First Responder Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
goals of first responder training are to teach you how to:
A
- Evaluate, stabilize, and treat patients
-improvise
-Assist EMT’s
2
Q
Goal of first responder as a police officer
A
Apply medical assistance until other first responders arrive.
3
Q
What can result in a stressful med call?
A
-Patient resembles family/friend
-young/old
-unusual situation/tragedy
4
Q
Signs of stress
A
depression, sleep loss, weight fluctuation, vice abuse, eating and sex drive drop
5
Q
Keys to officer safety
A
acknowledge hazards and recognize how to handle them
6
Q
BSI
A
Body Substance Isolation
7
Q
Hepatitis B
A
vaxxed for it, either acute or chronic
tell: Jaundice (yellow eyes)
8
Q
Hepatitis A
A
affects liver
9
Q
Hepatitis C
A
can lay dormat for years
10
Q
HIV/AIDS
A
Extremely hard to get, but fatal. (LESS THAN 1%)
weakens immune system through the blood, no cure.
11
Q
transmission types
A
contact (direct/indirect)
airborne
vectorborne
12
Q
Tuberculosis
A
- occurs in lungs
- fatal potential
- airborne
13
Q
MRSA
A
staph infection (skin)
14
Q
Precautions
A
- use proper gloves
- wash hands (sanitizer last resort)
- never touch a needle
15
Q
What product do you use to clean patrol equipment if contaminated with body fluid?
A
cavicide
16
Q
Exposure response
A
- thoroughly wash cuts/openings
-eyes = irrigate
-report to DICO officer
17
Q
3 most important aspects of moving patients
A
- analyze
- evaluate
- execute med. procedure(s)
18
Q
Goals of lifting/moving patients
A
-stabilize head and neck
- ONLY when necessary
- do no more harm
19
Q
Only times you should you move a patient
A
- in immediate danger
- ready for medical treatment/transportation
20
Q
what position should eyes be in relation to the spine
A
90 degree angle
21
Q
duty to act
A
proceed promptly and render proper emergency care
22
Q
What is the Standard Of Care?
A
expectation of police to act in medical situations
-treat with care, and as if you are EMS
23
Q
Expressed Consent (for treatment)
A
patient tells you or specifically signals physically
-must be of legal age
- rationality intact
24
Q
Informed Consent (for treatment)
A
patient understands and knows what is going on, willing.
25
Implied Consent (for treatment)
patient incapacitated, does not specifically refuse.
26
MOLST
personal form for a DNR, must be recorded and documented with someone present.
27
difference between DNR and MOLST
DNR done by family, MOLST by patient.
28
If you stop medical treatment before medical support arrives for transfer, it is called
Abandonment
29
Only ways to confirm death at scene (4)
-decapitation
-decomp
-rigor mortis
-dependent lividity
30
Breach of duty and tasks that result in injuries or proximate effects
Negligence
31
Confidentiality
The majority of patient info, can only be shared with other medical professionals working with you.
32
what legal act ensured confidentiality for patients
HIPAA (1996)
33
Good Samaritin Law
Person tries to resuscitate/revive IN GOOD FAITH AND WITHOUT COMPENSATION is not liable to legal action
34
in 2014, who was included in the Good Samaritin Law?
off duty first responders
35
Verbal Handoff Report
transfer document used to tell EMS the basic info of patient as well as the details of what happened.
36
Service Animals
Not pets, are usually treated at human standards for accessibility and treatment purposes.
37
Americans with Disabilities Act
reinforced the use of service animals
38
In documenting medical scenes, what is the most important thing to write/report?
Condition of patient
39
2 aspects of airway management
1) Airway care
2) Rescue breathing
40
When resuscitating someone, always look for
chest rise and fall
41
best way to ventilate a patient
2 person BVM technique
42
When do you use an oral airway?
When someone is unconscious
43
D.O.T.S.
