Finals CS Flashcards
(334 cards)
1
Q
What allows users to access one another’s hard drives or cloud storage and exchange files directly?
A
Peer-to-peer (P2P) network, sometimes called a file sharing network.
2
Q
What allows users connected to a network to exchange money from one account to another?
A
Electronic funds transfer (EFT).
3
Q
What provides home users with capabilities such as sharing an Internet connection and files?
A
Home Networks.
4
Q
What can be small or large and exist in one or multiple buildings, facilitating communication among employees?
A
Business networks.
5
Q
What sends signals and data through cables?
A
Wired network.
6
Q
What sends signals through airwaves and usually does not require cables?
A
Wireless network.
7
Q
What is a network standard that defines how high-speed cellular transmissions use broadcast radio?
A
LTE (Long Term Evolution).
8
Q
What requires a combination of hardware and software to operate?
A
Network.
9
Q
What connects the sending device to transmission media?
A
Communications device.
10
Q
What accepts the transmission of data, instructions, or information?
A
Receiving device.
11
Q
What are the two basic categories of networks?
A
Home and business.
12
Q
What typically exists within a single building and is accessed by only a few users?
A
Home networks.
13
Q
What is meant to accommodate many users and large amounts of data across many buildings?
A
Business networks.
14
Q
What initiates an instruction to transmit data, instructions, or information?
A
Sending device.
15
Q
What means by which data, instructions, or information travel?
A
Transmission media, or communications channel.
16
Q
What is the name of receiving data?
A
Downstream rate.
17
Q
What is the name of sending data?
A
Upstream rate.
18
Q
What is a navigation system that determines a receiver’s geographic location?
A
GPS (global positioning system).
19
Q
What helps users establish a connection to another computer or network?
A
Communications software.
20
Q
What is the method by which computers and devices are physically arranged on a network?
A
Topology.
21
Q
What is the logical design of all devices on a network?
A
Network architecture.
22
Q
What consists of one or more computers acting as a server while others request resources?
A
Client/server network.
23
Q
What is a computer or mobile device on the network that relies on the server for resources?
A
Client.
24
Q
What is a network architecture that typically connects a small number of computers?
A
A peer-to-peer (P2P) network.
25
What connects all devices to a central cable called a bus?
Bus network.
26
What interconnects all devices on the network, allowing alternate routes if one fails?
Mesh network.
27
What is a topology where each device is connected to every other device?
Full mesh topology.
28
What is a topology where each device may or may not be connected to all other devices?
Partial mesh topology.
29
In what network does data travel from one device to the next in a sequential fashion?
Ring network.
30
In what network is each device attached to a central device?
Star network.
31
What is a type of P2P network where users share files over the Internet?
Internet peer-to-peer (Internet P2P) network.
32
What describes networks configured in all sizes and defined by their geographic footprint?
Geographic Reach.
33
What connects personal digital devices within a range of approximately 30 feet?
Personal area network (PAN).
34
What is a form of personal area network consisting of small biosensors implanted in the body?
Body area network (BAN).
35
What specifies the amount of data your provider offers you per month?
Data plan.
36
What defines guidelines for how computers access a network?
Network standards.
37
What outlines characteristics of how devices communicate on a network?
Protocol.
38
What standard controls how network interface cards, routers, and modems share access to cables?
Ethernet.
39
What defines how business documents travel across transmission media?
EDI (electronic data interchange).
40
What is a set of protocols used by all computers and devices on the Internet?
TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol).
41
What allows computers and devices with wireless capability to communicate via radio waves?
WiFi.
42
What series of network standards specifies how two wireless devices communicate over the air?
802.11.
43
What is a network protocol that defines how two Bluetooth devices use short-range radio waves?
Bluetooth.
44
What describes devices communicating over a short range, usually less than 30 feet?
Bluetooth.
45
What is used for remote controls or data transmission within close proximity?
IrDA.
46
What is used in credit cards and smartphones to facilitate close-range communication?
NFC (near field communication).
47
What specifies how two UWB devices use short-range radio waves to communicate?
UWB (ultra-wideband).
48
What standard transmits data wirelessly via infrared light waves?
IrDA (Infrared Data Association).
49
What protocol defines how a network uses radio signals to communicate with a tag?
RFID (radio frequency identification).
50
What is a protocol that defines how a network uses close-range radio signals to communicate?
