FINAL STUDYGUIDE Flashcards
(109 cards)
1
Q
somatic dysfunctions can occur anywhere in the body at
A
sympathetic, parasympathetic, and soma
2
Q
viscerosomatic reflexes occur at
A
sympathetic and parasympathetics
3
Q
facilitated segments only occur at
A
sympathetics
4
Q
what is the sympathetic and parasympathetic levels of the upper ureters
A
sympathetic-T10-T11
parasympathetics: Vagus (OA, AA)
5
Q
a stone in the ureter or appendicitis may cause _______ to become hypertonic and result in a positive _____ ______
A
psoas; thomas test
6
Q
translation to the right equals side bending to the _____
A
left
7
Q
tight piriformis leads to reduced
A
hip internal rotation
8
Q
soft tissue techniques are ______ as well as _____
A
diagnostic; therapeutic
9
Q
stympathetic innervation to the head and neck
A
T1-T4
10
Q
upper cervical area and the sacrum are connected by
A
dural connections
11
Q
_____ accounts for 50% of the cervical spines roational motion
A
AA
12
Q
____ accounts for 50% of the cerical spines flexion/extension
A
OA
13
Q
what does the spurling test assess for
A
neural foraminal narrowing
14
Q
underburg/wallenburg tests for ______ in the vertebral arteries
A
patency
15
Q
if you extend the neck and rotate left/side bend left you are checking for patency on the
A
right vertebral artery
16
Q
what does TART stand for
A
Tissue Texture Changes
Assymetry
Restriction in motion
Tenderness
17
Q
are fractures, sprains, degenerative processes, and inflammatory processes somatic dysfunctions
A
no
18
Q
are somatovisceral effects more prevalent in acute or chronic cases
A
chronic
19
Q
a visceral problem gives you a _______end feel
A
rubbery
20
Q
boggy is ______, ropey is _____
A
acute; chronic
21
Q
which fryette has no saggitazl componenet
A
type I
22
Q
In Type I, side bending ______ rotation and side bending occurs _______ the concavity
A
precedes, towards
23
Q
what is the mnemonic for superior facets
A
BUM, BUL, BM
24
Q
what is the mnemonic for inferior facets5
A
AIL, AIM, AL
25
what is the sympathetic levels for cholecystitis and which way will the rotate
T5-T9 rotate right
26
what is the sympathetics for gastritis and which way will they rotate
T5-T9 rotate left
27
S and P for heart
S: T1-T5
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)
28
S and P for Lungs
S: T1-T6
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)
29
S and P for stomach
S: T5-9
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)
30
S and P for Gallbladder
S:T5-T9
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)
31
S and P for upper ureter
S: T10-T11
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)
32
S and P for lower ureter
S: T12-L1
P:S2-S4
33
the vagus nerve innervate the trachea to the
transverse colon
34
S2-S4 is parasympathetics from transverse colon to
external genitalia
35
what are the parasympathetics to the ovaries and testes
vagus and S2-S4
36
what is the preganglionic and postganglionics of distal esophagus to proximal duodenum (T5-T9)
greater splanchnic, celiac ganglion
37
what is the pre and postganglionics of duodenum to upper ureter (T10-T11)
lesser splanchnic, superior messenteric ganglion
38
what is the pre and postganglionics of distal 1/3 TC to bladder (T12-L2)
least (12) and Lumbar (L1-L2) splanchnic nerve, inferior messenteric ganglion
39
what is the nerves to the appendix
superior messenteric ganglion; lesser splanchnic (T10-T11)
40
For a cervical diagnosis of SLRL, the TP closer to mastoid is _____, TP closer to mandible is ______, Deep occipital shelf _____, shallow occipital shelf ____
left; right; right left
41
For a cervical diagnosis of SRRL, the TP closer to mastoid is _____, TP closer to mandible is ______, Deep occipital shelf _____, shallow occipital shelf ____
right; left; left; right
42
C2-C7 are type __ like
two
43
what is the treatment position of anterior cervical 1
RA
44
what is the treatment potion of the anterior cervical 2-6
F SARA
45
what is the treatment position of anterior cervical 7
F STRA
46
what is the treatment position of anterior cervical 8
F SARA
47
what is the treatment position of PC2
E SARA
48
CN III uses what ganglion
ciliary
49
CN IX (glossopharyngeal) uses what ganglion
otic
50
facial nerve uses what two ganglion
pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglion
51
what is the jugular foramen formed by
temporal bone and the occiput forming the occipitomastoid suture
52
what nerve is involved in torticolis
CN XI
53
what CN involved in vommiting
Vagus
54
what CN exit the jugular foramen
9, 10, 11
55
dysfunction of the vagus nerve could come from what suture