Deformities, Open wounds, Tenderness, Swelling
44
Emergency situations start with
the police
45
Altered Mental states(APVU)
Alert
Verbal
Pain
Unresponsive
46
what causes unconsciousness
shock, low O2, low heart rate, infections and strokes.
47
Seizure
"Brain short circuit" that is uncontrollable, last a couple minutes and DISABLES BREATHING
48
10 major risks of heart failure
diabetes
hypertension
high cholestrol
high stress
obesity
smoking
fam history
being over 30 and male
alcohol
49
what condition primarily leads to heart attacks?
atherosclerosis
50
angina
When scale of blood flow is imbalanced
condition that comes and goes, no blood flow from exertion
51
Angina is NOT
a heart attack
52
treatment for angina
nirtoglycerin
53
Congestive Heart Failure
heart fails to pump blood (arteries clog)
main sign is "gurgling"
54
Shortness of Breath
adminsiter O2 and always check if airway is clear.
55
COPD
Asthma, narrowing of airway passages.
smoking is top cause, caused by infection, excercise, and allergies
wheezing is the top sign
56
Stroke
blockage (clot) and stops blood flow
must act fast, tested by MA arm raise system. (if one arm drops or is lopsided, clear signification)
57
4 methods of substance abuse
ingested, inhaled, injected or absorbed
58
Ingested SA/P
80% of time
abdominal, refer to poison control
59
Inhalation SA/P
through lungs
i.e. carbon monoxide, chlorine gas/amonia
60
Injected SA/P
bites and shooting up
bee stings considered posion
61
how to manage absorbed posions/substances
brush before wash
irrigate/wash for 20 mins
62
What percent of US are substance abusers?
8.9% (2.2 million)
63
Most common abused substance?
Alcohol
causes delirium tremens
64
amphetamines
hits central nervous system
65
barbitures
depressant (tranquilizers, opiated)
66
halucinogens
brain
PCP LSD peyote
67
methamphetamine
speeds system via pill OR powder
68
What epipen dosage is used for adults?
0.3 mg (yellow)
69
What epipen dosage is used for kids?
0.15 mg (green, anyone under 3 yrs old and 66 lbs)
70
how long must you hold down an epipen?
10 seconds
71
what is the purpose of Narcan?
counteracts narcotics by replacing the drug in the brain sensors (video example)
72
Average dose of Narcan
4.0 mg, works in 1-3 minutes
73
too much narcan can cause...
withdrawals
74
Fentanyl
synthetic that is 80-100 TIMES MORE POTENT than heroin.
2 MILLIGRAMS can kill anyone
75
Shock
state of collapse of the cardiovascular system that results in inadequate delivery of blood
AKA
Inadequate Tissue Perfusion
76
2 types of fluid loss
external and internal
77
external fluid loss
is apparent
78
internal fluid loss
cannot be seen but there can be obvious signs (i.e. bruising)
79
how much blood does the human body contain
12 pints or 5.7 L
80
how many lost liters does it take to go into shock?
2
81
number 1 priority of fluid loss
stop bleeding asap
82
3 types of bleeding
capillary, venous and arterial
83
how can you tell if there is arterial bleeding?
gushes out every heart beat
84
what spots can you place turniquets
2 brachial and 2 femoral
85
closed wounds
skin remains intact
could be a sign of soft tissue damage/fracture
86
open wounds
punctures, avulsions, and lacerations
87
lacerations
most common open wound
88
avulsions
"tear away of skins"
89
traumatic amputation
if an entire body part undergoes an avulsion
90
3 goals of dressing wounds
control bleeding
stop contamination
immobilize
91
difference between dressing and bandages
dressing covers the entire wound
bandage keeps in place
92
how do you treat an eye injury?
lie patient on back and cover eye, both if impalement
93
neumothorax
air in chest
94
hemothorax
blood in chest
95
closed abdominal wounds
direct blow (look for bruising, shock, vomiting)
96
if internals are outside of skin
never push back in
97
what causes the most deaths from gunshots?