NFC (near field communications).
51
What can be computers, tablets, mobile phones, or smart home devices?
Nodes, or devices on a network.
52
What is also called a broadband modem and sends and receives data to and from a digital line?
Digital modem.
53
What uses a cable TV connection?
A cable modem.
54
What uses standard copper telephone wiring?
DSL modem.
55
What sends digital data from a computer to an ISDN line?
ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) modem.
56
What is a type of always-on physical connection established between two communications devices?
Dedicated line.
57
What combines multiple analog or digital signals into a single signal over a shared medium?
Multiplexing.
58
What enters a building through a single line, usually a coaxial cable?
The CATV signal.
59
What transmits on existing standard copper phone wiring?
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line).
60
What type of DSL supports faster downstream rates than upstream rates?
ADSL (asymmetric digital subscriber line).
61
What refers to both a circuit-switched telephone network system and communication standards?
ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network).
62
What uses fiber-optic cable to provide extremely high-speed Internet access?
FTTP (Fiber to the Premises).
63
What use multiplexing so that multiple signals share the line?
Digital T-carrier lines.
64
What provides very fast data transfer rates and is usually affordable for medium to large companies?
T-carrier lines.
65
What is an amplifier used to improve reception and extend the range for your wireless router?
Booster (repeater).
66
What gains administrator-level access to a computer or network without detection?
Rootkit.
67
What connects directly to a network and provides a centralized location for storing programs and data?
Network attached storage (NAS).
68
What is a series of numbers and/or letters used to encrypt data sent between devices?
Wireless network key.
69
What constantly assesses the status of a network and alerts the administrator when a problem is detected?
Network monitoring software.
70
What monitors and logs packet traffic for later analysis?
Packet sniffer.
71
What occurs when cyberthieves intercept a paid Internet service?
IP hijacking.
72
What occurs when cyberthieves exploit paired Bluetooth devices?
Bluebugging.
73
What is the role of a network administrator?
To plan, design, purchase equipment for, set up, secure, and maintain a network.
74
What developed a code of ethics for system operators providing standards for network administrators?
USENIX.
75
What has access to vast amounts of data that needs to be protected?
Network administrator.
76
What is a third-party business providing networking services?
Value-added network (VAN).
77
What is a pane in a program window that lets you move between objects?
Navigation pane.
78
What is a crucial component of most organizations?
Data.
79
What is relied upon to organize data, making it easily accessible and secure?
Databases.
80
What is software that allows you to create, access, and manage a database?
Database management system (DBMS).
81
What uniquely identifies each record in a table?
Primary key.
82
What occurs when you store the same data in more than one place?
Data redundancy.
83
What acts as a portal for a database, enabling information sharing with a wide audience?
Database service, or a website.
84
What classifies data in a hierarchy where each higher level consists of items from the lower level?
Information technology (IT) professionals.
85
What in Access is a collection of related records stored on a storage medium?
Data file, called a table.
86
In the ASCII coding scheme, what does each byte represent?
Single character.
87
What is a combination of related characters or bytes and the smallest unit of data a user accesses?
Field.
88
What uniquely identifies each field in a database?
Field name.
89
What is a group of related fields in a database?
Record.
90
What is the highest level in the data hierarchy, containing fields and records?
Table.
91
What extracts data from a database based on specified criteria?
A query.
92
What is where each field is spaced out on the screen for easier interaction?
Data entry form.
93
What specifies the kind of data a field can contain?
Data type.
94
What is a unique number automatically assigned by the DBMS to each added record?
AutoNumber.
95
What refers to lengthy text entries, which may include separate paragraphs?
Memo.
96
What is a photo, audio, video, or document stored as a sequence of bytes in the database?
Object.
97
What contains data about each table in the database and each field in those tables?
Data dictionary, sometimes called a repository.
98
What is the process of comparing data with a set of rules to determine if it meets criteria?
Validation.
99
What is a popular query language that allows users to manage, update, and retrieve data?
Structured Query Language.
100
What consists of simple, English-like statements to specify data display or modification?
Query language.
101
What feature has a graphical user interface to assist users with retrieving data?
Query by example (QBE).
102
What allows users to design a report on the screen and retrieve data into the report design?
Report writer, also called a report generator.
103
What is a listing of activities that modify the contents of the database?
Log.
104
What uses logs and/or backups to restore a database when it becomes damaged?
