiovascular cohort study of residents in Massachusetts. It began in 1948 when president Truman signed a law funding $500,000 for the heart study. Three important things learned was that high blood pressure and high blood cholesterol were risk factors, diabetes was a factor, and smoking cigarettes for heart disease.
136
heterotrophs
organisms that don't make their own food and need to eat other organisms
137
anabolism
a type of cellular metabolism in which new molecules are synthesized to generate energy
138
catabolism
a type of cellular metabolism in which existing molecules are broken down to generate energy
139
T or F: nutrients are classified as macro- and micro-nutrients. carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are micronutrients while vitamins and minerals are macronutrients
false
140
carbohydrates are broken down and converted into (blank) by the digestive enzyme amylase found in the saliva and pancreas, which the cells utilize to produce energy
glucose
141
explain how the body maintains correct/healthy blood glucose levels. use hormone, insulin, glucagon, pancreases, liver, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis
the body maintains healthy levels when blood sugar rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, hormones and glucagon allowing the body to absorb glucose from the blood lowering the blood sugar. within the liver is gluconeogensis which is synthesis of glucose from sources like lactic acid, glycogenlysis within the liver breaks down glycogen when blood sugar levels drop.
142
(blank) are essential for growth and repair. they play a crucial role in virtually all biological processes in the body. all enzymes and many of the hormones are (blank) and are vital for the body's function
proteins, proteins
143
all (blank) are insoluble in water and usually are fatty acids. they are essential for; transportation of fat-soluble vitamins, synthesis of steroid hormones, cell and organelle membranes
lipids
144
(blank) can be either fat-soluble or water-soluble, and are required in small quantities for growth and cellular function. they are mainly absorbed from the diet and altered by the body and have many uses including; immune system function, vision, growth of bone/teeth/muscle/more cells
vitamins
145
T or F: vitamins are organic substances, which means they're made by plants or animals. Minerals are inorganic elements that come from soil and water, and are absorbed by plants or eaten by animals
true
146
T or F: both hereditary and environmental factors are associated with obesity. diet and exercise are recommended to maintain a healthy weight, but medication and surgery may also be useful options for some people/patients
true
147
what are the "big two" in vitamin fortification today?
folic acid and vitamin d
148
T or F: because different countries rely on the same epidemiological evidence, different countries tend to have very similar policy positions on mandatory food fortification and fortified foods and general
false
149
what decade did salt (iodine) begin to be fortified
1920's
150
what decade did milk (vitamin d) begin to be fortified
1930's
151
what decade did flour (many additives) begin to be fortified
1940's
152
what decade was calcium made as an additive to many different foods
1980's
153
what disease/health outcome is the fortification of iodized salt designed to prevent or reduce
goiter
154
what disease/health outcome is the fortification of vitamin d in milk designed to prevent or reduce
rickets
155
what disease/health outcome is the fortification of vitamin b/niacin/iron in flour designed to prevent or reduce
beriberi and pellagara
156
what disease/health outcome is the fortification of calcium in many things designed to prevent or reduce
osteoporosis
157
a lack of vitamin A is heavily associated with which aliment
night blindness
158
james lind used the (blank) study design to make his discoveries
randomized controlled trial
159
vitamin c deficiency is associated with what adverse health outcome
scurvy
160
what is "Over-fortification" and why is it a public health concern
when there are too many nutrients that are added to food or drinks but can be adding an excessive unhealthy amount. can result in high in sugars and sodiums, vitamin overdose
161
T or F: the US began a gov. program for the research and development of offensive biological weapons in the early 1940s due to fears of aggression/attacks from Germany and japan
true
162
T or F: anthrax is a bacterium that can spread from person to person
false
163
as part of their offensive biological weapons program, British researchers wanted to know if anthrax spores could survive an explosion. to test this, scientists exploded anthrax bombs near immobilized sheep to determine if the spores would survive and still infect the sheep. they found ...
anthrax remained active/dangerous/viable/infectious in the soil for decades. anthrax was effectively disbursed by the explosion; it could survive and still effectively infect the sheep
164
1969 was the year that ...
the US renounced biological weapons research
165
the idea that an infectious agent causes severe illness or death related to what concept
virulence
166
ebola and yellow fever are two types of hemorrhagic fevers. explain why the term "hemorrhagic is an appropriate name for these diseases. what does the word "hemorrhagic" indicate to you about how these diseases impact the body?
These diseases both affect organs and blood vessels in which a hemorrhagic is produced by ruptured blood vessels. the word indicates how these diseases impact the body in terms of the blood vessels being affected along with other body organs that interfere with one's ability to regulate.