internal bleeding
98
how do you treat gunshot wounds?
open airway, examine and control external bleeding
99
bites have a major risk oooooofff....
infection
100
burns are classified by
depth
101
1st Degree burns
superficial burns (ex. sunburns)
102
2nd Degree burns
partial thickness, luid/blister
103
3rd Degree burns
full thickness, loss of fluid
104
types of burns
thermal: heat
respiratory: airway
chemical: longer substance stays, the worse
electrical: major internal damage
105
How do you use combat gauze
place over the dressing and wrap the bandage around the gauze-filled holes
106
main purposes of bones?(3)
protects vital structures
assists in movement
produces red blood cells
107
how is the muscular system connected?
muscles are attached to bones by TENDONS, bones connected to each-other by LIGAMENTS
108
main 3 causes of musculoskeletal injuries
direct, indirect and twisting
109
a bone break that can either be open or closed
fracture
110
disslocation
disruption and torn ligaments
bones separate and causes nerve damage
111
sprain
joint injury via excessive ligament stretching
112
strain
sTretching or Tearing of muscle
113
three pillars of evaluating injuries
CSM
circulation
sensory
motor
114
what is the biggest concern with internal head injuries
swelling (via bleeding)
115
two signs of a major brain injury
raccoon eyes
battle's sign (behind ear)
116
keys to treating head injuries
stabilization and maintaining airway
117
biggest danger from facial injuries
airway obstruction
118
what spinal discs stop breathing if damaged
C3 C4 C5 (paralyzes diaphragm)
119
signs of spinal injury
bowel/bladder control gone, loss of sensation, numbness, priapism (forced hard on)
120
treating spinal injuries
maintain airway, neck neutral, motor circulation (MnM's)
121
flail chest
3+ ribs broken in at least 2 places
122
biggest problem with chest injuries
stops breathing
123
2 indicators of childbirth
crowning
frequency of contractions
124
where are eggs held
uterus
125
the baby forms in the
amniotic sac
126
what is the typical full term of a pregnancy
39 weeks- 40 weeks and 6 days.
127
how many stages of labor are there?
3
128
1st stage of labor
body prepares for birth, water breaks and contractions begin.
129
2nd stage of labor
birth
130
3rd stage of labor
after part, delivery of placenta
131
the placenta must come out ____________ after birth to prevent fatal bleeding
30 minutes or less
132
the first birth for a woman takes _______ than if they have had a child before
longer
133
what contraction is a sign that the baby is close?
less than 3 minutes total
134
you must elevate the patient's hips ________ before they give birth
2-4 inches
135
how far away should you cut the newborns umbilical cord?
at LEAST 6 inches
136
what defines a pre-me baby
3 weeks early
5 lbs under
137
what must you do if the baby is delivered before water breaks
tear bag, do NOT cut
138
what is the main problem with a breech birth?
stops breathing (since head is stuck)
139
what side must the baby be on
left
140
epiglotitis
fatal illness that affects ages 3-6
(sign is drooling)
141
crib death
spontaneous death of a 3w-7mo old
142
Pediatric trauma
#1 infant kiler
143
hwo should you deal and communicate with geriatric patients?
speak clearly, slowly and patiently
144
What happens to the immune system of a geriatric person
less likely to fight off disease
145
2 different types of respiratory diseases
chronic
acute
146
sometimes older people will have different _______________ from multiple ______________
medications, different doctors.
147
what is a common battle for older people
depression (due to end of life, losing spouse, lonliness)
148
What demographic is most suceptable to suicide
older men
149
dementia
AKA alzheimer's
impaired memory, behavior and thinking
150
Helicopter blades spin at what rate and how far off the ground
300 rpm and four feet off the ground
151
ideal landing zone size for helicopters
100' x 100'
152
when entering a helicopter, it is important to
wear eye pro
approach from the front
secure loose clothing
153