Recovery utility.
105
What does the DBMS use to reenter changes made to the database since the last save?
Rollforward, also called forward recovery.
106
What does the DBMS use to undo changes made to the database during a certain period?
Rollback, also called backward recovery.
107
What is a backup plan in which changes are backed up as they are made?
Continuous backup.
108
What shows how data in one table relates to data in another table?
Relationship.
109
What is a field in one table that contains data from the primary key in another table?
Foreign key.
110
What connects each record in one table to one or more records in another table?
One-to-many relationship.
111
What is restricted to exactly one record in the table on each side?
One-to-one relationship.
112
What is rollback?
Rollback, also called backward recovery, is a backup plan in which changes are backed up as they are made.
113
What does continuous backup mean?
Continuous backup is a backup plan in which changes are backed up as they are made.
114
What is a relationship in a database?
A relationship shows how data in one table relates to data in another table and is one of the main advantages of using a database.
115
What is a foreign key?
A foreign key is a field in one table that contains data from the primary key in another table.
116
What is a one-to-many relationship?
A one-to-many relationship connects each record in one table to one or more records in another table.
117
What is a one-to-one relationship?
A one-to-one relationship is restricted to exactly one record in the table on each side of the relationship.
118
What is a many-to-many relationship?
A many-to-many relationship allows more than one record on the left side of the relationship to be connected to more than one record on the right side of the relationship.
119
What are NoSQL databases?
NoSQL databases, or nonrelational databases, resolve many of the weaknesses of relational databases.
120
What are key-value databases?
Key-value databases, also called key-value stores, create any number of key-value pairs for each record.
121
What is a key-value pair?
A key-value pair consists of two related items: a constant that defines the set (the key) and a variable that belongs to the set (the value).
122
What is a relational database management system (RDBMS)?
Access is designed to work with relational databases, so it more specifically is called a relational database management system (RDBMS).
123
What is database as a service (DBaaS)?
Database as a service (DBaaS) means the DBMS runs on servers owned by a cloud provider, and users access the database remotely through a browser.
124
What is a front-end database?
A front-end database is part of a split database that contains the user interface and other objects, but not the tables that are needed for an application.
125
What is a back-end database?
A back-end database is part of a split database that contains table objects and is stored on a file server that all users can access.
126
What do database administrators (DBAs) do?
Database administrators (DBAs) work with the back-end components to ensure a company's business data is safe, secure, and well-managed.
127
What is an index in a database?
An index is a database object that is created based on a field or combination of fields.
128
What is a blockchain?
A blockchain is a series (or chain) of records stored in encrypted blocks across a network.
129
What is data visualization?
Data visualization is the process of presenting data graphically in the form of charts, maps, or other pictorial formats in order to understand the resulting information easily.
130
What is a consistency check?
A consistency check tests the data in two or more associated fields to ensure that the relationship is logical and their data is in the correct format.
131
What is a completeness check?
A completeness check verifies that a required field contains data.
132
What is a check digit?
A check digit is a number(s) or character(s) that is appended to or inserted in a primary key value.
133
What is a presence check?
A presence check, when enabled, requires the user to add information to a particular field and will not allow the user to leave a field blank.
134
What is a field property check?
Field property check means field properties can be used to validate data entry.
135
What is a uniqueness check?
A uniqueness check requires the user to enter information unique to that record.
136
What is a format check?
Access allows the use of an input mask to control how data is formatted in a field.
137
What is an input mask?
An input mask is a field property that provides a visual guide for users as they enter data.
138
What is a wizard in software development?
A wizard is a tool that guides you through the steps of a process or task by asking a series of questions or presenting options.
139
What is a multiple choice check?
A multiple choice check can be enforced by using a data type that allows users to choose from a preexisting list, such as a list of days of the week.
140
What is database maintenance?
Database maintenance starts as soon as the database is created and lasts as long as the database is used.
141
What does confidentiality imply in database management?
Confidentiality implies the need to protect a database from unauthorized access.
142
What does integrity refer to in data management?
Integrity refers to protecting data from unauthorized changes.
143
What does availability indicate in data management?
Availability indicates the need to ensure that data is accessible by authorized users when needed.
144
What is big data?
Big data refers to large and complex data sources that defy traditional data processing methods.
145
What are the 3 V's of big data?
