Finals Flashcards
(221 cards)
1
Q
What is a moral agent?
A
Person responsible for implementing an ethical decision
2
Q
Which of the following statements regarding informed consent is NOT true?
A
Signed forms may be filled in after the procedure is completed
3
Q
When a hospital innocently commits an error as the result of following the orders of an attending physician, the physician may be held responsible according to the:
A
Doctrine of borrowed servant
4
Q
The mapping and identification of the human genetic code was completed in the year 2000 by the:
A
Human Genome Project
5
Q
Jamie is a nuclear medicine tech. In virtually any state, he may, for diagnostic or therapeutic reason, apply or administer:
A
Radiation and radionuclides
6
Q
What is an example of a valid choice?
A
“Would you like to use the restroom before we begin?”
7
Q
In the US, patient rights to communicate effectively in healthcare situations, regardless of language barriers, is guaranteed by:
A
Federal Law
8
Q
An attitude that involves hostility or anger is termed:
A
Aggressiveness
9
Q
Aphasic patients are unable to:
A
Speak
10
Q
The generational group most likely to accept the word of healthcare professionals without question is:
A
Those over age 75
11
Q
Intractuaneous injections involve:
A
Small amounts of drug in solution and slow absorption
12
Q
Which body surface absorbs drugs most readily?
A
Mucous membranes
13
Q
Intramuscular injections involve:
A
The use of aqueous solutions and aqueous suspensions
14
Q
The use of hypodermic needles is generally restricted to:
A
Phlebotomy and single, small injections
15
Q
An intravenous bolus is generally administered to the:
A
Cephalic and basilic veins, and antecubital fossa
16
Q
A butterfly set is often used for:
A
Direct injections with a syringe
17
Q
As Ms. Blair is receiving an IV fluid infiltration, some of the fluid accidentally injected into the tissues surrounding the vein. Which of the following is true?
A
Ms. Blair is experiencing an extravasation, the needle must be removed
18
Q
In performing venipuncture, be sure that:
A
The bevel of the needle is up
19
Q
Venipuncture is used to deliver _____ to dehydrated patients
A
Electrolyte replacements, normal saline, 5% solution of dextrose in water
20
Q
Use of the rectal route:
A
Avoids irritation of the upper GI tract and may promote higher bloodstream drug titers than the oral route
21
Q
Which of the following guidelines is not appropriate regarding IV contrast?
A
After giving IV contrast, remain with the patient for a minimum of 20 minutes
22
Q
Pain at the injection site is more frequently caused by the:
A
Injection site
23
Q
When a patient overreacts or underreacts to medication or has an unexpected response, the effect is considered to be:
A
Idiosyncratic
24
Q
What medication is a corticosteroid drug that acts as an anti-inflammatory agent, preventing or reducing edema of the tracheobronchial tree and minimizing the possibility of respiratory arrest during allergic reactions?
A
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
25
Generic medications are usually:
The same as, but less expensive than, propietary medications
26
Toxic effects of medication can occur when the drug accumulates in the body due to:
1)overdose
2)impaired elimination
3)advanced age
All three
27
When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because he has been sensitized to a previous dose of the drug, the effect is considered to be:
Allergic
28
Respiratory depression is a side effect of which of the listed drug classes?
1) Benzodiazepines
2) Antihistamines
3) Opioids
4) Hypoglycemics
Benzodiazepines & Opioids
29
Drugs given before surgery and certain diagnostic procedures for the purpose of suppressing secretions belong to the category known as:
Anticholinergics
30
Which of the following are considered controlled substances under the Harrison Act?
1) Morphine
2) Cocaine
3) Marijuana
4) LSD
All 4
31
When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because of other medication they are taking, the effect is considered to be:
Synergistic
32
The effects of CNS depressants may be monitored by:
Pulse Ox
33
The role of the radiographer in medication administration involves:
Preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given
34
Which of the following types of medication will cause respiratory depression?
