finals exam parasitology Flashcards
(120 cards)
1
Q
Coenurus larva is present in this tapeworm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Taenia multiceps
A
d. Taenia multiceps
2
Q
The following statements are true about trophozoites, EXCEPT
a. Trophozoites are killed when stained with iodine
b. A liquid specimen is more satisfactory for examination
c. The specimen must be examined immediately
d. Floatation is a method of choice to analyze the morphology of trophozoites
A
d. Floatation is a method of choice to analyze the morphology of trophozoites
3
Q
Serological test intended for cases of Toxoplasmosis
a. COPT
b. Sabin Feldman Dye test
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Sabin Feldman Dye test
4
Q
Intersegmental fertilization means
a. Segment of the same worm can fertilize its own segment
b. Segment can be fertilized by another testicular follicle
c. Segment of the same worm can fertilize another segment
d. Segment can be fertilized by each of the testicular follicle
A
c. Segment of the same worm can fertilize another segment
5
Q
Blood film preparation which may be used for the diagnosis of malaria
a. Thin blood film
b. Thick blood film
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
c. A and B
6
Q
This tapeworm contains armed scolex
a. Hymenolepis diminuta
b. Diphyllobothrium latum
c. Taenia saginata
d. Hymenolepis nana
A
d. Hymenolepis nana
7
Q
Oncomelania quadrasi is the molluscan host of what Schistosoma?
a. Manson’s blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Oriental blood fluke
8
Q
Habitat/s of Fasciolopsis buski:
a. Proximal bile duct
b. Distal bile duct
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
9
Q
Anal pruritis in tapeworms happen during
a. Patient is in less active state
b. Person is asleep
c. Takes place at night
d. Person is in active state
A
c. Takes place at night
10
Q
Enterotest may be used for the recovery of:
a. Giargia lamblia
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Giargia lamblia
11
Q
Cuticle, as in Ascaris, is an adaptation for which of the following conditions?
a. Growth
b. Locomotion
c. Parasitism
d. Reproduction
A
d. Reproduction
12
Q
The intestinal ceca of which of the following schistosomes reunites early?
a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma japonicum
A
a. Schistosoma mansoni
13
Q
This require dehemoglobinization step on blood smear preparation
a. Knott’s method
b. Thick dry film
c. Thin dry film
d. Kato-katz
A
b. Thick dry film
14
Q
Floatation technique:
a. Formalin ether technique
b. Zinc sulfate method
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
b. Zinc sulfate method
15
Q
What is/are the pathogenic stage of Schistosoma to humans?
a. Adult worm
b. Egg
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Adult worm
16
Q
What parasite has zig zag intestinal ceca?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Paragonimus westermani
17
Q
Pathology of what parasite/s is due to mechanical or toxic effects?
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
18
Q
Modified acid fast positive
a. Cryptosporidium
b. Isospora
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
c. A and B
19
Q
This is developed for the assay of serum IgE reactivity for allergen
a. RAST
b. ELISA
c. COPT
d. Western blot
A
a. RAST
20
Q
Infective stage of Echinococcus granulosus to man
a. Larva
b. Cysts
c. Eggs
d. Adult worm
A
a. Larva
21
Q
What stage/s of Trematodes escapes from the first intermediate host?
a. Cercaria
b. Miracidium
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
a. Cercaria
22
Q
It contains uterine pore
a. Dipylidium caninum
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Taenia multiceps
A
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
23
Q
Reservoir host/s of Cat Liver Fluke
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
c. A and B
24
Q
Eggs of what Schistosoma has a lateral spine?
a. Vesical blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
A
d. Neither A nor B
25
Larval stage that is present in the copepod
a. Cysticercus
b. Procercoid
c. Plerocercoid
d. Cysticercoid
b. Procercoid
26
What stage/s of Trematodes must find their next host otherwise they will perish?
a. Cercaria
b. Miracidium
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
27
Embryo produced are called Coracidium
a. Beef tapeworm
b. Fish tapeworm
c. Rat tapeworm
d. Dog tapeworm
b. Fish tapeworm
28
What makes use of Schistosoma egg in the test?
a. CHR
b. COPT
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. COPT
29
Most common method used to diagnose cases of intestinal parasitic infection
a. Intestinal biopsy
b. Direct fecal smear
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Direct fecal smear
30
What Schistosoma is/are usually found in the inferior mesenteric plexuses/venules?
a. Manson’s blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Manson’s blood fluke
31
Egg/s of which parasite is immature when laid?
a. Metagonimus yokogawai
b. Paragonimus westermanii
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
32
True about Echinostoma ilocanum
a. 1st intermediate host: Snail
b. Second intermediate host: Fresh water fish
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. 1st intermediate host: Snail
33
Most frequently used solution in Floatation Method
a. Brine floatation
b. Neither A nor B
c. Sheather’s
d. Zinc-Sulfate
d. Zinc-Sulfate
34
Positive result for COPT
a. Trophozoites are unstained
b. Recovery of Enterobius vermicularis eggs
c. Blebs are present on the egg
d. Visualization of uterine branches
c. Blebs are present on the egg
35
What is/are associated with neoplasm of the bile ducts?
