Finals Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

The anterior chest area that overlies the heart and great vessels is called the

a. endocardium.
b. epicardium.
c. myocardium.
d. precordium.

A

d. precordium.

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2
Q

The bicuspid, or mitral, valve is located

a. between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
b. between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
c. at the beginning of the ascending aorta.
d. at the exit of each ventricle near the great vessels.

A

a. between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

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3
Q

The semilunar valves are located

a. between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
b. between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
c. at the exit of each ventricle at the beginning of the great vessels.
d. at the beginning of the ascending aorta.

A

c. at the exit of each ventricle at the beginning of the great vessels.

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4
Q

The sinoatrial node of the heart is located on the

a. anterior wall of the left atrium.
b. anterior wall of the right atrium.
c. upper intraventricular system.
d. posterior wall of the right atrium.

A

d. posterior wall of the right atrium.

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5
Q

The P-wave phase of an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents

a. conduction of the impulse throughout the ventricles.
b. conduction of the impulse throughout the atria.
c. ventricular repolarization.
d. ventricular polarization.

A

b. conduction of the impulse throughout the atria.

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6
Q

Assessment technique most often associated
with evaluation of the cardiovascular system

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

d. Auscultation

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7
Q

Event of the heart when contraction of the ventricles forces blood into major vessels

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

h. Systole

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8
Q

Palpable murmur described as feeling like the
throat of a purring cat

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

g. Thrill

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9
Q

Audible variation between closure of two valves

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

i. Splitting

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10
Q

Area of auscultation located at second ICS at left sternal border

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

a. Pulmonic

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11
Q

Localized area of tissue necrosis caused by prolonged anoxia

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

c. Infarct

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12
Q

Area of auscultation located at the apex and
assessing the left ventricle; fourth to fifth ICS
at left midclavicular line (MCL)

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

f. Mitral

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13
Q

Area of auscultation at second ICS and right sternal border

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

j. Aortic

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14
Q

Part of stethoscope used to auscultate normal heart sounds

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

b. Diaphragm

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15
Q

The portion of the stethoscope used to assess
for murmurs

a. Pulmonic
b. Diaphragm
c. Infarct
d. Auscultation
e. Bell
f. Mitral
g. Thrill
h. Systole
i. Splitting
j. Aortic

A

e. Bell

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16
Q

During a cardiac examination, the nurse can best hear the S1 heart sound by placing the stethoscope at the client’s

a. base of the heart.
b. pulmonic valve area.
c. apex of the heart.
d. second left interspace.

A

c. apex of the heart.

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17
Q

The S4 heart sound

a. can be heard during systole.
b. is often termed ventricular gallop.
c. is usually due to a heart murmur.
d. can be heard during diastole.

A

d. can be heard during diastole.

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18
Q

An adult client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that she feels chest pain and pain down her left arm. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. congestive heart failure.
b. angina.
c. palpitations.
d. acute anxiety reaction.

A

b. angina.

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19
Q

An adult client tells the nurse that his father died of a massive coronary attack at the age of 65. The nurse should explain to the client that one of the risk factors for coronary heart disease is

a. high serum level of low-density lipoproteins.
b. low-carbohydrate diets.
c. high serum level of high-density lipoproteins.
d. diets that are high in antioxidant vitamins.

A

a. high serum level of low-density lipoproteins.

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20
Q

The nurse is planning a presentation about coronary heart disease for a group of middle-aged adults. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s teaching plan?

a. Hispanic clients have a higher incidence of CHD than black or white Americans.
b. The incidence of hypertension in the white population of the United States is greater than in the black population.
c. Women are more likely to have serious stenosis after a heart attack.
d. Lowering elevated cholesterol and BP decreases the risk of heart attack

A

d. Lowering elevated cholesterol and BP decreases the risk of heart attack

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21
Q

The nurse is preparing to assess the cardiovascular system of an adult client with emphysema. The nurse anticipates that there may be some difficulty palpating the client’s

a. apical pulse.
b. breath sounds.
c. jugular veins.
d. carotid arteries.

A

a. apical pulse.

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22
Q

The nurse is planning to auscultate a female adult client’s carotid arteries. The nurse should plan to

a. ask the client to hold her breath.
b. palpate the arteries before auscultation.
c. place the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the artery.
d. ask the client to breathe normally.

A

a. ask the client to hold her breath.

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23
Q

While assessing an older adult client, the nurse detects a bruit over the carotid artery. The nurse should explain to the client that a bruit is

a. a normal sound heard in adult clients.
b. a wheezing sound.
c. associated with occlusive arterial disease.
d. heard when the artery is almost totally occluded.

A

c. associated with occlusive arterial disease.

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24
Q

The nurse assesses a hospitalized adult client and observes that the client’s jugular veins are fully extended. The nurse contacts the client’s physician because the client’s signs are indicative of

a. pulmonary emphysema.
b. diastolic murmurs.
c. patent ductus arteriosus.
d. increased central venous pressure.

A

d. increased central venous pressure.

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25
Q

While palpating the apex, left sternal border, and base in an adult client, the nurse detects a thrill. The nurse should further assess the client for

a. cardiac murmur.
b. left-sided heart failure.
c. constrictive pericarditis.
d. congestive heart failure.

A

a. cardiac murmur.

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26
Q

The nurse is auscultating the heart sounds of an adult client. To auscultate Erb’s point, the nurse should place the stethoscope at the

a. second intercostal space at the right sternal border.
b. third to fifth intercostal space at the left sternal border.
c. apex of the heart near the midclavicular line (MCL).
d. fourth or fifth intercostal space at the left lower sternal border.

A

b. third to fifth intercostal space at the left sternal border.

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27
Q

While auscultating an adult client’s heart rate and rhythm, the nurse detects a irregular pattern. The nurse should

a. assess the client for signs and symptoms of pulmonary disease.
b. document this as a normal finding.
c. schedule the client for an ECG.
d. refer the client to a physician.

A

d. refer the client to a physician.