The 3 V's of big data are Volume, Variety, and Velocity.
146
What is volume in the context of big data?
Volume is the massive amount of data that must be stored and analyzed.
147
What is variety in big data?
Variety refers to the different formats in which this data can exist, such as music or video files, photos, social media texts, financial transactions, IoT sensor data, and more.
148
What is velocity in big data?
Velocity is the fact that this data is often generated and received at high speeds.
149
What is value in big data?
Value is the helpfulness of the data in making strategic decisions.
150
What is veracity in big data?
Veracity is how accurately this data reflects reality.
151
What is business intelligence (BI)?
Business intelligence (BI) refers to the processes and technologies used to analyze data.
152
What is a data warehouse?
A data warehouse is a central repository that BI systems might collect data from existing databases and from live data streams.
153
What is a data lake?
A data lake is a collection of both structured and unstructured data.
154
What are dashboards in data management?
Dashboards provide at-a-glance views, with live updates as data continues to pour in.
155
What is data analytics?
Data analytics processes help to inform business decisions and strategies.
156
What is function creep?
Function creep occurs when a company uses the technology intended for one purpose for an entirely different purpose.
157
What is development in software engineering?
Development is the process of creating information systems or programs and apps from the idea stage to distribution to users.
158
What is documentation in project management?
Documentation is a collection and summary of the data, information, and deliverables specific to the project.
159
What is scope creep?
Scope creep, also called feature creep, occurs when one activity has led to another that was not planned originally; thus, the scope of the project now has grown.
160
What is scope in project management?
Scope includes the goals, objectives, and expectations of the project.
161
What is change management?
Change management is the process of recognizing when a change in the project has occurred, taking actions to react to the change, and planning for opportunities because of the change.
162
What is user experience (UX)?
User experience (UX) refers to the focus on the user's reaction to and interaction with a product, including its efficiency, effectiveness, and ease of use.
163
What is a macro in programming?
A macro is a series of statements that instructs a program or app how to complete a task.
164
What is the software development life cycle (SDLC)?
The set of activities used to build an app is called the software development life cycle (SDLC).
165
What are the phases of the SDLC in order?
The phases of the SDLC in order are: Plan, Analyze, Design, Implement, Support and Secure.
166
What is the planning phase in project management?
The planning phase for a project begins with a request for the project and is triggered by the development of the project documentation.
167
What does the analysis phase consist of?
The analysis phase consists of two major components: conducting a preliminary investigation and performing detailed analysis.
168
What is feasibility in project management?
Feasibility is the measure of the suitability of the development process to the individual project at any given time.
169
What is operational feasibility?
Operational feasibility measures how well the product will work and whether it will meet the requirements of the users.
170
What is schedule feasibility?
Schedule feasibility determines if the deadlines for project phases are reasonable.
171
What is technical feasibility?
Technical feasibility measures whether the developers have the skills and resources, as well as the number of programmers, to complete the features of the product.
172
What is a system proposal?
A system proposal uses the data gathered during the feasibility study and detailed analysis to present a solution to the need or request.
173
What is the design phase in project management?
The design phase is when the project team acquires the necessary hardware and programming tools, as well as develops the details of the finished product.
174
What is a prototype?
A prototype is a working model that demonstrates the functionality of the program or app.
175
What is the implementation phase?
The implementation phase is to build the product and deliver it to users.
176
What is direct conversion?
Direct conversion is when the user stops using the old product and begins using the new product on a certain date.
177
What is parallel conversion?
Parallel conversion consists of running the old product alongside the new product for a specified time, comparing results from both products.
178
What is phased conversion?
Phased conversion is when each location converts at a separate time.
179
What is pilot conversion?
Pilot conversion is when only one location in the organization uses the new product so that it can be tested.
180
What is the support and security phase?
The support and security phase is when the product receives necessary maintenance, such as fixing errors or improving its functionality.
181
What is the testing process?
The testing process ensures that each function is tested to ensure it works properly.
182
What is quality assurance?
Quality assurance is when testers perform the testing and report any issues to the developers.
183
What is predictive development?
Predictive development uses a linear, structured development cycle.
184
What is the waterfall method?
The waterfall method takes each step individually and completes it before continuing to the next phase.
185
What is agile development?
Agile development, also called adaptive development, incorporates flexibility in the goals and scope of the project.
186
What is rapid application development (RAD)?
