Final Study Guide Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

How to determine level of hypoxemia

A

Mild~79-60
Moderate~59-40
Severe~<40

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2
Q

What is the preferable site for ABG

A

Radial artery

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3
Q

What is the modified Allen’s test for

A

Tests for functional collateral circulation

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4
Q

3 indications for an ABG

A
  1. Assess pt response to therapy or diagnostic tests
  2. Monitor severity and progression of disease
  3. Evaluate ventilation, acid base balance, oxygen status and o2 capacity of blood
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5
Q

Indications for incentive Spirometry vs IPPB

A

IS: Atelectasis, upper abdominal surgery and restrictive lung defect
IPPB: Improve lung expansion, unsuccessful therapies for atelectasis and deliver aerosol medications

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6
Q

What causes leaks in IPPB therapy

A

Leak or sensitivity

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7
Q

What’s the purpose of adjusting sensitivity in IPPB

A

Help deliver breaths

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8
Q

What causes a large negative swing in IPPB

A

Incorrect sensitivity, not sensitive enough

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9
Q

What devices can decrease air trapping in patients with asthma and COPD

A

PEP and PAP

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10
Q

What’s the physiological impact of retained secretions

A

Labored breathing, fever, increased inspiratory and expiratory crackles

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11
Q

What are some bronchial hygiene therapies

A

Cough, postural drainage, compression devices, intra pulmonary percussive ventilation and PEP/PAP

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12
Q

What is necessary for normal airway clearance

A

Patent airway, functional mucociliary escalator and effective cough

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13
Q

What are the phases of cough reflex

A

Irritation, inspiration, compression and expulsion

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14
Q

What happens during compression phase of a cough

A

Trachea and chest tightens as well as the diaphragm

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15
Q

What phase of cough is impaired in a patient with neuromuscular disease or tracheostomy

A

Inspiratory

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16
Q

How is the mucociliary escalator impaired in intubated pt

A

ETT or trach tube, tracheobronchial suction, inadequate humidification, increased Fio2, meds and pulmonary disease

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17
Q

What diseases impair mucociliary transport

A

Cystic fibrosis, ciliary dyskinetic syndrome and bronchiectasis

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18
Q

What impairs mucociliary transport in intubated pt

A

ETT and cuff site

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19
Q

What are signs and symptoms of retained secretions

A

Labored breathing, fever and increased crackles on inspiration and expiration

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20
Q

What is mucus plug and what can result from it

A

It’s mucus that leads to partial and full obstruction and can cause atelectasis, impaired shunting and hypoxemia