Opiates and opioids
35
Insulin, tolbutamide, chlorpropamide, rosiglitazone, and metformin are examples of:
Hypoglycemic agents
36
The trade name of a medication is also called its:
Proprietary name
37
Pharmacokinetic processes of medications:
Distribution, metabolism, excretion, absorption
38
Flumazenil and naloxone (narcan)
Reverse the sedation of other drugs
39
A medication often prescribed for self-administration by patients who suffer from angina pectoris (chest pain) is:
Nitroglycerine
40
A drug usually takes effect most rapidly when administered:
Intravenously
41
Proper height of an IV bottle or bag is:
18-20 inches above the vein
42
A skin test, such as TB, is administered:
Intradermal
43
Injection of a contrast medium into the subarachnoid space for a myelogram is an example of:
Intrathecal
44
Administering nitroglycerine under the patients tongue is an example of:
Sublingual administration
45
An infusion is a slow delivery of medication by means of gravity flow into:
The vein
46
If extravasation occurs during IV infusion, you should remove the needle or catheter, apply pressure, and then:
Apply cold packs to the site
47
Failure to apply pressure to the vein after discontinuing an IV can result in
Hematoma
48
A common site for emergency IV injection is:
The median cubital vein
49
If an IV infusion runs too fast, it may cause:
A pulmonary edema
50
Phobia is which of the following:
A psychological condition that consists of irrational fear
51
Medications used for conscious sedation:
Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines
52
Which of the following drugs should be given to patients in the event that they suffer acute respiratory depression after injection midazolam?
Flumazenil
53
If sedative agents are administered in too high of a dose, the following may occur:
Death, general anesthesia, respiratory arrest
54
Which of the following should be performed before considering conscious sedation?
Obtain accurate history, assess heart/lungs and document airway patency, acquire list of medications, list all known allergies to food and medication
55
The highest survival rate following cardiac arrest occurs in patients who:
Receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation within 4 minutes, receive medications via advanced CLS within 8 minutes
56
While experiencing cardiac arrect, Mr. Ferris is given _____, which is the pharmaceutical equivalent of adrenaline:
Epinephrine
57
Myocardial necrosis is a risk that can occur with _____ administration of epinephrine
Intracardiac
58
Mr. Bay is to receive an IV infusion of dopamine. This can be delivered:
Via controlled delivery device, in normal saline solution, in 5% dextrose water solution
59
High doses of epinephrine generally result in:
Alpha receptor predominance, constriction of arterioles and increase blood pressure
60
A high dose is generally considered to be any dose:
Greater than 10mcg/kg/min
61
Osmolality:
-Controls distribution and movement of water between body compartments.
-the number of milliosmoles per kg of water
62
Diatrizoate meglumine and diatrizoate sodium solutions are:
Generally used when barium sulfate suspension is potentially harmful.
Preferred over barium in suspension in CT because of less artifact production
63
The newer low-osmolality ionic ROCM:
are considered to be ratio 3.0 media
64
Body parts whose tissues are particularly low contrast include the:
Blood vessels, kidneys and biliary tree, stomach and intestines
65
Tablets used for opacifying the gallbladder
locetamic acid
66
Intravascular ROCM:
consists of large molecules, do not cross cellular membranes well
67
Patients with renal impairment
Demonstrate opacified biliary and GI tracts when given intravascular ROCM
68
Iodamide meglumine
-Eliminated by kidneys
-Been replaced by ultrasonography and CT scanning
69
Iodine molecules are responsible for the silhouette images projected on radiographic film because they:
Absorb photons
70
ROCM that are particularly inclined to form precipitates with other intravenous drugs include:
Diatrizoate, Ioxaglate
71
Mrs. Brown has a pheochromocytoma. What adverse reaction is she particularly at risk of experiencing?
Hypertensive crisis
72
Anaphylactoid reactions:
-Mimic anaphylactic reactions but require no prior exposure to ROCM to sensitize the mast cell
-Are just as lethal as anaphylaxis
73
To achieve high iodine concentration, ROCM must:
Be injected intravascularly at a rate equal or greater to blood flow
74
Patient at risk for acute renal failure following IV ROCM include all of the following except:
Dehydration before ROCM
75
Anaphylaxis
-Requires formation of antigen-antibody complex during a first-time exposure to an antigen
-Is a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
76
An ionic iodinated contrast agent is one that:
Dissociates into charged particles in solution
77
For approximately 8 hours following myelography, the patient is:
Placed supine with the head elevated
78
An intrathecal injection is a direct injection into the:
Spinal canal
79
Low-osmolar contrast agents, as compared to high osmolar agents are:
Less likely to initiate an allergic response
80
When a contrast medium is described as aqueous, this means that:
Water is the principal solvent for the iodine compound
81
An exam that uses contrast media to visualize the internal surfaces of the spinal canal to aid in the diagnosis of conditions characterized by deformity or crowding of the spinal canal is called a:
Myelogram
82
Gases commonly used as contrast agents are air and
carbon dioxide
83
Aqueous iodine compounds that are injected into the body are removed from the blood and excreted:
in urine via the kidneys
84
Contrast media used for examination of the urinary tract and the vascular system are various forms of:
Water-soluble iodine compounds
85
The toxicity of a contrast medium on body tissues and organs is related to:
1) the chemical configuration of its molecules
2) its iodine concentrations and its osmolality
3) its ionization characteristics
4) the doseage administered and the rate of injection
All 4
86
Which of the following sites is commonly selected for lumbar puncture to instill a contrast agent for myelography?