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28
Q

The nurse has assessed the heart sounds of an adolescent client and detects the presence of an S3 heart sound at the beginning of the diastolic pause. The nurse should instruct the client that she should

a. be referred to a cardiologist for further evaluation.
b. be examined again in 6 months.
c. restrict exercise and strenuous activities.
d. recognize that this finding is normal in adolescents.

A

d. recognize that this finding is normal in adolescents.

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29
Q

While assessing an adult client, the nurse detects opening snaps early in diastole during auscultation of the heart. The nurse should refer the client to a physician because this is usually indicative of

a. pulmonary hypertension.
b. aortic stenosis.
c. mitral valve stenosis.
d. pulmonary hypotension.

A

c. mitral valve stenosis.

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30
Q

The nurse detects paradoxical pulses in an adult client during an examination. The nurse should explain to the client that paradoxical pulses are usually indicative of

a. obstructive lung disease.
b. left-sided heart failure.
c. premature ventricular contractions.
d. aortic stenosis.

A

a. obstructive lung disease.

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31
Q

The major artery that supplies blood to the arm is the

a. radial artery
b. ulcer artery
c. posterior artery
d. brachial artery

A

d. brachial artery

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32
Q

The popliteal artery can be palpated at the

a. knee
b. great toe
c. ankle
d. inguinal ligament

A

a. knee

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33
Q

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated at the

a. great toe
b. knee
c. top of the foot
d. ankle

A

d. ankle

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34
Q

Blood from the lower trunk and legs drains upward into the inferior vena cava. The percentage of the body’s blood volume that is contained in the veins is nearly

a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%

A

c. 70%

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35
Q

The nurse is planning to perform the Trendelenburg test on an adult client. The nurse should explain to the client that this test is used to determine the

a. degree of arterial occlusion that exists
b. pulse of a client with poor elasticity
c. competence of the saphenous vein valves
d. severity of thrombophlebitis

A

c. competence of the saphenous vein valves

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36
Q

Used to detect a weak peripheral pulse to monitor blood pressure in infants or children and to measure blood pressure in a lower extremity; it magnifies pulse sounds from the heart and blood vessels

A

Doppler ultrasound probe

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37
Q

Swelling caused by excessive fluid

A

Edema

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38
Q

Diffuse enlargement of terminal phalanges

A

Clubbing

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39
Q

A vasospastic disorder, primarily affects the hands, characterized by color change from pallor, to cyanosis to rubor; attacks precipitated by cold or emotional upset and relieved by warmth

A

Raynaud disease

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40
Q

The time it takes for color to return to the nail beds after they have been blanched by pressure; a good measure of peripheral perfusion and cardiac output

A

Capillary refill time

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41
Q

Determines the patency of the radial and ulnar arteries

A

Allen test

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42
Q

Swollen, distended, and knotted veins; occur most commonly in the legs

A

Varicose veins

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43
Q

Inflammation of a vein associated with thrombus formation

A

Thrombophlebitis

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44
Q

Usually occurs on tips of toes, metatarsal heads, and lateral malleoli; ulcers have pale ischemic base, well defined edges and no bleeding

A

Arterial ulcer

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45
Q

Usually occur on medial malleoli; ulcers have bleeding uneven edges

A

Venous ulcer

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46
Q

Rigid peripheral blood vessels; occurs more commonly in older adults

A

Arteriosclerosis

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47
Q

Deficient supply of oxygenated arterial blood to a tissue, caused by obstruction of a blood vessel

A

Ischemia

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48
Q

While assessing the peripheral vascular system of an adult client, the nurse detects cold clammy skin and loss of hair on the client’s legs. The nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing

a. venous stasis
b. varicose veins
c. thrombophlebitis
d. arterial insufficiency

A

d. arterial insufficiency

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49
Q

During a physical examination, the nurse detects warm skin and brown pigmentation around an adult client’s ankles. The nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing

a. venous insufficiency
b. arterial occlusive disease
c. venous ulcers
d. ankle edema

A

a. venous insufficiency

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50
Q

The nurse is assessing the peripheral vascular system of an older adult client. The client tells the nurse that her legs “seem cold all the time and sometimes feel tingly” The nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing

a. varicose veins
b. intermittent claudication
c. edema
d. thrombophlebitis

A

b. intermittent claudication

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51
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is employed as a typist and has a family history of peripheral vascular disease. The nurse should instruct the client to reduce her risk factors by

a. eating a high-protein diet
b. resting frequently
c. drinking large quantities of milk
d. getting regular exercise

A

d. getting regular exercise

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52
Q

The nurse is preparing to use a Doppler ultrasound probe to detect blood flow in the femoral artery of an adult client. The nurse should

a. apply K-Y jelly to the client’s skin
b. place the client in a supine position with the head flat
c. place the tip of the probe in a 30-degree angle to the artery
d. apply gel used for ECG to the client’s skin

A

a. apply K-Y jelly to the client’s skin

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53
Q

A client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that she had a mastectomy 2 years ago. The nurse
should assess the client for

a. lymphedema
b. Raynaud’s disease
c. poor peripheral pulses
d. bruits over the radial artery

A

a. lymphedema

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54
Q

After palpating the radial pulse of an adult client, the nurse suspects arterial insufficiency. The nurse should next assess the client’s

a. femoral pulse
b. popliteal pulse
c. brachial pulse
d. tibial pulse

A

c. brachial pulse

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55
Q

The nurse is preparing to palpate the epitrochlear lymph nodes of an adult male client. The nurse should instruct the client to

a. assume a supine position
b. rest his arm on the examination table
c. flex his elbow about 90 degrees
d. make a fist with his left hand

A

c. flex his elbow about 90 degrees

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56
Q

While inspecting the skin color of a male client’s legs, the nurse observes that the client’s legs are slightly cyanotic while he is sitting on the edge of the examination table. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. arterial insufficiency
b. congestive heart failure
c. Raynaud’s disease
d. venous insufficiency

A

d. venous insufficiency

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57
Q

While assessing the inguinal lymph nodes in an older adult client, the nurse detects that the lymph nodes are approximately 3 cm in diameter, nontender, and fixed. The nurse should refer the client to a physician because these findings are generally associated with

a. localized infection
b. systemic infection
c. arterial insufficiency
d. malignancy