Rapid application development (RAD) uses a condensed or shortened development process to produce a quality product.
187
What is DevOps?
DevOps encourages collaboration between the development and operation.
188
What is a deliverable?
A deliverable is any tangible item, such as a chart, diagram, report, or program file.
189
What is project management?
Project management is the process of planning, scheduling, and then controlling the activities during system development.
190
What is a Gantt chart?
A Gantt chart, developed by Henry L. Gantt, is a bar chart that uses horizontal bars to show project phases or activities.
191
What is a PERT chart?
A PERT chart, short for Program Evaluation and Review Technique chart, analyzes the time required to complete a task and identifies the minimum time required for an entire project.
192
What is a joint-application design (JAD) session?
A joint-application design (JAD) session, or focus group, consists of a series of lengthy, structured group meetings in which users and IT professionals work together to design or develop an application.
193
What is a project team?
An organization usually forms a project team to work on the project from beginning to end.
194
What does a systems analyst do?
A systems analyst is responsible for designing and developing an information system.
195
What is the goal of project management?
The goal of project management is to deliver an acceptable system to the user in an agreed-upon time frame, while maintaining costs.
196
What does a project manager do?
A project manager is a person dedicated to coordinating project components and ensuring that each member is progressing as planned.
197
What does a designer do in software development?
A designer develops the program's user interface, including colors, fonts, and layout.
198
What does a programmer do?
A programmer writes code or uses a product development app to create the program's specifications.
199
What does a tester do?
A tester reviews every aspect and functionality of a program to ensure it works as intended.
200
What does the IT department do?
The IT department interacts with customers and users of the product to assist them with any issues that arise.
201
What is a request for quotation (RFQ)?
A request for quotation (RFQ) identifies the required product(s).
202
What is a request for proposal (RFP)?
A request for proposal (RFP) is when the vendor selects the product(s) that meet specified requirements and then quotes the price(s).
203
What is a value-added reseller (VAR)?
A value-added reseller (VAR) is an organization that purchases products from manufacturers and then resells these products to the public, offering additional services with the product.
204
What is an IT consultant?
An IT consultant is a professional who is hired based on technical expertise, including service and advice.
205
What is a programming language?
A programming language is a set of words, abbreviations, and symbols that a programmer or developer uses to create instructions for a program or app.
206
What are machine languages?
Machine languages are first generation languages; their instructions use a series of binary digits.
207
What is assembly language?
Assembly language is when the programmer uses symbolic instruction codes, such as A for add, M for multiply, and L for load.
208
What are procedural languages?
Procedural languages use a series of English-like words to write instructions, such as ADD for addition, or PRINT for printing.
209
What are fourth generation languages (4GLs)?
Fourth generation languages, or 4GLs, provide a graphical environment in which the programmer uses a combination of English-like instructions, graphics, icons, and symbols to create code.
210
What are fifth generation languages (5GLs)?
Fifth generation languages, or 5GLs, were an attempt to create programs that solve problems without requiring the programmer to write algorithms.
211
What is a source code editor?
A source code editor is a text editor designed for programming.
212
What are debuggers?
Debuggers are used to test code in one section, or an entire program, to determine any errors and provide suggestions to fix them.
213
What is a compiler?
A compiler is a separate program that converts the entire source program into machine language before executing it.
214
What is an interpreter?
An interpreter translates and executes one statement at a time. Interpreters do not produce or store object code.
215
What is an integrated development environment (IDE)?
An integrated development environment (IDE) is an application that provides multiple programming tools in one environment.
216
What is a software development kit (SDK)?
A software development kit (SDK) is a set of programming tools that includes a programming interface, compiler, debugger, and more.
217
What is a code repository?
A code repository is another web-based tool programmers use to archive and host source code.
218
What is object-oriented programming (OOP)?
Object-oriented programming (OOP) refers to tools to implement objects in a program.
219
What is an object in programming?
An object is an item that can contain both data and the procedures that read or manipulate that data.
220
What is a class in programming?
A class is a type of object that defines the format of the object and the actions an object can perform.
221
What is a method in programming?
A method defines the behavior of an object.
222
What is a security audit?
A security audit looks at common security practices and ensures that the app or system meets the recommended criteria.
223
What is penetration testing?
Penetration testing is when developers attempt to break into the app or system.
224
What is fuzz testing?