occipitomastoid
56
where does SCM refer pain
lateral to and behind the eye
57
where does splenius capitus muscle refer pain to
vertex of the head
58
Counterstrain, FPR, BLT, Functional technique, cranial and still are all considered
indirect
59
myofascial release, soft tissue, articulatory, ME, HVLA, springing (cranial and still)
direct techniques
60
how do you perform FPR
put body in NEUTRAL postion, COMPRESS, place into ease of motion for 3-5 seconds
61
what type of vector force is used in a still technique
compressive
62
a deep sulcus on the right indicates that the OA is rotated
right
63
OA with a deep sulcus on the left which is worse with ext what is diagnosis
OA F SR RL
64
if a patient has lax ligaments such as RA or Trisomy 21 it is an indication of
HVLA and all articulatory techniques (Still)
65
what is the sensation motor and reflex for C6
sensation-thumb/index
motor-wrist extensor
reflex-brachioradialis
66
what is the sensation, motor, and reflex for C7
sensation-mid finger
motor-triceps
reflex-triceps
67
what is the sensation, motor, and reflex for T1
sensation-medial elbow
motor-interossi
reflex-none
68
4/4 DTR is indicative to an injury to
UMN
69
0/4 DTR is indicative to an injury to
LMN
70
what are the four rotator cuff muscles and what do they do
Supraspinatus-abduction
Infraspinatus-external rotation
Teres minor-external rotation
Subscapularis-internal rotation
71
falling on an outstretched hand leads to a _______ radial head
posterior
72
in an abducted ulna, the olecranon has a ____ glide
medial
73
in parallelogram effect, as ulna adducts, wrist is pulled into _______ position
abducted
74
lateral epicondylitis is known as
tennis elbow
75
medial epicondylitis is known as
golfers elbow
76
when you are walking, if weight is on left foot your sacrum is
LOL
77
your lumbar spine rotates ______ direction of the sacrum
opposite
78
for ROR and LOL sacral torsions ME, which way would patient faace and were would legs be
toward the table, legs flexed greater than 90 degrees
79
Muscle Energy ROL or LOR, patient would face ________ and legs would be
upward and legs flexed less than 90
80
for unilateral flexion, how would you place your hands and where would you push
hand on ILA, force anterior and superior
81
where would you put your hands and which way would you press for unilateral sacral extension
hand on sacral sulcus with a force anterior and caudad
82
where is AL1 and what position do you put them in
medial to ASIS and F STRA
83
where is AL2 tenderpoing and what position do you put them in
medial to AIIS and FSART
84
where is the AL3 counterstrain point and what postion do youb put them in
lateral to AIIS and FSART
85
where is the AL$ counterstrain point and what position do you put them in
unferior to AIIS and FSART
86
where is the AL5 counterstrain point and what position do you put them in
lateral to pubic symphysis and F SARA
87
what postion do you put your patient in neurtral thoracic HVLA
smiley
88
which ribs are pump handle motion amd where are they best fe;
1-5, midclavicular
89
which ribs are bucket handle motion and where are they best felt
6-10 mid axillary line
90
pump handle ribs move predominently in the ________ plane
sagittal
91
bucket handle motion is predominately in what plane
coronal
92
exhaled ribs are predominantly
posterior
93
anterior counterstrain
exhalation rib SD
94
what attaches to rib 1
anterior and middle scalene
95
what attaches to rib 2
posterior scalene
96
what attaches to ribs 3-5
pec minor
97
what attaches to ribs 6-8
serratus anterior
98
what attaches to ribs 9-11
LAT DORSI
99
what attaches to rib 12
quadratus lumborum
100
for muscle energy of an inhalation dysfunction, where do you put patient if dysfunction is in pump handle ribs? bucket handle ribs?
felx head and neck; flex head and neck and side bend towards
101
where do you put your thenar eminence in rib HVLA 2-10
rib angle
102
what is the positon of the patient in treatment of AR1-10 counterstrain point
FSTRT
103
where do ypu put the patient in PR1 counterstrain point
ESART
104
where do you put the patient in PR 2-10 counterstrain point
F SARA
105
tenderness ot palpation of the lateral foot distal to the calcaneous is indicative of
laterally rotated cuboid
106
tenderness to palpation of the medial foot distal to the talus is indicative of
medially rotated navicular
107
cuboid tends to
evert
108
navicular tends to
invert
109
coxa varus, genu valgus, protonated foot, pes planus, tight vastus lateralis, tight tensor fascia latae, weak vastus medialis will have a positive
patellofemoral tracking system
