First night Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

Hepatitis B antigens

A

HBsAg
HBsAc
HBeAg

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2
Q

Chronic hepatitis B

A

HBsAg +
Anti HBc +
IgM anti HBc -

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3
Q

Acute hepatitis B

A

HBsAg +
Anti HBC +
IgM anti HBC +

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4
Q

Immune with vaccine to hep B

A

HBsAg -
Anti HBc +
Anti HBs -
IgM anti HBc -

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5
Q

Immune with infection du hep B

A

HBsAG -
Anti HBs +
Anti HBc +
IgM anti HBC -

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6
Q

Intoxication qui cause mydriase (SAW)

A

Sympathomimétique
Anticholinergique
Withdrawal

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7
Q

Intoxication qui cause myose (COPS)

A

Cholinergique, clonidine, carbamate
Opioides, organophosphate
Phenothiazines (antipsychotique)
Sedative/hypnotique

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8
Q

Toxidrome cholinergique (DUMBELLS)

A

Diarrhée/diaphorèse
Urinate
Myose
Bradycardie
Emesis
Léthargie
Lacrimation
Salivation

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9
Q

Anticholinergic toxidrome

A

Can’t see (blurry vision)
Can’t pee (urinary retention)
Can’t shit (constipation)
Can’t spit (dry mouth)
Hot as a hare (flushed)

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10
Q

Ostéoporose - le test diagnostic de choix

A

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of the lumbar spine and hips is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis.
Measures bone mineral density (BMD) at key fracture-prone sites.
Used to calculate T-score (osteoporosis = T-score ≤ -2.5).

Quantitative calcaneal ultrasonography → Screening tool only, not diagnostic.

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11
Q

Test to screen osteoporosis

A

quantitative calcaneal ultrasonography

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12
Q

monitoring test for osteoporosis

A

biochemical markers of bone turnover

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13
Q

HIGH YIELD OSTEOPOROSIS - postmenopausal women >= 65 years OR younger women with risk factors should be screened with

A

central DXA (spine and hip)

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14
Q

Évaluation pré-op: quand/combien de temps est-ce qu’il faut arrêter le metoprolol en pré-op?

A

JAMAIS L’ARRÊTER
- diminue le risque cardiaque en péri-op
- augmente le risque de complication comme crise hypertensive et tachycardie

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15
Q

Medial and lateral epicondylitis mnemonic

A

TENnis elbow = lateral = exTENsor origin

goLFEr elbow = medial = FLExor origin

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16
Q

Tennis elbow - high yield

A
  • lateral elbow
  • pain over lateral epicondyle
  • wrist extension

TENnis = exTENsion

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17
Q

Golfer elbow - high yield

A
  • medial elbow
  • hurts t medial epicondyle
  • wirst flexion

goLF = FLexion

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18
Q

The definitive test to differentiate septic from non-septic olecranon bursitis is _______________.

A

Aspiration with synovial fluid analysis (WBC count, Gram stain, culture)

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19
Q

The most common infectious organism responsible for septic olecranon bursitis is _______________.

A

Staph aureus

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20
Q

First-line treatment for non-septic olecranon bursitis includes conservative measures such as _______________, _______________, and _______________.

A

Rest, compression, NSAIDs

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21
Q

In suspected septic olecranon bursitis, empiric antibiotic therapy should cover _______________.

A

Methicillin-sensitive and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA & MRSA)

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22
Q

A chronic or refractory case of olecranon bursitis that does not respond to medical treatment may require _______________.

A

Surgical bursectomy

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23
Q

The classic clinical presentation of olecranon bursitis includes _______________ , _______________, and _______________.

A
  • posterior elbow swelling
  • mild or no pain
  • erythema/warmth/tenderness
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24
Q

The most common symptom of Meckel’s diverticulum is _______________.