L3-L4 interspace
87
Which of the listed biliary imaging procedures is no longer performed because of risks associated with the contrast medium that was used?
Intravenous cholangiography (IVC)
88
Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be an adverse reaction to the intravenous injection of aqueous iodinated contrast media?
Hypertension
89
A procedure in which a thin needle is inserted directly into the common bile duct is called:
Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
90
A patient is given a solution drug form that is observed to reaction in her system by moving from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Which of the following is true?
The drug is traversing cellular membranes by passive diffusion
91
Drug molecules are eliminated from the body through:
Kidneys, saliva, respiratory system
92
Rate and extent of drug absorption depend on:
Surface area at the site, blood flow, concentration, lipophilicity
93
Drugs that are administered orally frequently travel first to the liver before entering the general circulation. This is referred to as:
First-pass metabolism
94
When bilirubin is transformed from a lipid-soluble substance to a water-soluble substance that can be excreted in the bile, the process is referred to as:
Conjugation
95
Barium is used as an oral gastrointestinal radiopaque agent because it:
Does not cross GI membranes well
96
A new medication is developed that consists of two immiscible liquids. One liquid appears as globules uniformly dispersed throughout the other liquid. What is most likely to be used to maintain globule stability?
An emulsifying agent
97
How long it takes after a medication is administered until seeing the first sign of its effect.
Onset of action, latent period
98
The degree to which a drug is able to produce its desired effect is its
efficacy
99
A lab is testing the relative drug safety of a drug, producing a ratio that is very close to 1. This calculation suggest that:
The drug is dangerous, this dose would be required to attempt to effectively cure the patient, but it could also kill him or her
100
When a drug interferes with the action of an older drug that normally has greater efficacy:
Partial agonist
101
When taking a combination of drugs, and a new drug is started that inactivates the receptor so that its agonist cannot be effective, this new drug is considered to be
competitive antagonist
102
When a drug enhances normal physiologic function, the drug is considered to be an:
agonist
103
To discover the plasma concentrations that produce the desired drug effect without toxicity means to establish the drugs:
therapeutic range
104
Drug X has a strong affinity for a specific receptor, and this enables it to elicit a ____ effect
Mixed agonist/antagonist, agonist, antagonist
105
If a researcher is looking for the highest plasma concentration attained from a specific dose of a specific drug, he or she would be looking for its:
Peak plasma level
106
Mrs. Jennings is switched to a drug that resembles the ______ to which an enzyme attaches, resulting in drug-enzyme interaction
Substrate
107
Which of the following medications is considered to be an antidepressant
Amitriptyline, Isocarboxazid
108
Which of the following medications is in the endocrine class of drugs?
Insulin
109
Which of the following is considered to be less sedating?
Fexofenadine
110
Which of the following is probably one of the most commonly used analgesic (pain reliever) medications?
Acetominophen
111
Which of the following adverse effects can happen with an overdose of meperidine?
The patient may suddenly stop breathing to the point of needing artificial respiration
112
Which of the following drugs should alert the tech not to get an IV line started without first checking with the physician to be absolutely sure it will be okay?
Retelplase, Tenecteplase, Alteplase
All
113
Which of the following drugs may indicate the patient is suffering from an infectious disease process?
Ceftazidime
114
Which of the following drugs can make your patient stop breathing?
Fentanyl, Morphine
115
Which of the following may indicate that a patient could become very difficult to manage if provoked in a way which he or she is uncomfortable?
1) Perphenazine
2) Olanzapine
3) Risperidone
4) All the above
All the above
116
Nalaxone is an antidote that can be used for reversing the respiratory depressant effects of which of the following?
Hydromorphone
117
Antidote for benzodiazepines
Flumazenil
118
Which of the following drugs suggests that the patient may have a thyroid problem?
Levothyroxine
119
A patient suffering from arthritis could be taking which of the following drugs?
Ibuprofen
120
What might put a patient at risk for bleeding?
Tenecteplase, Aspirin, Clopidogrel
121
What medications suggest that your patient may be suffering from cancer?
Vincristine
122
Which of the following classes of medications affects the electrical conduction system of the myocardium?
Antiarrhythmic
123
Which of the following suggests that the patient may be suffering from a seizure disorder?