A

d. malignancy

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58
Q

The abdominal contents are enclosed externally by the abdominal wall musculature – three layers of muscle extending from the back, around the flanks, to the front. The outer muscle layer is the external

a. rectal abdominis
b. transverse abdominis
c. abdominal oblique
d. umbilical oblique

A

c. abdominal oblique

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59
Q

The sigmoid colon is located in this area of the abdomen: the

a. left upper quadrant
b. left lower quadrant
c. right upper quadrant
d. right lower quadrant

A

b. left lower quadrant

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60
Q

The pancreas of an adult client is located

a. below the diaphragm and extending below the right costal margin
b. posterior to the left midaxillary line and posterior to the stomach
c. high and deep under the diaphragm and can be palpated
d. deep in the upper abdomen and is not normally palpable

A

d. deep in the upper abdomen and is not normally palpable

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61
Q

The primary function of the gallbladder is to

a. store and excrete bile
b. aid in the digestion of protein
c. produce alkaline mucus
d. produce hormones

A

a. store and excrete bile

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62
Q

The colon originates in this abdominal area: the

a. right lower quadrant
b. right upper quadrant
c. left lower quadrant
d. left upper quadrant

A

a. right lower quadrant

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63
Q

Inspiratory arrest or causes client to hold breath

A

Murphy sign

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64
Q

Right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain or tenderness

A

Cholecystitis

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65
Q

Bacterium Helicobacter pylori

A

Peptic ulcer disease

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66
Q

Shifting dullness and fluid wave tests

A

Ascites

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67
Q

Can identify a mass or enlarged organ in an ascitic abdomen

A

Ballottement test

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68
Q

Absent or high-pitched bowel sounds

A

Paralytic ileus

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69
Q

Assessed by raising right leg from hip

A

Positive psoas sign

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70
Q

Release of pressure quickly after deep palpation

A

Rebound tenderness

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71
Q

Protrusion of the bowel through the abdominal wall

A

Hernia

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72
Q

Increased peristaltic waves

A

Intestinal obstruction

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73
Q

To percuss the liver of an adult client, the nurse should begin the abdominal assessment at the client’s

a. right upper quadrant
b. right lower quadrant
c. left upper quadrant
d. left lower quadrant

A

a. right upper quadrant

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74
Q

To palpate for tenderness of an adult client’s appendix, the nurse should begin the abdominal assessment at the client’s

a. left upper quadrant
b. left lower quadrant
c. right upper quadrant
d. right lower quadrant

A

d. right lower quadrant

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75
Q

To palpate the spleen of an adult client, the nurse should begin the abdominal assessment at the client at the

a. left lower quadrant
b. left upper quadrant
c. right upper quadrant
d. right lower quadrant

A

b. left upper quadrant

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76
Q

The nurse plans to assess an adult client’s kidneys for tenderness. The nurse should assess the area at the

a. right upper quadrant
b. left upper quadrant
c. external oblique angle
d. costovertebral angle

A

d. costovertebral angle

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77
Q

The client visits the clinic because she experienced bright hematemesis yesterday. the nurse should refer the client to a physician because this symptom is indicative of

a. stomach ulcers
b. pancreatic cancer
c. decreased gastric motility
d. abdominal tumors

A

a. stomach ulcers

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78
Q

The nurse is assessing an older adult client who has lost 2.27 kg (5 lb) since her last visit 1 year ago. The client tells the nurse that her husband died 2 months ago. the nurse should further assess the client for

a. peptic ulcer
b. bulimia
c. appetite changes
d. pancreatic disorders

A

c. appetite changes

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79
Q

A client visits the clinic visits there clinic for a routine examination. the client tells the nurse that she has become constipated because she is taking iron tablets prescribed for anemia. the nurse has instructed the client about the use of iron preparations and possible constipation. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when she says

a. “I can decrease the constipation if I eat foods high in fiber and drink water”
b. “I should cut down on the number of iron tablets I am taking each day”
c. “constipation should decrease if I take the iron tablets with milk”
d. “I should discontinue the iron tablets and eat foods that are high in iron”

A

a. “I can decrease the constipation if I eat foods high in fiber and drink water”

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80
Q

The nurse is caring for a female client during her first postoperative day after a temporary colostomy. The client refuses to look at the colostomy bag or the area. A priority nursing diagnosis for this client is

a. denial related to temporary colostomy
b. fear related to potential outcome of surgery
c. disturbed body image related to temporary colostomy
d. altered role functioning related to frequent colostomy bag changes

A

c. disturbed body image related to temporary colostomy

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81
Q

The nurse is preparing to assess the abdomen of a hospitalized client 2 days after abdominal surgery. The nurse should first

a. palpate the incision site
b. auscultate for bowel sounds
c. percuss for tympany
d. inspect the abdominal area

A

d. inspect the abdominal area

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82
Q

The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male client. Before the nurse begins the assessment, the nurse should

a. ask the client to empty his bladder
b. place the client in a side-laying position
c. ask the client to hold his breath for a few seconds
d. tell the client to raise his arms above his head

A

a. ask the client to empty his bladder

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83
Q

The nurse is assessing the abdomen of an adult client and observes a purple discoloration at the flanks. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. liver disease
b. abdominal distention
c. Cushing syndrome
d. internal bleeding

A

d. internal bleeding

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84
Q

While assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse observes that the client’s umbilicus is deviated tot he left. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. gallbladder disease
b. cachexia
c. kidney trauma
d. masses

A

d. masses

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85
Q

While assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse observes that the client’s umbilicus is enlarged and everted. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. umbilical hernia
b. ascites
c. intra-abdominal bleeding
d. pancreatitis

A

a. umbilical hernia

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86
Q

The nurse assess an adult male client’s abdomen and observes diminished abdominal respirations. The nurse determines that the client should be further assessed for

a. liver disease
b. umbilical hernia
c. intestinal obstruction
d. peritoneal irritation