Fuzz testing, also called fuzzing, uses automated tools that test a system by using unexpected input to ensure the app or system does not crash.
225
What is a beta version?
A beta version is a prerelease version of the product.
226
What is a unit test?
A unit test verifies that each individual program or object works by itself.
227
What is a systems test?
A systems test verifies that all programs in an application work together properly.
228
What is an integration test?
An integration test verifies that an application works with other applications.
229
What is an acceptance test?
An acceptance test is performed by end users and checks the new system to ensure that it works with actual data.
230
What is ethical design?
Ethical design is a set of evolving principles that developers should follow to enhance UX.
231
What is a push notification?
A push notification is an alert sent through the user's device's notifications, or by email or text, that may let users know about new features or remind them when a game booster is available.
232
What is a pull notification?
A pull notification is sent in response to a user's actions or request.
233
What is an algorithm?
An algorithm is a process or set of rules used in problem-solving, such as calculations.
234
What is a variable in programming?
A variable is a named location in memory used to store information, such as a value, that is used in a program.
235
What is a sandbox in software development?
A sandbox is an environment that allows software developers to test their programs with fictitious data without adversely affecting other programs, information systems, or data.
236
What is a website plan?
A website plan or design plan is a solid, detailed plan for the website.
237
What are goals in website development?
Goals are the results you want your website to accomplish within a specific time frame.
238
What are objectives in website development?
Objectives are those methods you will use to accomplish the website’s goals.
239
What is a purpose statement?
A purpose statement summarizes your website’s goals and objectives to ensure they meet the audience’s expectations and needs.
240
What is a call-to-action (CTA)?
A call-to-action (CTA) is a suggestion or offer that requires the website visitor to interact with the website by purchasing a product.
241
What is a target audience profile?
A target audience profile is a research-based overview that includes information about potential website visitors’ demographic and psychographic characteristics.
242
What are demographic characteristics?
Demographic characteristics include gender, age group, educational level, income, location, and other characteristics that define who your website visitors are.
243
What are psychographic characteristics?
Psychographic characteristics include social group affiliations, lifestyle choices, purchasing preferences, and political affiliations.
244
What is a purpose statement?
A purpose statement is a suggestion or offer that requires the website visitor to interact with the website by purchasing a product.
245
What is a home page?
The home page is the main webpage around which a website is built that opens every time you start a browser and is the anchor for the entire website.
246
What are subsidiary pages?
Subsidiary pages provide detailed content and interest.
247
What is a landing page?
A landing page is the page that a browser navigates to when you click a link in an ad, email message, or other online promotion from a different website.
248
What is value-added content?
Value-added content is information that is relevant, informative, and timely; accurate and of high quality; and usable.
249
What is dynamically generated content?
Dynamically generated content is unlike static information, updates periodically and can appear on a website’s pages when triggered by a specific event, such as the time of day or by visitor request.
250
What is search engine optimization (SEO)?
Search engine optimization (SEO) refers to tools to allow search engines to better find or index your website.
251
What are meta tags?
Meta tags are HTML specification tags that tell search engines what data to use.
252
What is a storyboard?
A storyboard is a series of pages originally developed to present scenes graphically for a movie or television program.
253
What is a flowchart?
A flowchart is a diagram that shows steps or processes and is used to determine the paths users will take to find subsidiary pages.
254
What is a text link?
A text link should clearly identify its target, which is the webpage or content to which the link points.
255
What is an image link?
An image link assigns a link to a visual element, such as an illustration or a photograph.
256
What are navigation areas?
Navigation areas can group links in menus, bars, tabs, or a combination of techniques.
257
What is a usability test?
A usability test is an evaluation that generally takes place in a structured environment, such as a testing laboratory.
258
What is eye-tracking?
Eye-tracking studies use various technologies to analyze the movement of visitors’ eyes.
259
What are heat maps?
Heat maps are an analytical tool that uses color to represent data.
260
What is a text editor?
A text editor is software used to create plain (ASCII) text files.
261
What is an HTML editor?
An HTML editor is a text editor enhanced with special features that easily insert HTML tags and their attributes.
262
What is a markup language?
A markup language is a coding system that uses tags to provide instructions about the appearance, structure, and formatting of a document.
263
What is a web template?
A web template is a predesigned model webpage that you can customize for fast website or webpage creation and updating.
264
What is a website builder?