A

Painless rectal bleeding

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25
Meckel's diverticulum is caused by an incomplete obliteration of the _______________.
Vitelline duct
26
The most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum is _______________.
Intestinal obstruction
27
The imaging study of choice to diagnose Meckel's diverticulum in a symptomatic patient is _______________.
Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan (Meckel's scan)
28
Meckel's diverticulum can contain ectopic tissue, such as _______________, _______________, or _______________.
Gastric, pancreatic, or intestinal tissue
29
The most common cause of necrotizing pancreatitis is _______________.
Gallstones (cholelithiasis)
30
The hallmark laboratory finding in necrotizing pancreatitis is a serum amylase level greater than _______________.
1000 IU/L
31
The imaging modality of choice for diagnosing necrotizing pancreatitis is _______________.
CT of the abdomen with contrast
32
In patients with necrotizing pancreatitis, intravenous antibiotics are indicated if there is suspected _______________.
Infected pancreatic necrosis
33
The most important initial management in a patient with necrotizing pancreatitis includes _______________ and supportive care.
Fluid resuscitation
34
A common complication of necrotizing pancreatitis is the development of a _______________.
Pseudocyst
35
The main diagnostic test used to confirm heart failure and assess ejection fraction is _______________.
Echocardiogram
36
The most common cause of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is _______________.
Coronary artery disease
37
The most important first-line treatment for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is _______________.
ACE inhibitors or ARBs
38
In heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), .................. like metoprolol succinate are indicated to improve survival and prevent arrhythmias
beta-blockers
39
The hallmark physical exam finding in heart failure is _______________.
Peripheral edema
40
The Framingham criteria for heart failure diagnosis include symptoms such as _______________ and signs such as _______________.
Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles on auscultation, elevated jugular venous pressure, cardiomegaly
41
In patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction, the addition of _______________ has been shown to improve outcomes by blocking the effects of aldosterone.
spironolactone
42
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is characterized by an ejection fraction of _______________ and symptoms such as _______________.
≥50% dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and fatigue
43
In acute heart failure exacerbation, the initial treatment includes _______________ and _______________ to relieve symptoms.
Diuretics, nitrates
44
The goal of treatment in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction is to _______________ and _______________.
Reduce symptoms, improve survival
45
The condition with the strongest association with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is _______________.
Smoking
46
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is strongly associated with the presence of _______________ due to its effects on retinal vascular health.
Hypertension
47
The risk of developing age-related macular degeneration (AMD) increases in patients with a history of _______________ use.
Smoking
48
In patients with macular degeneration, the use of _______________ has been shown to potentially worsen the condition due to its impact on oxidative stress and inflammation.
alcohol
49
Type 2 diabetes mellitus increases the risk of age-related macular degeneration (AMD) through its effect on _______________.
Microvascular changes and retinal ischemia
50
In hypothalamic amenorrhea, the cause of absent menses is often due to a suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in low levels of both FSH and LH, typically seen in cases of ________ or excessive ________.
stress, exercise
51
Ovarian insufficiency (premature ovarian failure) is characterized by high levels of FSH and LH, but low levels of ________. It typically leads to the cessation of ________ before age 40.
estrogen, menstruation
52
A pituitary microadenoma, especially if it is a prolactinoma, can result in elevated levels of ________, which can suppress the secretion of FSH and LH, leading to ________.
prolactin, amenorrhea
53
In polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), the hormonal imbalance commonly presents with elevated levels of LH relative to FSH, causing ________ and irregular menstrual cycles. It is often associated with ________ and insulin resistance.
anovulation, hirsutism
54
Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder characterized by the absence of ________. It typically presents with high levels of FSH and LH due to ________ failure, and is often associated with ________ stature and ________ characteristics.
one X chromosome (45,X), ovarian, short stature, absent sexual
55
In a subdural hemorrhage, blood accumulates between the dura mater and the ___________.
arachnoid mater
56
A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage often presents with a sudden, severe headache described as the "worst headache of their life," and a common cause is the rupture of a ___________.
cerebral aneurysm
57
A subgaleal hemorrhage is typically seen in newborns after a ___________ delivery, where bleeding occurs between the scalp and the galea aponeurotica.
forceps-assisted
58
A convex lens-shaped hematoma on a CT scan is characteristic of an ___________ hemorrhage, which typically results from arterial bleeding, often due to trauma.
epidural
59
A meningioma is a benign tumor that arises from the ___________ layer of the meninges, often presenting as a well-defined, contrast-enhancing mass on imaging.
arachnoid
60
In epidural hemorrhage, the most common artery involved is the ___________ artery, which can be torn due to trauma.
middle meningeal
61
In epidural hemorrhage, a lucid interval often occurs after the initial trauma, where the patient temporarily improves before worsening due to ___________.
increased intracranial pressure
62
A subdural hemorrhage is typically associated with venous bleeding from the ___________ veins, which bridge the dura mater and the brain.
cortical
63
On a CT scan, a subdural hemorrhage appears as a ___________ collection of blood, typically located between the ___________ and the brain.
concave (crescent-shaped) dura mater
64
The most common clinical presentation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage is a sudden onset of a severe headache, commonly referred to as the "__________ headache."
worst
65
In subdural hemorrhages, the risk of development increases in elderly individuals and those who are on ___________ due to the increased likelihood of falls and brain atrophy.
anticoagulants and that consume alcohol
66