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
36
Diphyllobothrium latum causes what type of disease?
a. Cysticercosis
b. Hydatid disease
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Cancer
c. Pernicious anemia
37
Diagnosis of True fascioliasis is based on:
a. Finding of larvae in DFS after 3 days liver – free diet
b. Finding of adult worm in DFS after 3 days liver – free diet
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Finding of adult worm in DFS after 3 days liver – free diet
38
Which among the following parasites has the blood lung phase?
a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Dracunculus medinensis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichinella spiralis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
39
Which of the following organisms exist in both cyst and trophozoite forms.
a. N. fowleri
b. T. tenax
c. E. gingivalis
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
a. N. fowleri
40
The larval forms of Dipylidium caninum
a. Coenurus
b. Hydatid
c. Cysticercus
d. Cysticercoid
d. Cysticercoid
41
The so-called, cross-eyed cyst, pertains to which of the following species?
a. Entamoeba gingivalis
b. Iodamoeba butschlii
c. Endolimax nana
d. Entamoeba hartmanni
c. Endolimax nana
42
Dwarf tapeworm
a. Taenia multiceps
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Hymelopis diminuta
b. Hymenolepis nana
43
What parasite/s may cause/s acute ileus and partial obstruction of the bowel?
a. Fasciolopsis buski
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Fasciolopsis buski
44
Infection caused by this parasite may resemble cases of tuberculosis
a. Garrison’s fluke
b. Heterophyds
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
45
Intermediate host of Pudok’s disease includes which of the following species?
a. Glossina morsitans
b. Rhodnius prolixus
c. Phlebotumus papataci
d. Ambassis miops
d. Ambassis miops
46
Which of the following organisms pass through the promastigotes in the life cycle?
a. T. rhodesiense
b. T. gambiense
c. T. cruzi
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
c. T. cruzi
47
The ovary of which of the following schistosomes is located anterior to the mid plane?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma mansoni
48
Larval development in the molluscan host is sporocyst → sporocyst → cercariae
a. Vesical blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
49
Infective stage of what parasite/s is found in watercress?
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Fasciola hepatica
50
Egg counting method/s that uses cellophane cover slip and glycerin
a. Kato thick smear method
b. Beaver direct smear method
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Kato thick smear method
51
The disease caused by the beef tapeworm on humans
a. Dysentery
b. Taeniasis
c. Cysticercosis
d. Anemia
b. Taeniasis
52
What is/are the most characteristic external structure/s in Trematodes?
a. Acetabula
b. Suckers
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
53
What parasite/s inhabit/s the distal biliary passages?
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
54
Eggs of which of the following schistosomes can be recovered primarily in stool?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma japonicum
55
Pumpkin-seed shaped segments
a. Taenia multiceps
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Dipylidium caninum
d. Dipylidium caninum
56
Xenodiagnosis was originally used for the diagnosis of?
a. Malaria
b. Chaga’s disease
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Chaga’s disease
57
What parasite/s migrates the intestinal wall → abdominal cavity → Glisson’s capsule → Liver ?
a. Opistorchis felinues
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Fasciola hepatica
58
Trichuris trichiura is known as by which of the following common names?
a. Giant intestinal roundworm
b. Whipworm
c. Pudoc’s worm
d. Trichina worm
b. Whipworm
59
Ovary of what Schistosoma is located centrally or near the midplane?
a. Manson’s blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Oriental blood fluke
60
Flukes are provided with which of the following organ system/s?
a. Circulatory system
b. Respiratory system
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
61
Diecious trematode
a. Liver fluke
b. Intestinal fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
62
Intermediate host of Taenia saginata
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Cattle
d. Humans
c. Cattle
63
The intermediate host for the Echinococcus granulosus
a. Cats
b. Sheep
c. Fish
d. Dogs
b. Sheep
64
The vectors of malaria breed quite well in which of the following conditions of breeding places?
a. clean water collected in leaves of plants
b. dirty stagnant water
c. clean, stagnant water
d. clean, slow-running, shaded water
d. clean, slow-running, shaded water
65
Rectal prolapse is a common manifestation of which of the following species?