A website builder is a tool used to create professional-looking websites, by dragging and dropping predefined elements to their desired locations on a page, without coding.
265
What is a content management system (CMS)?
A content management system (CMS) is software that provides website creation and administrative tools that enable the management of web content development, including authoring, reviewing, editing, and publishing.
266
What is a content repository?
The templates, style sheets, and other frequently used content elements, such as a logo graphic, are stored in a database called a content repository.
267
What is a widget?
A widget is an object, such as a web app, that is embedded in a webpage and provides access to resources that are stored elsewhere.
268
What is a plug-in?
A plug-in is a third-party program that extends the built-in functionality of an application or browser.
269
What is a script?
A script is programming code that performs a series of commands and can be embedded in a webpage.
270
What are client-side scripts?
Client-side scripts are scripts that run in a browser to control a webpage’s behavior and often make it interactive.
271
What are tags in HTML?
Tags are written in HTML to describe the content of information on a webpage.
272
What is Extensible Markup Language (XML)?
Extensible Markup Language (XML) is a markup language that uses both predefined and customized tags to facilitate the consistent sharing of information, especially within large groups.
273
What are attributes in HTML?
Attributes are or additional information needed to completely specify the tag.
274
What are headings in HTML?
Headings indicate the different sections of a webpage. HTML supports six levels of headings.
275
What are relative references?
Relative references identify the location of resources in the current website.
276
What are absolute references?
Absolute references identify the location of resources from other websites.
277
What are unordered lists?
Unordered lists display a collection of items in a list format, with each list item preceded by a bullet symbol.
278
What are ordered lists?
Ordered lists by default, precede each list item with a number.
279
What is multimedia content?
Multimedia content can include audio, photos, or videos stored on media sharing websites; media content, such as online calendars, documents, and slideshows.
280
What does it mean to embed an item on a website?
To embed items on a website, you place a copy of an object created in a source file into a destination file so that a one-way connection to the source program becomes part of the destination file.
281
What is the autoplay attribute?
Include this attribute to play the audio or video automatically when the page loads (may not work on mobile devices).
282
What is the controls attribute?
Include this attribute to display audio or video controls, such as play, pause, and volume; if you do not include this option, the only way to stop playing the audio is to close the page.
283
What is a cascading style sheet (CSS)?
A cascading style sheet (CSS) uses rules to standardize the appearance of webpage content by defining styles for elements, such as font, margins, positioning, background colors, and more.
284
What are style rules?
Style rules are specifications that define one or more formatting properties and their values (declarations) for specific HTML tags (selectors).
285
What is CSS editor software?
You also can create style sheets using CSS editor software.
286
What are embedded styles?
Embedded styles are within tags placed in the head section of an HTML document.
287
What is inline style?
Inline style is specified as a style attribute of most HTML tags within the body section.
288
What is a font family?
A font family is a group of related fonts.
289
What is Transport Layer Security (TLS)?
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is to encrypt data that helps protect consumers and businesses from fraud and identity theft when conducting commerce on the Internet.
290
What is a domain registrar?
A domain registrar is an organization that sells and manages domain names.
291
What is uptime?
Uptime is a measure of a web host’s reliability. It could be costly to you if your website goes down due to an issue with your hosting provider.
292
What is bandwidth?
Bandwidth is a term commonly used to describe the capacity of a communication channel.
293
What is web analytics?
Web analytics involves collecting, measuring, evaluating, and reporting how your website is used.
294
What is a click path or clickstream?
A click path or clickstream is the sequence of pages or activities the user performs on the website.
295
What is sticky content?
Sticky content gets users to spend long periods of time engaging and encourages them to return for future visits.
296
What are impressions?
Impressions are the number of times an ad is visible to users on a webpage, regardless of whether the user clicks or interacts with the ad.
297
What is click-through rate?
Click-through rate is the number of times users click the ad to go to the sponsor’s website.
298
What is a local computer?
The computer that you use to edit your website is called your local computer.
299
What is a remote web server?
A remote web server is a web server on the Internet.
300
What is an affiliate agreement?
An affiliate agreement with a vendor specifies that you receive commission on any sales that are generated by users of your website.
301
What is the Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI)?
The Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) consists of groups of users and developers who create guidelines about usage, tools, and education regarding web accessibility.
302
What is the technology service and repair field?