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21
Q

What are some positions for postural drainage

A

Right middle lobe and left upper lobe

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22
Q

What are some areas to avoid during chest percussion

A

Surgery sites, bony prominences and fractured ribs

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23
Q

Which diseases are associated with increased sputum production

A

Chronic bronchitis, cystic fibrosis and bronchiectasis

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24
Q

Define aerosol

A

Suspension of solid or liquid particles in gas

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25
What are some particle deposition at
Mouth and nose (5-50) Oropharyngeal( 5-10) Respiratory tract( 2-5) Terminal airway ( 1-3)
26
What is FRC
Functional residual capacity
27
What is the best way to determine a pt understands instructions
Teach back method
28
What are adverse effects of a bronchodilator
Tachycardia HR>20, tremors, headache and increased BP
29
What device requires a spacer
MDI
30
What are limitations to an SVN
Pt must sit up for meds to nebulize
31
What are limitations with DPI
Pt must generate inspiratory flow of 40-60 L/min and hold like a hamburger to prevent dry powder from falling out
32
What is an adverse effect when administering treatment
Tachycardia
33
What are clinical indications for cool aerosol
Reduce upper airway inflammation
34
What do bubble humidifiers produce at flows greater than 6 lpm
Whistle noise
35
What primary and natural conditions inhaled gas to be humidified
The nose
36
What’s the difference between active and passive humidifiers
Active: bubble, aerosol, passover( offer heated humidifier) -wick and membrane Passive: HME( traps body heat)
37
Purpose of a reservoir
Store and deliver high concentration of o2
38
What is the limitation of reservoir devices if not set to the minimum flow
Bag will collapse
39
Flow range for nasal cannula
1/4-6 lpm
40
Flow range for nonrebreather
10- flush
41
Flow range for oxymask
1-15 lpm
42
Flow range for simple mask
5-10 lpm
43
Fio2 delivery range of AEM
24-60%
44
What are limitations to AEM
No bubble humidifier and cannot cover ports
45
What happens when ports on AEM are occluded
Room air decreases and Fio2 increases
46
What is retinopathy of prematurity ROP
Premature infants and new borns have defective eyes due to high PaO2
47
When is o2 toxicity and absorption atelectasis is a concern
High Fio2 greater than 50% for over 24 hrs
48
What is hypoxic drive
Blunted central chemoreceptors due to chronic increased co2
49
What can cause co2 retention on a simple mask
Simple mas doesn’t have one way valves
50
Rule of 4 with NC
24-44%
51
What are the factors for E and H tank
E- 0.28 H- 3.14
52
When is HBO2 indicated
Air embolism and carbon monoxide poisoning
53
How to select suction catheter based on ETT size
(ETT size) x 1.5
54
What’s done pre and post airway suction
Oxygenate with nonrebreather
55
What minimizes mucosal damage during tracheal suctioning
Rotate catheter and limit suction pressure
56
Contraindications for nasotracheal suctioning
Nasal bleeding, occluded nasal passages, acute facial injury, coagulopathy, trach surgery, MI and bronchospasm
57
How often should you suction
Whenever it’s needed
58
What’s the proper pressure range for adult NTS
100-120
59
What supplies are needed to suction
Sterile gloves, saline solution, yaunker and suction catheter
60
What does IPAP control
Ventilation
61
What’s does EPAP control
Oxygenation
62
What is mallampati
How visible is the airways to intubate 1/2 good ,3/4 bad
63
What type of equipment is used to view the airway during intubation
Laryngoscope
64
Proper ETT size for male vs female
Male 7.5-8.5 Female 6.5-8.0
65
What’s the purpose of a stylet during intubation
Shapes the tube and makes it more rigid for easier insertion
66
What is the purpose of a pilot balloon on a tracheostomy tube or an endotracheal tube
Ensures maximum o2 is being delivered
67
What is the purpose of the tracheostomy tube obturator
Guides tube into airway protecting from damage and ensuring proper placement
68
What is the maximum time devoted to an intubation attempt
30 seconds
69
What does a capnogram of near zero likely indicate after an intubation attempt with a patient that has adequate cardiac perfusion
ETT is inserted into the esophagus
70
What is preferred aerosol treatment for stridor post extubation
Corticosteroids and race epi
71
What is the preferred o2 therapy for stridor post extubation
Cool aersol
72
What o2 delivery device adapter can limit tracheostomy tube movement
Trach collar
73
What is the depth of insertion of ETT on cxr above carina
2-6 cm
74
What does a passy Muir valve improve
Improves speech, smell, taste, swallow and secretion management
75
During mechanical ventilation when should a tracheostomy be considered
Prolonged mech vent 7-10 days, secretion management, upper airway obstruction and unable to intubate
76
What can be auscultated after extubation with upper airway damage and how to treat is
Stridor treated with steroids
77
What are come clinical complications of a cuff
Reduce airway, decrease taste, smell, sensation and voice, decrease PEEP and compromise cough and swallow
78
When to transition to tracheostomy tube
7-10 days of intubation, and unsuccessful intubation
79
Which tracheostomy tube is made of steel
Jackson
80
When should orophrayngeal airway be used
When pt is unconscious
81
What’s the difference between a guedel and berman OPA
Guedel- single catheter with hollow center Berman- two parallel side channels and it’s not compatible with suction
82
Indications for oropharyngeal airway
Restore airway patency, adequate ventilation and prevent tongue/ nose obstruction
83
HIPPA stands for
Health insurance portability and accountability act
84
Who needs to comply with the privacy rule
Everyone
85
What is protected health information
Name, DOB, address and medical history
86
PHI stands for
Protected health information
87
What is required for RT to work under
A competent medical supervision like M.D
88
What would you expect the patient to present as in a rapid response situation
Respiratory distress or health crisis that could lead to respiratory or cardiac failure
89
What are the typical departments and care provided in an acute care facility
ER, ICU and short term hospital csre
90
What is HMO
Health maintenance organization that delivers Medicare benefits
91
When a pt needs long term care where are they transferred
Skilled nursing facility SNF
92
What is cultural competence
Recognize and respond appropriately to key cultural features
93
Calculate heliox using factors 80/20 and 70/30
Flow X factors 80/20=1.8 70/30=1.6
94
Calculate tank duration
Factor x PSI / flow = A/6= B x 6 = C B( hour) C (minutes) E=.28 H= 3.14
95
Calculate CaO2
(Hb x 1.34 x SaO2) + ( 0.003 x PaO2)
96
Calculate minute ventilation (VE)
Tidal volume x respiratory rate
97
Calculate suction catheter
(ETT) x 1.5
98
Calculate Air/O2 ratio
100-A/A-21= B/C (divide c to both numerator and denominator) = D/E add D to E = F x flow = answer
99
Calculate PaO2
Fio2(deci) x (760-47)- co2 /.8
100
Is eastern medicine okay for pts to supplement western care
Yes
101
What is the purpose of cultural competence
To make pt feel more safe and comfortable
102
What does nitric oxide do
Improve blood flow to lungs
103
Standard precautions and proper infection control
Wash and sanitize hands for 30 sec, gloves gown and mask