Fosphenytoin, Phenytoin, Oxcarbazine
124
Which of the following should be withheld before administering radiopaque contrast media?
Metformin
125
Which of the following is not an antihypertensive drug?
Digoxin
126
Why should one not start any excessive IV lines in patients who just received streptokinase?
The patient may stop breathing
127
Which of the following is not a muscle relaxant?
Sotalol
128
A conscious patient whose hands are moist and trembling is most likely suffering from:
Anxiety
129
The Pigg-O-Stat is used to immobilize infants for:
Upright chest radiography
130
Mark Novac is an ambulatory inpatient who needs to urinate while in the imaging department. His chart states that a urine specimen is needed, you should:
Provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen
131
Position where patient is on back with head lower than the feet:
Trendelenburg
132
Which of the following sites should be used to monitor an irregular or slow pulse?
Apex of the heart - Apical pulse
133
When checking a patient for signs of cyanosis, the radiographer should note the coloration of the:
Lips and nail beds
134
In electrocardiography, PVC stands for:
Partial Ventricular Contraction
135
Which of the following routes and methods is rarely used to monitor the body temperature of an adult patient?
A disposable thermometer applied to the forehead
136
Stage one of hypertension BP:
140/90
137
Which of the following lab tests would not be performed to determine the bloods ability to clot?
Hemoglobin concentration
138
When a patient is experiencing tachypnea, the patient is breathing more than:
20 breaths
139
It is important for radiographers to develop and use patient assessment skills so they can:
Meet patient needs and set priorities
140
When type of question should you ask the patient to begin a history?
Open ended
141
The term diaphoretic means:
Agent capable of inducing sweating
142
The process of placing an artificial airway through the nose or mouth and into the trachea is commonly called:
Intubation
143
A serious unexpected event that demands immediate attention is correctly termed:
Emergency
144
Research has proven that victims of massive trauma who survive the initial injury have a greater chance of recovery if their condition can be stabilized within the "golden" period, which refers to the first:
Hour
145
An oxygen mask that has an attached reservoir bag that fills with 100% oxygen and a valve to prevent exhaled gas from being inhaled again is called a:
Nonrebreathing Mask
146
The type of oxygen mask most appropriate for a patient with COPD is a:
Venturi Mask
147
When patients who suffer from a chronic lung disease, such as emphysema, experience respiratory distress, they should receive how much oxygen?
Low flow rate (2L/min or less)
148
The three greatest risks to survival that determine priority in a trauma unit are paralysis, cardiac arrest, and:
Respiratory arrest
149
A patient who suddenly demonstrates increased thirst, increased urinary output, decreased appetite, nausea, weakness, confusion, and coma requires the administration of:
Insulin
150
In small children or infants, a foreign body obstruction of the airway should be suspected if there is a sudden onset of:
Severe coughing or stridor
151
Patients with massive trauma are transported on a backboard and are not removed until:
Spinal fracture has been ruled out
152
An acute attack of asthma or other reactive airway disease may be treated by the administration of oxygen and:
A bronchodilating medicaion
153
If a patient without history of vertigo experiences a sudden onset, it could be:
Transient ischemic attack, cerebrovascular accident, a drug interaction
154
The safest posture for maintaining the airway of an unconscious patient who is vomiting is the
Lateral recumbent position
155
Shock resulting from the excessive loss of blood or plasma is called:
Hypovolemic shock
156
A patient who suddenly demonstrates nervous irritability, cold clammy skin, weakness, hunger, and blurred vision requires the administration of:
Glucose
157
Radiopaque contrast agents fall into the category of:
Legend drugs
158
The shortened version of a drugs official name is the:
Generic name
159
Schedule ___ drugs are prescription drugs with the highest potential for abuse
C-II
160
Immunity that is passed from mother to child in the mothers milk is:
Passive immunity
161
One type of microorganism that is difficult to treat medically because there are few effective medications and those are effective for only a limited number of organisms. This statement refers to:
Viruses
162
A bacterium
is a single celled, prokaryotic, microorganism
163
HIV and Syphilis are examples of infections that are spread by means of:
Direct Contact
164
Under the system of protective precautions, the radiographer who handles the x-ray unit
drops the IR into a clean or sterile cover
165
When taking an x-ray of a patient under airborne precautions, the radiographer must follow standard precautions and don:
A particulate respirator