A

d. peritoneal irritation

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87
Q

The nurse is assessing the bowel sounds of an adult client. After listening to each quadrant, the nurse determines that bowel sounds are not present. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. aortic aneurysm
b. paralytic ileus
c. gastroenteritis
d. fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A

b. paralytic ileus

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88
Q

While assessing the abdominal sounds of an adult client, the nurse hears high pitched tingling sounds throughout the distended abdomen. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. intestinal obstruction
b. gastroenteritis
c. inflamed appendix
d. cirrhosis of the liver

A

a. intestinal obstruction

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89
Q

During a physical examination of an adult client, the nurse is preparing to auscultate the client’s abdomen. The nurse should

a. palpate the abdomen
b. listen in each quadrant for 15 seconds
c. use the diaphragm of the stethoscope
d. begin auscultation in the left upper quadrant

A

c. use the diaphragm of the stethoscope

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90
Q

To palpate the spleen of an adult client, the nurse should

a. ask the client to exhale deeply
b. place the right hand below the left costal margin
c. point the fingers of the left hand downward
d. ask the client to remain in a supine position

A

b. place the right hand below the left costal margin

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91
Q

The nurse is planning to assess a client’s abdomen for rebound tenderness. The nurse should

a. perform this abdominal assessment first
b. ask the client to assume a side-lying position
c. palpate lightly while slowly releasing pressure
d. palpate deeply while quickly releasing pressure

A

d. palpate deeply while quickly releasing pressure

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92
Q

To assess an adult client for possible appendicitis and a positive posts sign, the nurse should

a. rotate the client’s knee internally
b. palpate at the lower right quadrant
c. raise the client’s right leg from the hip
d. support the client’s right knee and ankle

A

c. raise the client’s right leg from the hip

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93
Q

One of the functions of a bone is to

a. store fat.
b. produce secretions.
c. produce blood cells.
d. store protein.

A

c. produce blood cells

94
Q

Bones contain yellow marrow that is composed mainly of

a. fat.
b. protein.
c. cartilage.
d. carbohydrates.

A

a. fat

95
Q

The external covering of the bone that contains osteoblasts and blood vessels is termed the

a. cartilage.
b. synovial membrane.
c. connective tissue.
d. periosteum.

A

d. periosteum

96
Q

Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by

a. tendons.
b. cartilage.
c. fibrous connective tissue.
d. ligaments.

A

a. tendons

97
Q

Joints may be classified as cartilaginous, synovial, or

a. articulate.
b. flexible.
c. immobile.
d. fibrous.

A

d. fibrous

98
Q

Bones in synovial joints are joined together by

a. cartilage.
b. ligaments.
c. tendons.
d. periosteal tissue.

A

b. ligaments

99
Q

When the nurse moves the client’s arm away from the midline of the body, the nurse is performing

a. adduction.
b. external rotation.
c. retraction.
d. abduction.

A

d. abduction

100
Q

When the nurse moves a client’s leg upward, the nurse is performing

a. supination.
b. external rotation.
c. eversion.
d. internal rotation.

A

a. supination

101
Q

The subacromial bursa are contained in the

a. temporomandibular joint.
b. shoulder joint.
c. elbow joint.
d. wrist joint.

A

b. shoulder joint

102
Q

Articulation between the head of the femur and the acetabulum is in the

a. knee joint.
b. tibial joint.
c. ankle joint.
d. hip joint.

A

d. hip joint

103
Q

Moving limbs toward median plane of body

A

Adduction

104
Q

Inflammation of the bursa

A

Bursitis

105
Q

Tenderness or pain in the muscle

A

Myalgia

106
Q

Type of rigidity characterized by jerky movements with passive stretching

A

Cogwheel

107
Q

Backward bending or flexion of a joint

A

Dorsiflexion

108
Q

Cracking sound or sensation heard or felt within joint movements

A

Crepitus

109
Q

Movement that brings a limb into or toward a bent condition

A

Flexion

110
Q

Type of flexion associate with foot extension

A

Plantar

111
Q

Movement bringing a limb into or toward a straight condition

A

Extension

112
Q

Abnormal convexity of the posterior curve of spine

A

Kyphosis

113
Q

A client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that she has joint pain in her hands, especially in the morning. The nurse should assess the client further for signs and symptoms of

a. arthritis.
b. osteoporosis.
c. carpal tunnel syndrome.
d. a neurologic disorder.

A

a. arthritis

114
Q

A client with insulin-dependent diabetes visits the clinic and complains of painful hip joints. The nurse should assess the client carefully for signs and symptoms of

a. arthritis.
b. gait difficulties.
c. osteomyelitis.
d. scoliosis.

A

c. osteomyelitis

115
Q

A female client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that she began menarche at the age of 16 years. The nurse should instruct the client that she is at a higher risk for

a. osteoporosis.
b. osteomyelitis.
c. rheumatoid arthritis.
d. lordosis.

A

a. osteoporosis

116
Q

The nurse is planning a presentation on osteoporosis to a group of high school students.
Which of the following should the nurse plan to include in the presentation?

a. Bone density rises to a peak at age 50 for both sexes.
b. Bone density in the Asian population is higher than in the white population.
c. Moderate strenuous exercise tends to increase bone density.
d. Approximately 5 million fractures in the United States are due to osteoporosis.

A

c. Moderate strenuous exercise tends to increase bone density

117
Q

The nurse is caring for an adult client who is in a cast because of a fractured arm. To promote healing of the bone and tissue, the nurse should instruct the client to eat a diet that is high in

a. whole grains.
b. vitamin B.
c. vitamin E.
d. vitamin C.

A

d. vitamin C

118
Q

An adult client tells the nurse that he eats sardines every day. The nurse should instruct the client that a diet high in purines can contribute to

a. gouty arthritis.
b. osteomalacia.
c. bone fractures.
d. osteomyelitis.

A

a. gouty arthritis

119
Q

A client tells the nurse that his grandmother had a diagnosis of osteomalacia. The nurse should instruct the client that to decrease the risk factors for osteomalacia, the clients should have adequate amounts of

a. vitamin E.
b. riboflavin.
c. !-carotene.
d. vitamin D.

