FINALS Flashcards

(180 cards)

1
Q

Stage: for Early HIV infection

A

Stage 0

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2
Q

Stage: >500 cells/mm3

A

Stage 1

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3
Q

Stage: 200-499 cells/mm3

A

Stage 2

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4
Q

Stage: <200 cells/mm3

A

Stage 3

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5
Q

Stage: CD4 count has no data

A

stage unknown

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6
Q

Stage for CD4 %
>26

A

Stage 1

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7
Q

Stage for CD4 %
14-25

A

Stage 2

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8
Q

Stage for CD4 %
<14

A

Stage 3

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9
Q

Stage for No aids defining condition

A

Stage 1 and 2

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10
Q

Stage for documentation of aids defining condition

A

Stage 3

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11
Q

Stage for no information on aids defining condition

A

stage unkown

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12
Q

family of dengue

A

flaviviridae

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13
Q

small positive sense
ssRNA, enveloped, icosahedral viruses.

A

flavivirus

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14
Q

“Flavi” a Latin word
meaning

A

yellow

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15
Q

the most prevalent arbovirus in the world

A

dengue

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16
Q

It has 4 serotypes that causes variety of clinical manifestations

A

dengue

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17
Q

Subsequent infection with one or three remaining serotypes
may result in immune-enhanced disease in the form of

A
  1. severe hemorrhagic
  2. dengue shock syndrome
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18
Q

Infection begins with a sudden onset of fever, severe headache,
chills, and general myalgia

A

Dengue

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19
Q

Does dengue has vaccine

A

NONE

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20
Q

Laboratory diagnosis:
→ Based on the presence of virus specific IgM antibody
→ A fourfold rise in specific IgG antibody
→ Positive RT-PCR amplification for dengue genomic
sequences