167
(blank) is the only virus that has ever been fully and successfully eradicated, which ironically, is why it is currently feared as a biological weapon: nobody is exposed anymore due to it being eradicated, yet many countries still have samples of it that could be weaponized.
small pox
168
what agents have been used as weapons during wars
tularemia, anthrax, small pox, plague
169
in the ted talk, the neuroscientist jeff lliff explains his research on the science of sleep, and claims the evidence indicates that the reason our bodies need sleep is
to clean out waste products (such as amyloid beta)
170
what is the strongest synchronizing agent for hypothalamus
light
171
adenosine
neurotransmitter involved in maintaining homeostasis. when we are awake, levels increase, while we sleep, levels decrease
172
leptin
hormone that helps to regulate carbohydrate metabolism and is related to hunger suppression
173
cortisol
stress hormone that can promote wakefulness and increases near the end of a complete sleep cycle
174
growth hormone
a hormone released when the body is asleep (not released when awake) which helps regulate muscle mass in adults
175
follicle-stimulating hormone
a hormone released when the body is asleep (not released when awake) that is involved in female reproduction
176
cytokines
can be a sleep inducing hormone/chemical messenger
177
melatonin
hormone secreted by the pineal gland, especially in response to darkness, that promotes sleep
178
define and describe REM and non-REM sleep. what does REM stand for and the progression of sleep stages during a single night.
REM sleep is an active period of sleep marked by intense brain activity, breathing is more active, eyes move rapidly, heart rate and blood pressure rises. This is usually when dreams occur. Non-REM sleep is when breathing and heart rate slows down and blood pressure drops. REM stands for Rapid Eye Movement. During a single night for a young adult, both sleep categories cycles every 90-110 minutes throughout the entire night. As the night goes on REM sleep lasts longer and longer. Non-REM has 4 sleeping stages
179
circadian rhythms
bodily cycles that occur over a 24-hr period driven by the brains biological "clock" aka the hypothalamus. This "clock" is driven by environmental factors, with the light being the strongest synchronizing agent
180
homeostatic system
process by which body maintains a "steady state" of internal conditions, which makes us sleepier as time goes on regardless of whether its night or day
181
what are components of "good sleep hygiene"
consistent sleep schedule, exercise, removing naps the sleep environment
182
which branch of the immune system is associated with the use of stomach acidity and nose hairs to keep pathogens from entering the body
the innate branch
183
invasive tumor, has a tendency to grow and may spread to other parts of the body
malignant
184
genes involved in repairing damaged cell DNA, inactivating carcinogens, improving the ability of the immune system to destroy cancer cells
the suppressor genes
185
carcinogenesis appears to be linked to interactions between (blank) and the (blank)
genes/genetics, environment
186
search and destroy cells (lymphocytes) of the innate branch of the immune system used to fight cancer
natural killer cells
187
myocardial infarction happens when there is a blockage that prevents oxygen-rich blood from getting to the heart. a more common name for myocardial infraction is
heart attack
188
medicinal/scientific term for blood clot formation
thrombosis
189
the (blank) transport oxygen-depleted blood to the heart. the (blank) transport oxygen-rich blood from the heart
veins. arteries
190
oxygen needed for ATP synthesis is delivered to cells from the vascular system via
capillaries/capillary beds
191
high levels of (blank) cholesterol can lower your risk for heart disease and stroke while high levels of (blank) cholesterol raise your risk for heart disease and stroke
HDL (high-density lipoprotein), LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol
192
organisms that don't make their own food and need to eat other organisms
heterotrophs
193
carbohydrates are broken down and converted into (blank) by the digestive enzyme and amylase found in the saliva and pancreas, which the cells utilize to produce energy
glucose
194
(blank) and (blank) are organic substances, which means they're made by plants or animals
vitamins, minerals
195
when blood sugar is low, the liver can help raise blood glucose levels via (blank) and/or (blank)
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
196
T or F: people get anthrax by; breathing in spores, eating food or drinking water that is contaminated with spores, or getting spores in a cut or scrape in the skin
true
197
the year the US renounced biological weapons research
1969
198
which biological agent has never been used as a weapon in international war/conflict before?
botulism
199
the idea that an infectious agent causes high viral loads/has ability to evade host immune system/and is highly infectious relates to what concept
pathogenicity
200
process by which body maintains a "steady state" of internal conditions, which makes us sleepier as time goes on regardless of whether it's night or day
homeostatic system
201
bodily cycles that occur over a 24-hr period driven by the brains biological "clock" aka the hypothalamus
circadian rhythms
202
neurotransmitter involved in maintaining homeostasis. when we are awake, levels increase, while we sleep, levels decrease
adenosine