A

d. vitamin D

120
Q

The nurse is preparing to perform a musculoskeletal examination on an adult client. The nurse has explained the examination procedure to the client. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions when the client says

a. “You will be asking me to change positions often.”
b. “You’ll be comparing bilateral joints.”
c. “You’ll be assessing the size and strength of my joints.”
d. “You’ll continue with range of motion even if I have discomfort.”

A

d. “You’ll continue with range of motion even if I have discomfort.”

121
Q

While assessing muscle strength in an older adult client, the nurse determines that the client’s knee joint has a rating of 3 and exhibits active motion against gravity. The nurse should document the client’s muscle strength as being/having

a. normal.
b. slight weakness.
c. average weakness.
d. poor range of motion

A

c. average weakness

122
Q

While assessing an adult client’s jaw, the nurse hears a clicking popping sound, and the client expresses pain in the joint. The nurse should further assess the client for

a. arthritis.
b. TMJ dysfunction.
c. bruxism.
d. previous fracture.

A

b. TMJ dysfunction

123
Q

While examining the spine of an adult client, the nurse notes that the client has a flattened lumbar curvature. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. herniated disc.
b. scoliosis.
c. kyphosis.
d. cervical disc degeneration

A

a. herniated disc

124
Q

The nurse is assessing the spine of an adult client and detects lateral curvature of the thoracic spine with an increase in convexity on the left curved side. The nurse suspects that the client is experiencing

a. lordosis.
b. arthritis.
c. kyphosis.
d. scoliosis.

A

d. scoliosis

125
Q

A client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that he has had lower back pain for the past several days. To perform Lasègue’s test, the nurse should ask the client to

a. bend backward toward the nurse.
b. lean forward and touch his toes.
c. twist the shoulders in both directions.
d. lie flat and raise his leg to the point of pain.

A

d. lie flat and raise his leg to the point of pain

126
Q

An older adult client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that she has had shooting pain in both of her legs. The nurse should assess the client for signs and symptoms of

a. herniated intervertebral disc.
b. rheumatoid arthritis.
c. osteoporosis.
d. metastases.

A

a. herniated intervertebral disc

127
Q

While assessing the range of motion in an adult client’s shoulders, the client expresses pain and exhibits limited abduction and muscle weakness. The nurse plans to refer the client to a physician for possible

a. rotator cuff tear.
b. nerve damage.
c. cervical disc degeneration.
d. tendonitis.

A

a. rotator cuff tear

128
Q

While assessing an older adult client, the client complains of chronic pain and severe limitation of all shoulder movements. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. rotator cuff tendonitis.
b. rheumatoid arthritis.
c. calcified tendinitis.
d. chronic bursitis.

A

c. calcified tendinitis

129
Q

A client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that after playing softball yesterday, he thinks his knee is “locking up.” The nurse should perform the McMurray’s test by asking the client to

a. move from a standing to a squatting position.
b. raise his leg while in a supine position.
c. bend forward while trying to touch the toes.
d. flex the knee and hip while in a supine position

A

b. raise his leg while in a supine position

130
Q

While assessing the elbow of an adult client, the client complains of pain and swelling. The nurse should further assess the client for

a. arthritis.
b. ganglion cyst.
c. carpal tunnel syndrome.
d. nerve damage.

A

a. arthritis

131
Q

While reviewing a client’s chart before seeing the client for the first time, the nurse notes that the client has a diagnosis of Dupuytren’s contracture. The nurse anticipates that the client will exhibit

a. inability to turn the wrists.
b. ulnar deviation of the hands.
c. flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints.
d. inability to extend the ring and little finger.

A

d. inability to extend the ring and little finger.

132
Q

The cerebrospinal fluid cushions the central nervous system (CNS), provides nourishment to the CNS, and

a. transmits impulses.
b. coats the brain.
c. regulates heart rate.
d. removes wastes.

A

d. removes wastes

133
Q

The cerebrum is divided into right and left hemispheres, which are joined together by the

a. corpus callosum.
b. diencephalon.
c. medulla oblongata.
d. pons.

A

a. corpus callosum

134
Q

The portion of the brain that rims the surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres forming the cerebral cortex is the

a. gray matter.
b. cerebellum.
c. diencephalon.
d. brain stem.

A

a. gray matter

135
Q

The diencephalon of the brain consists of the

a. pons and brain stem.
b. medulla oblongata and cerebrum.
c. cerebellum and midbrain.
d. thalamus and hypothalamus.

A

d. thalamus and hypothalamus

136
Q

The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating

a. sleep cycles.
b. nerve impulses.
c. memory.
d. eye reflexes.

A

a. sleep cycles

137
Q

Innervates neck muscles that promote movement of the shoulders and head rotation

A

Spinal accessory

138
Q

Contains sensory fibers for taste on posterior one-third of the tongue; responsible for “gag reflex” when stimulated

A

Glossopharyngeal

139
Q

Carries smell impulses from nasal mucous

membrane to brain

A

Olfactory

140
Q

Contains sensory fibers for taste on anterior two- thirds of the tongue, and stimulates secretions from the salivary glands and tears from lacrimal glands

A

Facial

141
Q

Innervates tongue muscles that promote the movement of food and talking

A

Hypoglossal

142
Q

Contains sensory fibers for hearing and balance

A

Acoustic

143
Q

Carries visual impulses from the eye to the brain

A

Optic

144
Q

Carries sensations from the throat, larynx, heart, lungs, bronchi, gastrointestinal tract, and abdominal viscera

A

Vagus

145
Q

Controls lateral eye movements

A

Abducens

146
Q

Contracts eye muscles to control eye movement, constricts pupils, and elevates eyelids

A

Oculomotor

147
Q

Carries sensory impulses of pain, touch, and temperature from the face to the brain

A

Trigeminal

148
Q

Contracts one eye muscle to control inferomedial eye movement

A

Trochlear

149
Q

Sensations of temperature, pain, and crude and light touch are carried by way of the

a. extrapyramidal tract.
b. corticospinal tract.
c. spinothalamic tract.
d. posterior tract.