166
The current CDC recommendation for isolating patients with known infections is called:
Transmission based precautions
167
When two persons are assisting a patient to move from stretcher onto a bed, they should position themselves so that:
both are on each side of the stretcher
168
The process of destroying pathogens by using chemical materials is called
disinfection
169
A reservoir of infection is:
Where a pathogen can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat
170
6 main routes of transmission of disease
Direct contact, Fomites, Vectors, Vehicles, Airborne, Droplet contamination
171
The most direct way to break the cycle of infection is to:
Prevent the transmission of the infectious organism from the reservoir to the susceptible host
172
Examples of portal of entry:
Respiratory tract, urinary tract, GI tract, open wound, mucous membrane, bloodstream
173
Microorganism capable of causing disease
Pathogen
174
_________ distinguish pathogens from nonpathogenic organisms and normal flora
virulence factors
175
Reservoir of infection mujst have:
Moisture, Nutrients, Suitable temperature
176
A weak acid crosses barriers best when
In an acid medium
177
An _____ consists of 2 immiscible liquids
emulsion
178
Schedule _____ are illegal for patients use in the US
C-I
179
Scheduled drugs are ___________ drugs
Prescription
180
Radiopaque contrast is considered a:
Legend drug because it requires a prescription
181
A _______ has affinity and some efficiency but may antagonize the action of other drugs that have greater efficacy
Partial Agonist
182
Blood iodine concentration must be within ____ to ____ mg/mL
280-370
183
Adverse effects by ROCM depend on
Immune system-stimulating abilityW
184
What tablets are used for opacifying the gallbladder
Iocetamic acid
185
Diatrizoate meglumine and sodium solutions are:
Harmul and preferred over barium sulfate
186
Intravascular ROCM:
Consists of large molecules and does not cross membranes well
187
Iodine molecules _____ photons
absorb
188
Ibuprofen inhibits the production of ______ mediators
Inflammatory
189
LD50 represents:
The dose at which the drug is lethal to 50% of the population
190
The ________ range is the range of the plasma concentration that produces the desired effect without toxicity:
Therapeutic
191
A drug _____ enhances or stimulates the bodys natural response to stimulation
Agonist
192
A legend drug requires:
Prescription
193
First pass metabolism means
Drugs given orally travel first to the liver
194
Anaphylaxis is a ______ hypersensitivity reaction
Type 1
195
A patient with decompensated thyrotoxicosis
Serum thyroid levels are in excess of normal values
196
Protozoa are
Unicellular, larger than bacteria, do not have cell wall, are eukaryotics
197
Methohexital is a
Barbituate
198
Which principle in the ASRT Code of Ethics deals with confidentiality?
Principle 9
199
The third principle of the ASRT Code of Ethics:
Requires radiographers to put aside personal prejudice and emotional bias when rendering services
200
What is an unintentional tort?
Negligence
201
A civil wrong committed by one individual against the person or property of another:
Tort
202
Examples of intentional torts:
Assault, battery, false imprisonment, invasion of privacy, libel, slander
203
The duty to help the patient advanced their own good and to act in the patients best interest is:
Beneficence
204
The duty to do no harm to the patient
Nonmaleficence
205
"It speaks for itself"
Res Ispa Loquitor
206
What is the safest method of transport for patients?
Wheeled transportation
207
Reservoir of infections must have what to survive:
Moisture, Nutrients, Suitable temperature
208
Provided by mechanical barriers of intact skin and mucous mebranes:
Natural resistance
209
Occurs when an individual develops antibodies to a particular organism as a result of either infection or immunization
Acquired Immunity
210
A group of symptoms that indicate myocardial infarction
Acute Coronary Syndrome
211
What is the first radiographic imaged obtained for trauma spinal series?
Cross table lateral c-spine
212
Multiple rib fractures
Flail chest
213
Mild Contrast Reactions
Warmth, flushing, metallic taste, coughing, nausea
214
Moderate Contrast Reactions
Erythema, urticaria, and bronchospasm
215
Which dosage form is generally absorbed fastest and which is absorbed slowest?
Fastest: Solutions
Slowest: Enteric-coated tablets
216
What are the three mechanisms of drug action?
Drug-receptor interactions, drug-enzyme interactions, and non-specific drug interactions
217
When does a drug-drug interaction occur, and what does it produce?
When two or more drugs act in unison, produces agonist, synergistic, or anatagonist responses
218
All medications require the patient be monitored by pulse ox except:
Morphine
Dilaudid
Xylocaine
Demerol
Xylocaine - local anesthetic
219
An overreaction, underreaction, or unusual reaction in response to a drug is termed:
Idiosyncratic effect
220
Types of pharmacodynamic interactions are:
Antagonist and agonist
221