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Capillaria philippinensis
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Trichuris trichiura
66
In Echinococcus granulosus, humans serve as
a. Reservoir host
b. Parathenic host
c. Accidental intermediate host
d. Definitive host
c. Accidental intermediate host
67
Feature/s of Heterophyes heterophyes
a. Has two (2) ovoid testes of equal size
b. Has a single large ovoid testes
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Has two (2) ovoid testes of equal size
68
Infective stage of what parasite/s is/are matured when laid?
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Clonorchis sinensis
69
Which of the following is TRUE for Taenia species?
a. Taenia saginata can cause human cysticercosis
b. Taenia solium may cause cerebral cysticercosis
c. Taenia solium cannot cause human cysticercosis
d. Adults inhabit the large intestine
b. Taenia solium may cause cerebral cysticercosis
70
What causes cough and fever in the Stage of invasion of Schistosomiasis?
a. Adult worm
b. Cercaria
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Cercaria
71
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about Dipylidium caninum?
a. Each segment has two sets of male and two sets of female reproductive organs
b. Degree of pathogenicity is directly related to the number of worms in a host
c. Infection among humans requires ingestion of dogs
d. Direct fecal smear is used for diagnosis
c. Infection among humans requires ingestion of dogs
72
Parasite/s which require/s blood film preparation to demonstrate their presence
a. Trypanosoma spp.
b. Plasmodium spp.
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
73
Larvae of Fasciola hepatica may cause abscess formation and fibrosis in the:
a. Brain
b. Eyes
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
74
First and Second intermediate host of this parasite are both snails
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Echinostoma ilocanum
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Echinostoma ilocanum
75
Eggs of this tapeworm contains polar filaments
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Hymenolepis nana
d. Hymenolepis nana
76
It is described to have 4 to 5 lobes of testes arranged in cluster is which of the following schistosomes?
a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma haematobium
77
Pyorrhea pockets between teeth and gums are the habitat of the cyst form of which of the following organisms?
1. Entamoeba gingivalis 2. Trichomonas tenax 3. Dientamoeba fragilis 4. Giardia lamblia
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 3 and 4
e. None of the above
e. None of the above
78
Capillaria philippinensis is known by which of the following common names?
a. Giant intestinal roundworm
b. Pudoc’s worm
c. Whipworm
d. Trichina worm
b. Pudoc’s worm
79
Zigzag intestinal ceca are provided in which of the following organisms?
a. Opistorchis felineus
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Echinostoma ilocanum
c. Paragonimus westermani
80
Which egg of the following schistosomes has an abbreviated lateral spine?
a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma japonicum
81
The first intermediate host is tiny crustaceans
a. Rat tapeworm
b. Dog tapeworm
c. Cat tapeworm
d. Broad tapeworm
d. Broad tapeworm
82
Immuno-blotting is also known as
a. Western blot
b. COPT
c. RAST
d. ELISA
a. Western blot
83
Which of the following is the smallest tapeworm?
a. Hymenolepis diminuta
b. Taenia solium
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Dipylidium caninum
c. Echinococcus granulosus
84
Scolex of Pseudophyllidea
a. 4-cup like suckers
b. Provided with hooklets
c. Bothria
d. Globular
c. Bothria
85
The so called “beneficial” situation is part of which of the following relationship of organisms?
a. Symbiosis
b. Commensalism
c. Mutualsim
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
c. Mutualsim
86
Allergic manifestations are found in what stage of Schistosomiasis?
a. Stage of maturation
b. Stage of late infection
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Stage of maturation
87
Intermediate host/s of Fasciola hepatica
a. Lymnea philipinensis
b. Mugil cephalus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Lymnea philipinensis
88
Transversely compressed vittelaria is associated with which of the following species?
a. Echinostoma ilocanum
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Opistorchis felineus
d. Opistorchis felineus
89
COPT is used for the diagnosis of
a. Taeniasis
b. Blood fluke infection
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Amoebiasis
b. Blood fluke infection
90
Eggs of which parasite is/are found in flecks of rusty material in the sputum?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Paragonimus westermani
91
Infective form to the definitive host of Diphylobothrium latum
a. Procercoid
b. Hydatid
c. Cysticercus
d. Plerocercoid
d. Plerocercoid
92
It is a good preservative for protozoa in dysenteric feces
a. Lugol’s iodine
b. Polyvinyl alcohol fixation
c. Giemsa
d. Methiolate-iodine-formaldehyde
b. Polyvinyl alcohol fixation
93
TRUE for fecal sample
a. Should not be mixed with urine
b. Patient receiving barium must collect the specimen after 1 hour
c. It must be examined 5 hours after collection
d. Collect sample after the intake of antibiotics
a. Should not be mixed with urine
94
Water chestnut is the second intermediate host of which of the following species?