A

c. spinothalamic tract

150
Q

The cranial nerve that has sensory fibers for taste and fibers that result in the “gag reflex” is the

a. vagus.
b. hypoglossal.
c. trigeminal.
d. glossopharyngeal.

A

d. glossopharyngeal

151
Q

The nurse is assessing an older adult client when the client tells the nurse that she has experienced transient blind spots for the last few days. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. vagus nerve damage.
b. stroke.
c. spinal cord compression.
d. Parkinson disease.

A

b. stroke

152
Q

The nurse is planning a presentation to a group of adults on the topic of cardiovascular accidents. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan?

a. Strokes are the number one cause of death in the United States.
b. Smoking and high cholesterol levels are risk factors for stroke.
c. Clients who smoke while taking oral contraceptives are not at higher risk.
d. Postmenopausal women taking estrogen are at greater risk for stroke.

A

b. Smoking and high cholesterol levels are risk factors for stroke.

153
Q

The nurse is caring for a client during the immediate postoperative period after abdominal surgery. While performing a “neuro check” the nurse should assess the client’s

a. sensation in the extremities.
b. deep tendon reflexes.
c. ability to speak.
d. recent memory.

A

a. sensation in the extremities

154
Q

The nurse is preparing to percuss a client’s reflexes in his arms. To use the reinforcement technique, the nurse should ask the client to

a. clench his jaw.
b. stretch the opposite arm.
c. hold his neck toward the floor.
d. straighten his legs forward.

A

a. clench his jaw

155
Q

Which cranial nerve is the nurse testing when the client is asked to identify a scented object?

a. oculomotor
b. facial
c. optic
d. olfactory

A

d. olfactory

156
Q

Reduced ability to sense vibrations of a tuning fork may be present with

a. peripheral neuropathy.
b. nystagmus.
c. graphesthesia.
d. stereognosis.

A

a. peripheral neuropathy

157
Q

While assessing the neurologic system of a confused older adult, the nurse observes that the
client is unable to recall past events. The nurse suspects that the client may be exhibiting signs of

a. depression.
b. anxiety.
c. attention deficit disorder.
d. cerebral cortex disorder.

A

d. cerebral cortex disorder

158
Q

The nurse is assessing the neurologic system of an adult client. To test the client’s use of memory to learn new information, the nurse should ask the client

a. “What did you have for breakfast?”
b. “How old were you when you began working?”
c. “Can you repeat rose, hose, nose, clothes?”
d. “Can you repeat brown, chair, textbook, tomato?”

A

a. “What did you have for breakfast?”

159
Q

While assessing the pupils of a hospitalized adult client, the nurse observes that the client’s pupils are dilated to 6 cm. The nurse suspects that the client is exhibiting signs of

a. oculomotor nerve paralysis.
b. damage to the pons.
c. alcohol abuse.
d. cocaine abuse.

A

a. oculomotor nerve paralysis

160
Q

The nurse is assessing the neurologic system of an adult client. To test the client’s motor function of the facial nerve, the nurse should

a. ask the client to purse the lips.
b. ask the client to open the mouth and say “ah.”
c. note the presence of a gag reflex.
d. observe the client swallow a sip of water.

A

a. ask the client to purse the lips.

161
Q

The nurse is assessing the neurologic system of a client who has spastic muscle tone. The nurse should explain to the client that spastic muscle tone is associated with impairment to the

a. extrapyramidal tract.
b. spinothalamic tract.
c. posterior columns.
d. corticospinal tract

A

d. corticospinal tract

162
Q

The nurse is preparing to perform the Romberg test on an adult male client. The nurse should instruct the client to

a. squat down as far as he is able to do so.
b. keep his eyes open while he bends at the knees.
c. stand erect with arms at the sides and feet together.
d. touch the tip of his nose with his finger.

A

c. stand erect with arms at the sides and feet together

163
Q

The nurse is planning to test position sensation in an adult female client. To perform this procedure, the nurse should ask the client to close her eyes while the nurse moves the client’s

a. arm away from the body.
b. toes up or down.
c. hand forward and then backward.
d. leg away from the body.

A

b. toes up or down

164
Q

The corpora spongiosum extends distally to form the acorn-shaped

a. glans.
b. frenulum.
c. corona.
d. scrotum.

A

a. glans.

165
Q

If a male client is uncircumcised, the glans of the penis is covered by the

a. epididymis.
b. frenulum.
c. corona.
d. foreskin.

A

d. foreskin.

166
Q

The testes in the male scrotum are

a. joined with the ejaculatory duct.
b. suspended by the spermatic cord.
c. able to produce progesterone.
d. the location of the vas deferens.

A

b. suspended by the spermatic cord.

167
Q

The inguinal canal in a male client is located

a. just above and parallel to the inguinal ligament.
b. anteriorly above the symphysis pubis.
c. anterior to the external inguinal ring.
d. posterior to the superior iliac ring.

A

a. just above and parallel to the inguinal ligament.

168
Q

Retracted foreskin that cannot be returned to cover the glans

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

e. Paraphimosis

169
Q

Displacement of the urinary meatus to the dorsal surface of the penis

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

g. Epispadias

170
Q

Base of the glans

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

a. Corona

171
Q

Undescended testicle

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

h. Cryptorchidism

172
Q

Protrusion of bowel through weakened muscles

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

b. Hernia

173
Q

A tight foreskin that cannot be retracted

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

d. Phimosis

174
Q

Red oval ulcerations caused by syphilis

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

c. Chancres

175
Q

Displacement of the urinary meatus to the ventral surface of the penis

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

f. Hypospadias

176
Q

Painless flabby papules due to varicose veins; two types, external or internal

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

j. Hemorrhoids

177
Q

A hair-containing cyst located in the midline over the coccyx or lower sacrum

a. Corona
b. Hernia
c. Chancres
d. Phimosis
e. Paraphimosis
f. Hypospadias
g. Epispadias
h. Cryptorchidism
i. Pilonidal cyst
j. Hemorrhoids

A

i. Pilonidal cyst

178
Q

During assessment of an elderly male client, the client tells the nurse that he has had difficulty urinating for the past few weeks. The nurse should refer the client to the physician for possible

a. inguinal hernia.
b. sexually transmitted disease.
c. impotence.
d. prostate enlargement.