Technology service and repair field provides preventive maintenance, component installation, and repair services to customers.
303
What is computer science?
Computer science program includes the study of computers and technology and how they are used.
304
What is a cloud architect?
A cloud architect identifies business requirements, strategies, and solutions for cloud storage and services that meet a company's goals or needs.
305
What is a cognitive engineer?
A cognitive engineer develops artificial-intelligence-based machines and programs based on data analysis to mimic human thought processes.
306
What is a database designer?
A database designer specifies the structure, interface, and requirements of a large-scale database; determines security and permissions for users.
307
What is outsourcing?
Outsourcing refers to relying on outside companies to perform certain tasks.
308
What is enterprise computing?
Enterprise computing refers to the use of technology by a company's employees to meet the needs of a large business.
309
What is a human resources information system (HRIS)?
A human resources information system (HRIS) manages one or more administrative human resources functions, such as maintaining and managing employee benefits, schedules, and payroll.
310
What is computer-aided engineering (CAE)?
Computer-aided engineering (CAE) aids in the development and testing of product designs, and often includes CAD (computer-aided design).
311
What is Material Requirements Planning (MRP)?
Material Requirements Planning (MRP) monitors and controls inventory, material purchases, and other processes related to manufacturing operations.
312
What is Manufacturing Resource Planning II (MRP II)?
Manufacturing Resource Planning II (MRP II) is an extension of MRP that also includes product packaging and shipping, machine scheduling, financial planning, demand forecasting, tracking labor productivity, and monitoring product quality.
313
What is Salesforce automation (SFA)?
Salesforce automation (SFA) helps salespeople manage customer contacts, schedule customer meetings, log customer interactions, manage product information, and place customer orders.
314
What is customer relationship management (CRM)?
Customer relationship management (CRM) manages information about customers, past purchases, interests, and the day-to-day interactions, such as phone calls, email messages, web communications, and Internet messaging sessions.
315
What is Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) integrates MRP II with the information flow across an organization to manage and coordinate the ongoing activities of the enterprise.
316
What is a transaction processing system (TPS)?
A transaction processing system (TPS) is an information system that captures and processes data from day-to-day business activities.
317
What is batch processing?
Batch processing is when the computer collects data over time and processes all transactions later, as a group.
318
What is online transaction processing (OLTP)?
Online transaction processing (OLTP) is when the computer processes each transaction as it is entered.
319
What is a management information system (MIS)?
A management information system (MIS) is an information system that generates accurate, timely, and organized information.
320
What is a decision support system (DSS)?
A decision support system (DSS) helps users analyze information and make decisions.
321
What is online analytical processing (OLAP)?
Online analytical processing (OLAP) are programs that analyze data, such as those in a decision support system.
322
What is an expert system?
An expert system is an information system that captures and stores the knowledge of human experts and then imitates human reasoning and decision making.
323
What is a knowledge base?
A knowledge base is the combined subject knowledge and experiences of the human experts.
324
What are inference rules?
Inference rules are a set of logical judgments that are applied to the knowledge base each time a user describes a situation to the expert system.
325
What is supply chain management (SCM)?
Supply chain management (SCM) is a system that manages the flow of goods and services of a business.
326
What does certification demonstrate?
Certification demonstrates your knowledge in a specific area to employers or potential employers.
327
What are hardware certifications?
Hardware certifications vary in scope from a narrow focus with an emphasis on the repair of a specific device to an integrated hardware solution that addresses a company's current and future technology needs.
328
What is data analysis certification?
Data analysis certifications focus on the discovery, collection, and analysis of evidence on computers and networks.
329
What is network expertise?
Network expertise is acquired through years of experience and training because so many variables exist for a total network solution.
330
What are Operating System Certifications?
Operating System Certifications focus on particular skills of the user, the operator, the system administrator, and the software engineer.
331
What are Programmer/Developer Certifications?
Programmer/Developer Certifications are usually supported with training programs that prepare applicants for the certification test.
332
What are security certifications?
Security certifications measure a candidate's ability to identify and control security risks associated with any event or action that could cause a loss of or damage to computer hardware, software, data, information, or processing capability.
333
What is telecommuting?
Telecommuting, or working from home, can mutually benefit employers and employees.
334
What is a portfolio?
A portfolio shows examples of your work. Graphic artists and other digital media producers may use a portfolio to demonstrate their abilities, style, and past work.