A

Dengue

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21
Q

what antibody is present in dengue virus

A

IgM

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22
Q

A fourfold rise in specific IgG antibody

A

Dengue

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23
Q

incubation period of dengue

A

3-5 / 2-7 days

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24
Q

family of rabies

A

rhabdoviridae

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25
genus of rabies
Lyssavirus
26
Electron microscopy: bullet-shaped or conical appearance,
rabies
27
a neurotropic virus that infects all mammals. Infection terminates in the death of the infected animal.
rabies
28
After inoculation, the raies virus may initially multiply in the
musculoskeletal tissue
29
the site of viral replication for rabies
neurons
30
Can rabies spread to salivary gland?
yes
31
signs: Hydrophobia
rabies
32
Treatment protocol for rabies
Milwaukee protocol
33
Clinical presentation of rabies associated with heightened aggression and agitation
Furious
34
Clinical presentation of rabies associated with lethargy and paralysis
Dumb
35
Detection method of rabies
PCR Fluorescent antibody staining
36
Rabies is diagnosed by postmortem examination of brain tissue using
Direct immunofluorescent assay (DIA)
37
What specimen used for postmortem examination for rabies
Brain tissue
38
Specific sections of the brain are examined for the rabies ANTIGEN using
fluorescent tagged monoclonal antibodies and microscope
39
Spike-like projections
rabies
40
fastest and most sensitive for detecting rabies virus in specimens.
Direct immunofluorescent technique
41
family of marburg and ebola
filoviridae
42
considered the most pathogenic of the hemorrhagic fever viruses.
marburg
43
Term "Filo means
thread like
44
electron microscopy: has long filamentous structural morphology
marburg
45
appears on Electron microscopy as “6”, “U”, and circular.
Marburg and ebola
46
shapes of Marburg and ebola in electron microscopy
6 U circular
47
"shepherd’s hook” morphology.
Marburg
48
a severe multisystem syndrome in which multiple organ systems are affected throughout the body.
viral hemorrhagic fever
49
what virus is endemic in Africa
Marburg and ebola
50
What virus can cause proteinuria
Marburg and ebola
51
Case fatality percentage for ebola
>80%
52
Case fatality for marburg
23-25%
53
Treatment for marburg
none
54
Does ebola has vaccine
-ChAd3-ZEBOV (GlaxoSmithKline) − VSV-EBOV
55
Two-dose vaccination process referred to as
heterologous prime boost
56
named after a river in Zaire (from Congo)
ebola virus
57
ebola was named after a?
river in zaire
58
5 subspecies of ebola
- Zaire ebolavirus − Sudan ebolavirus − Cote d’Ivoire ebolavirus (formerly Ebola-Ivory Coast) − Bundibugyo ebolavirus − Reston ebolavirus
59
what ebola subspecie(s) only cause disease in nonhuman primates
Reston ebolavirus
60
what ebola subspecie(s) cause infections through aerosolization of secretions
Reston ebolavirus
61
Confirmatory test for marburg
IgG ELISA
62
what is the most virulent ebolavirus
Zaire
63
family of mumps and measles
paramyxoviridae
64
what virus do not have segmented genome
paramyxoviruses
65
characterized by PAROTITIS (inflamed salivary gland)
Mumps
66
can cause generalized infection often accompanied by rash
Measles
67
hallmark of measles
Koplik spots
68
bluish white spots with red halo on the buccal of labial mucosa
Koplik spots
69
what is exanthem
rash or skin eruption
70
Other diseases that cause exanthem
1. scarlet fever 2. rubella/german measles/ atypical scarlet fever 3. erythema infectiousum / fifth disease 4. roseola
71
what bacteria cause scarlet fever
group A strep
72
cause of eryhtema infectiousum
parvovirus B-19
73
True or false: Rubella is found both the human population and non-human population.
False, only human population
73
Vaccine for rubella
Trivalent vaccine (ambot) MMR vaccine (sure)
73
cause of roseola
HHV-6
74
rubella virus is also known as
german measles
75
If a developing fetus is infected with rubella virus, this can cause
multiple congenital anomalies
76
Rubella virus that occurs later in pregnancy may result in?
Splenomegaly and osteomyelitis
77
True or false: Fetal infection can be prevented in rubella virus
true
78
may resemble other disorders, such as : Infectious mononucleosis and drug-induced rashes
Rubella infection
79
rubella infection of fetal tissues
congenital rubella syndrome
80
The largest and most complex of all viruses
Poxviruses
81
poxvirus virions may be visualized through _____ microscope
light microscope
82
what virus characterized by “pocks” on the skin
poxvirus
83
how many poxvirus are capable of infecting humans
10
84
True or false: Most poxvirus are zoonoses
True
85
Poxvirus are normally acquired through?
abrasion of the skin contact with infected animal
86
most feared viruses of history
Smallpox
87
what virus has a possibility to be a biological weapon
Smallpox
88
Its disease is a generalized infection with PUSTULAR RASH
Small pox
89
It played a crucial role in demonstrating the importance of vaccination
Smallpox
89
what smallpox subtype cause the most severe disease
Variela Major
90
Fatality rate of Variela major
30%
91
what smallpox subtype cause less severe disease
Variela minor
92
Fatality rate of Variela Minor
0.1%-0.2%
93
Found in the tropical rain forests of Africa
Monkeypox
94
True or false: Monkeypox is indistinguishable from smallpox
True
95
Difference of smallpox and monkeypox
Monkeypox lacks the same mortality and transmissibility
96
Human monkeypox can be acquired through?
oropharynx nasopharynx abrasion
97
Steps / process of monkeypox (ambot)
1. rash appears (face) 2. macules 3. papules 4. vesicles 5. pustules
98