A

d. prostate enlargement.

179
Q

A 25-year-old client asks the nurse how often he should have a testicular examination. After instructing the client about the American Cancer Society’s guidelines, the nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when he says he should have a testicular examination every

a. yearly.
b. only if he has symptoms.
c. during his general physical exam.
d. every 4 years.

A

c. during his general physical exam.

180
Q

A 45-year-old male client tells the nurse that he has had problems in having an erection for the last couple of weeks but is “doing better now.” The nurse should explain to the client that

a. transient periods of erectile dysfunction are common.
b. impotence in males should be investigated.
c. transient impotence may be indicative of prostate enlargement.
d. inguinal hernias have been associated with transient impotence.

A

a. transient periods of erectile dysfunction are common.

181
Q

A male client tells the nurse that his occupation requires heavy lifting and a great deal of strenuous activity. The nurse should assess the client for

a. signs and symptoms of prostate enlargement.
b. erectile dysfunction.
c. inguinal hernia.
d. urinary tract infection.

A

c. inguinal hernia.

182
Q

During assessment of an adult client, which of the following lifestyle practices would indicate to the nurse that the client may be at high risk for HIV/AIDS? A client who

a. uses a condom on a regular basis.
b. has multiple female partners.
c. smokes marijuana occasionally.
d. has anal intercourse with other males.

A

d. has anal intercourse with other males.

183
Q

During assessment of the genitalia of an adult male, the client has an erection. The nurse should

a. explain to the client that this often happens during an examination.
b. cover the client’s genitals and discontinue the examination.
c. allow the client time to rest before proceeding with the examination.
d. continue the examination in an unhurried manner.

A

d. continue the examination in an unhurried manner.

184
Q

Before beginning the examination of the genitalia of an adult male client, the nurse should

a. ask the client to empty his bladder.
b. tell the client that he will remain in a supine position.
c. ask the client to leave his shirt in place.
d. tell the client that he may leave his underwear in place.

A

a. ask the client to empty his bladder.

185
Q

While assessing an adult male client, the nurse detects pimple-like lesions on the client’s glans. The nurse explains the need for a referral to the client. The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when the client says he may have

a. venereal warts.
b. herpes infection.
c. syphilis.
d. gonorrhea.

A

b. herpes infection.

186
Q

While inspecting the genitalia of a male client, the nurse observes a chancre lesion under the foreskin. The nurse has explained this observation to the client. The nurse determines that the client understands the need for a referral when the client says that chancre lesions are associated with

a. herpes virus.
b. syphilis.
c. papilloma virus.
d. gonorrhea.

A

b. syphilis.

187
Q

A male client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that he has had a white discharge from his penis for the past few days. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. urethritis.
b. gonorrhea.
c. herpes infection.
d. syphilis.

A

a. urethritis.

188
Q

The nurse has assessed a male client and determines that one of the testes is absent. The nurse should explain to the client that this condition is termed

a. hypospadias.
b. hematocele.
c. cryptorchidism.
d. orchitis.

A

c. cryptorchidism.

189
Q

The nurse is assessing the genitalia of an adult male client when he tells the nurse that his testes are swollen and painful. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. cancer.
b. hydrocele.
c. epididymitis.
d. hematocele.

A

c. epididymitis.

190
Q

While transilluminating the scrotal contents in a male adult client, the nurse does not detect a red glow. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. spermatocele.
b. orchitis.
c. hydrocele.
d. varicocele.

A

d. varicocele.

191
Q

The nurse suspects that a male client may have a hernia. The nurse should further assess the client for

a. bruising at the site.
b. urinary tract infection.
c. cysts at the spermatic cord.
d. bowel sounds at the bulge.

A

d. bowel sounds at the bulge.

192
Q

A male client tells the nurse that he has received a diagnosis of hernia. He visits the clinic because he is nauseated and has extreme tenderness on the left side. The nurse should

a. refer the client to an emergency room.
b. try to push the mass into the abdomen.
c. assess for a mass on the right side.
d. assess the client’s vital signs.

A

a. refer the client to an emergency room.

193
Q

The skin folds of the labia majora are composed of adipose tissue, sebaceous glands, and

a. Skene ducts.
b. vestibular glands.
c. sweat glands.
d. Bartholin glands.

A

c. sweat glands.

194
Q

The visible portion of the clitoris is termed the

a. corpus.
b. crura.
c. vestibule.
d. glans.

A

d. glans.

195
Q

The skin folds of the labia majora and the labia minora form a boat-shaped area termed the

a. vestibule.
b. corpus.
c. Skene glands.
d. urethral meatus.

A

a. vestibule.

196
Q

The outermost layer of the vaginal wall is composed of

a. pink squamous epithelium and connective tissue.
b. the vascular supply, nerves, and lymphatic channels.
c. smooth muscle and connective tissue.
d. connective tissue and the vascular network.

A

a. pink squamous epithelium and connective tissue.

197
Q

The outer layer of the vaginal wall is under the direct influence of

a. androgen.
b. progesterone.
c. aldosterone.
d. estrogen.

A

d. estrogen.