a. Fasciolopsis buski
b. Echinostoma ilocanum
c. Opistorchis felineus
d. Paragonimus westermani
a. Fasciolopsis buski
95
Montenegro's tests are primary intended for which of the following conditions?
a. Gambian trypanosomiasis
b. Chaga's disease
c. kala-azar
d. None of the above
c. kala-azar
96
Clinical event/s during the stage I of Schistosomiasis
a. Skin reaction due to the invading metacercaria
b. Formation of granulomas in the affected organ
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
97
Cigar shaped chromatoidal bodies are the diagnostic feature of the pathogenic stage of which of the following
parasites?
1. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Entamoeba dispar 3. Entamoeba moshkovskii 4. Entamoeba polecki
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
98
Eggs has the same appearance
a. Cat liver fluke and Chinese liver fluke
b. Sheep’s liver fluke and Giant intestinal fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
99
Vesical plexuses are the habitat of which of the following schistosomes?
a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma haematobium
100
Metacyclic trypomastigotes are the infective stages of which of the following infections?
a. Kala azar
b. Dum dum fever
c. Trypanosomiasis
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
c. Trypanosomiasis
101
Diagnosis of infection by this parasite/s is thru the demonstration of eggs from the stool
a. Garrison’s fluke
b. Giant intestinal fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
a. Garrison’s fluke
102
A pair of conical papillae of adult male belongs to which of the following species?
a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Capillaria philippinensis
d. Trichinella spiralis
d. Trichinella spiralis
103
Gravid segment with 15-20 lateral uterine branches
a. Taenia saginata
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Hymenolepis nana
d. Taenia solium
a. Taenia saginata
104
What is/are the infective stage of Schistosoma to humans?
a. Adult worm
b. Egg
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
d. Neither A nor B
105
Pot belly appearance is a condition associated with which of the following species?
a. Capillaria philippinensis
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichuris trichiura
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
106
Definitive diagnosis of Hymenolepis nana and Hymenolepis diminuta are based on
a. Segments
b. Adult worm
c. Larva
d. Eggs
d. Eggs
107
Egg packets may be seen on laboratory diagnosis
a. Dipylidium caninum
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Taenia multiceps
d. Hymenolepis nana
a. Dipylidium caninum
108
This stain will make the chromatin material of cysts stand-out against yellow-brown cytoplasm
a. Trichrome stain
b. Iron Hematoxylin
c. Hematoxylin Eosin Stain
d. Iodine stain
d. Iodine stain
109
The larval form of this worm consists of daughter cysts and protoscolices
a. Taenia multiceps
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
110
What is/are the first stage larva of Trematodes?
a. Cercaria
b. Miracidium
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Miracidium
111
Growing L. Donovani in artificial culture media will result to which of the following stages?
a. Amastigotes
b. Promastigotes
c. All the above
d. None of the above
b. Promastigotes
112
Circumoral disk with collarette of spines is the diagnostic feature of which of the following parasites?
a. Echinostoma ilocanum
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Opistorchis felineus
a. Echinostoma ilocanum
113
Graham Cellulose Tape Swab is used for the recovery of
a. Pinworm
b. Seatworm
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
c. A and B
114
Infective stage of protozoa describe by which of the following characteristics?
a. non-feeding
b. with stored food
c. motile
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
d. A and B
115
The organism’s cytoplasm is stretch in the diameter of the host RBC is which of the following parasites?
a. P. malariae
b. P. ovale
c. P. falciparum
d. P. vivax
a. P. malariae
116
TRUE to Cestodes
a. Leaf-like parasites
b. All cestodes are hermaphroditic
c. All cestodes require two intermediate host
d. Diecious
b. All cestodes are hermaphroditic
117
Schistosoma eggs when laid:
a. Are already embryonated
b. Are non – operculated
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
b. Are non – operculated
118
The only human tapeworm without intermediate host
a. Hymenolepis diminuta
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Taenia solium
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Hymenolepis nana
119
Eggs are not infective to human host
a. Taenia saginata
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Taenia solium
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Hymenolepis nana
120
An egg counting procedure that is a semi-quantitative technique which assumes of using around 1-2mg of
stool sample
a. Beaver direct smear
b. DFS
c. Stoll’s egg counting
d. Kato thick smear
a. Beaver direct smear