monkeypox can last for how many weeks
2-4 weeks
99
rapid diagnostic identification tool for cases of monkeypox
RT-PCR
100
what virus Manifests as benign nodules.
Molluscum contagiousum virus
101
True or false: Molluscum contagiousum virus only host is human
True
102
what poxvirus is most severe for immunocompromise Px
Molluscum contagiousum virus
103
What virus is Transmitted from sheep to humans.
Orf virus
104
what virus cause a single of multiple nodules usually on the hands
orf virus
105
Family of Human papilloma virus
Papillomaviridae
106
small, icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped, circular, dsDNA
Human papilloma virus
107
These viruses as abundant in nature
Human papilloma virus
108
what virus can cause infections in humans, dogs, cattle, monkeys.
Human papilloma virus
109
HPV site of latency
Epithelial cells
109
what virus exhibit a tissue TROPISM for either cutaneous or mucosal tissue
Human papilloma virus
110
most prevalent sexually transmitted viral disease in the US.
HPV
110
what sexually transmitted virus have not been cultivated in cell culture
HPV
111
how many genotypes does HPV have
200 genotypes
112
How many genotypes of HPV are sexually transmitted and have role on the pathogenesis of cancer.
>30
113
How many genotypes of HPV are characterized
80
114
Various HPV genotypes ____________, resulting in defined variation in the clinical presentation of warts.
Differing cellular tropisms
115
what HPV is associated with plantar warts
HPV-1
116
what HPV is associated with common warts in hands
HPV 2 and 4
117
what HPV responsible for more than 90% of anogenital warts
HPV 6 and 11
117
what HPV responsible for a subset of cancers of the oropharynx and penile cancer.
HPV 16
117
what HPV associated with adenocarcinoma
HPV-18
117
for HPV, what sample can be used for genotyping
Liquid based cytology sample
117
HPV is oncogenic causing cervical and penile cancer specifically what HPV?
16 and 18
118
most common carcinogenic types of HPV
HPV 16 and 18
118
what vaccine also protects against HPV 6 and 11
Gardasil
118
vaccines for HPV 16 and 18
- Cervarix (GlaxoSmithKline) − Gardasil − Gardasil-9
119
what vaccine of HPV protects against several lower-risk HPV types known to be associated with cervical and most HPV-induced oral cancers.
Gardasil-9
120
Family of Human immunodeficiency virus
Retroviridae
121
constitutes a large group of viruses that primarily infect vertebrates
Retroviridae
122
122
what virus is s packaged with the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
retroviruses
122
what are the 2 groups of retrovirus
HIV and HTLV (Human T-lymphotropic virus)
123
what HIV is responsible for AIDS
HIV-1
123
what HIV is more aggressive
HIV-1
124
125
end stage of a process (HIV) in which the immune system and its ability to control infections and malignant proliferation is destroyed.
AIDS
126
what cells are infected in HIV
CD4 T lymphocyte Monocyte cells of the CNS
127
surface marker of T lymphocytes
CD4
128
who are at risk for HIV
1. homosexual / bisexual males 2. IV drug abusers 3. Sex with HIV infected 4. infants with infected mother
128
HIV site of latency
CD4 T lymphocyte
128
HIV has an affinity for?
CD4
128
Clinical management of HIV infected individuals involves the use of
HAART (Highly active antiretroviral therapy)
129
what test is used for identification of viral DNA or RNA and is recommended for HIV
PCR
130
130
is used to measure the amount of HIV in the blood
Quantitative plasma RNA test (viral load)
130
what test provides a method of antibody-specific identification of several HIV antigens.
Traditional western blot test
131
an essential parameter in guiding decisions to begin or monitor antiviral therapy
Viral load
132
Presence of antibody to HIV __ and to either gp__and gp__ is sufficient to confirm HIV-1 infection
Presence of antibody to HIV p24 and to either gp41 and gp160 is sufficient to confirm HIV-1 infection
132
what testing is used to detect acutely HIV infected patients before the appearance of antibody
HIV-1 p24
133
True or false: Western blot test is limited by the production of maternal HIV antibody present in infants
True
134
what are the miscellaneous viruses
astrovirus Transfusion transmitted virus (TTV) Hepatitis G virus
135
An ssRNA virus found in the gastrointestinal tract
Astrovirus
136
Ubiquitous in children causing minority of childhood diarrhea
Astrovirus
136
Transfusion transmitted virus is also known as
Torque teno virus
137
Astrovirus is detected using
electron microscopy
137
An orphan virus from the family: Anelloviridae
TTV
138
138
what virus is Associated post-transfusion hepatitis of unknown etiology (non A-G)
TTV
138
138
139
detection method for hepatitis G
PCR
139
A flavivirus similar to HCV
hepatitis G
139
139
other name of hepatitis G virus
GB-C virus
139
a group of uncurable and fatal neurodegenerative disorders of humans and other animals
spongiform encephalopathies
139
140
common prion that causes dementia, ataxia, stupor, coma, and death; transmitted by organ transplant
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
141
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is also known as
mad cow disease
141
common prion that is more rare but often publicized in media outlets; known as mad cow disease
Bovine spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)
142
All prion disease are the result of
protein misfolding
143
Aggregates of misfolded proteins form
amyloid fibers resulting to tissue plaques
144
Mass accumulation of the misfolded proteins leads to
1. cell death 2. tissue damage
145
Prions should be handled using what BSL
BSL-2
146
Prions prevention is
Incineration
147
Diagnosis of prions
Brain tissue biopsy
148
Protein + infection =
Prions
149