198
Q

Painful menstruation

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

k. Dysmenorrhea

199
Q

Cessation of menstruation

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

h. Menopause

200
Q

“Crabs”

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

e. Pediculosis pubis

201
Q

Heavy menstruation

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

j. Menorrhagia

202
Q

Secrete mucus to aid in lubrication during intercourse

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

a. Skene gland

203
Q

Desire for sexual activity

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

d. Libido

204
Q

Secrete mucus to lubricate and maintain moist vaginal environment

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

b. Bartholin glands

205
Q

Cervix appears blue rather than pink

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

f. Chadwick sign

206
Q

Painful urination

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

l. Dysuria

207
Q

Absence of menstruation

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

i. Amenorrhea

208
Q

Opening in center of cervix

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

c. Os

209
Q

Round firm pad of adipose tissue that covers the symphysis pubis

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

g. Mons pubis

210
Q

Client holds breath and bears down

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

n. Valsalva maneuver

211
Q

Examination of the rectum and sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscopy

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

212
Q

Three semilunar transverse folds within the rectal interior

a. Skene glands
b. Bartholin glands
c. Os
d. Libido
e. Pediculosis pubis
f. Chadwick sign
g. Mons pubis
h. Menopause
i. Amenorrhea
j. Menorrhagia
k. Dysmenorrhea
l. Dysuria
m. Valves of Houston
n. Valsalva maneuver
o. Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

m. Valves of Houston

213
Q

A female client tells the nurse that she may be experiencing premenstrual syndrome. An appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client is

a. “How often are your menstrual periods?”
b. “Do you experience mood swings or bloating?”
c. “Are you experiencing regular menstrual cycles?”
d. “How old were you when you began to menstruate?”

A

b. “Do you experience mood swings or bloating?”

214
Q

A 53-year-old client tells the nurse that she thinks she is starting the menopausal phase of her life. The nurse should instruct the client that she may experience

a. hot flashes.
b. increased appetite.
c. vaginal discharge.
d. urinary frequency.

A

a. hot flashes.

215
Q

During assessment of the vaginal area of an adult client, the client tells the nurse that she has had pain in her vaginal area. The nurse should further assess the client for

a. trauma.
b. cancer.
c. pregnancy.
d. infection

A

d. infection

216
Q

A female client tells the nurse that she has pain while urinating. Besides obtaining a urinalysis, the nurse should assess the client for

a. kidney trauma.
b. sexually transmitted disease.
c. tumors.
d. infestation.

A

b. sexually transmitted disease.

217
Q

An older adult client visits the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. The nurse should explain to the client that this is often due to

a. decreased urethral elasticity.
b. atrophy of the vaginal mucosa.
c. change in the vaginal pH.
d. decreased estrogen production.

A

a. decreased urethral elasticity.

218
Q

A female client has scheduled a physical examination, including a Pap smear. The nurse should instruct the client to

a. refrain from douching 48 hours before the examination.
b. bring in a urine sample for testing.
c. drink a large volume of fluid before the examination.
d. refrain from using talcum powder after her shower.

A

a. refrain from douching 48 hours before the examination.

219
Q

The nurse is preparing to perform a speculum examination on an adult woman. To lubricate the speculum before insertion, the nurse should use

a. sterile water.
b. K-Y jelly.
c. warm tap water.
d. petroleum jelly

A

c. warm tap water.

220
Q

The nurse is performing a speculum examination on an adult woman. The nurse is having difficulty inserting the speculum because the client is unable to relax. The nurse should ask the client to

a. bear down.
b. hold her breath.
c. use imagery to relax.
d. take a deep breath.

A

a. bear down.

221
Q

The nurse is assessing the genitalia of a female client and detects a bulging anterior wall in the vagina. The nurse should plan to refer the client to a physician for

a. stress incontinence.
b. rectocele.
c. tumor of the vagina.
d. cystocele.

A

d. cystocele.

222
Q

An older adult client visits the clinic for a gynecologic examination. The client tells the nurse
that she has been told that she has uterine prolapse. The nurse should further assess the client for

a. stress incontinence.
b. cystocele.
c. a retroverted uterus.
d. diastasis recti.

A

a. stress incontinence.

223
Q

While assessing the cervix of an adult client, the nurse observes a yellowish discharge from the cervix. The nurse should further assess the client for a/an

a. infection.
b. abnormal lesion.
c. positive pregnancy test result.
d. polyp.

A

a. infection.

224
Q

While performing a gynecologic examination, the nurse observes small, painful, ulcer-like lesions with red bases on the client’s labia. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. herpes simplex virus infection.
b. syphilis.
c. lice.
d. herpes zoster virus infection.

A

a. herpes simplex virus infection.

225
Q

While assessing the genitalia of a female client, the nurse observes moist fleshy lesions on the client’s labia. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. gonorrhea.
b. herpes simplex virus infection.
c. nabothian cysts.
d. genital warts.

A

d. genital warts.

226
Q

During a gynecologic examination, the nurse observes that the client has a yellow-green frothy vaginal discharge. The nurse should plan to test the client for possible

a. Trichomonas vaginalis infection.
b. bacterial vaginosis.
c. atrophic vaginitis.
d. Chlamydia trachomatis infection.

A

a. Trichomonas vaginalis infection.

227
Q

A client visits the clinic because she has missed one period and suspects she is pregnant. While assessing the client, the nurse detects a solid, mobile, tender, unilateral adnexal mass. The client’s cervix is soft. The nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing

a. normal pregnancy.
b. endometriosis.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. ectopic pregnancy.

A

d. ectopic pregnancy.

228
Q

A client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her stools have been pale for the past 2 days and her skin has been itching. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for

a. biliary disease.
b. cancer.
c. gastrointestinal infection.
d. hemorrhoids.

A

a. biliary disease.

229
Q

A client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her stools have been black for the past 3 days. The nurse should assess the client for

a. gallbladder disease.
b. colitis.
c. polyps.
d. gastrointestinal bleeding.

A

d. gastrointestinal bleeding.

230
Q

The nurse is planning to inspect the anal area for an adult female client. To assess for any bulges or lesions, the nurse should ask the client to

a. hold her breath.
b. breathe deeply through her mouth.
c. breathe normally.
d. bear down

A

d. bear down

231
Q

While assessing the anus of an adult client, the nurse detects redness and excoriation. The nurse determines that this sign is most likely due to

a. intestinal hemorrhoids.
b. an anorectal fistula.
c. a fungal infection.
d. previous surgery.

A

c. a fungal infection.

232
Q

While assessing the anus of an adult client, the nurse detects thee presence of small nodules. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible

a. polyps.
b. anorectal fistula.
c. hemorrhoids.
d. rectocele.

A

a. polyps.