Fiser: Subspecialties (urology, ortho, gyn) Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

which nerve is most at risk for injury in the lithotomy position?

A

peroneal

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2
Q

anterior to posterior of renal structures?

A
renal vein (anterior)
renal aa
renal pelvis (posterior)
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3
Q

which renal vein can be ligated?

A

the left can b ligated from the IVC 2/2 increased collaterals

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4
Q

what is the most common type of kidney stone?

A

calcium oxalate

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5
Q

which type of kidney stone do pts get who have had their TI resected?

A

calcium oxalate: due to increased oxalate absorption in colon

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6
Q

what are and what causes struvite stones?

A

magnesium ammonium phosphate stones, cause staghorn calculi, occur w infections (proteus mirabilis) that are urease producing

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7
Q

which kidney stones are radiolucent?

A

uric acid and cysteine

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8
Q

which patients (3) are more at risk for uric acid stones?

A
  • ileostomies, gout and myelopoliferative disorders
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9
Q

what drug is used to prevent cysteine stones?

A

tiopronin

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10
Q

how do you resect testicular cancer?

A

inguinal incision- scrotal incisions will disrupt the lymphatics

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11
Q

what level correlates with testicular ca tumor bulk ?

A

LDH

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12
Q

MC types of testicular ca

A

germ cell: seminoma and non-seminoma (90%)

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13
Q

diagnosis and management of seminoma

A
  • 10% have elevated b-hcg, do NOT hav elevated AFP

ALL get orchiectomy and retroperitoneal XRT

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14
Q

diagnosis and management of non-seminoma testicular ca

A
  • 90% have elevated AFP and B-HCG
    ALL get orchiectomy and RP LN dissection
    Stage 2 or greater: Chemo
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15
Q

what chemotherapy agents do you give in testicular ca?

A

cisplatin, bleomycin, VP-16

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16
Q

how do you proceed when you get stage I prostate ca after a TURP?

A

nothing else

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17
Q

when do you give XRT and androgen ablation in prostate ca?

A

extracapsular invasion (T3+) or metastatic disease

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18
Q

1 primary tumor of the kidney

A

RCC

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19
Q

when can you perform wedge resection of metastatic RCC?

A

isolated lung or colon mets

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20
Q

MC location of RCC mets?

A

lung

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21
Q

1 tumor of the kidney

A

mets from breast ca

22
Q

when do you perform a partial nephrectomy in RCC?

A

in patients who would otherwise require HD after nephrectomy, tumor <4cm and Cr >2.5

23
Q

what is von-hippel lindau syndrome?

A

multifocal and recurrent RCC, renal cysts, CNS tumor and pheochromocytomas

24
Q

risk factors for transitional cell ca of bladder?

A

smoking, aniline dyes, cyclophosphamide

25
what is T2 transitional bladder cancer and how do you manage?
T2 invades into muscle wall, manage w cystectomy w ileal conduit, chemo (MVAC: methotrexate, vinblastine, adriamycin, cisplatin) and XRT
26
squamous cell ca of bladder is related to what?
schistosomiasis infection
27
what layer hypertrophies in BPH?
transitional zone
28
initial therapy of BPH?
alpha blockers: terazosin, doxazosin (relax smooth muscle) | 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors: finasteride
29
MOA finasteride
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors | inhibits conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, inhibits prostate hypertrophy
30
MC complication of TURP
retrograde ejaculation
31
how does left RCC cause a varicocele?
left gonadal vein inserts into left renal vein and obstruction of vein by renal tumor can lead to varicocele
32
what is the MC urinary tract abnormality?
ureteral duplication
33
what is MC primary cancer of the vagina?
squamous cell CA
34
what does diethylstilbestrol cause? (DES)
clear cell ca of vagina
35
what is botryoides?
rhabdosarcoma that occurs in young girls
36
management of vulvar cancer?
MC squamous cell CA <2cm = stage 1, WLE and ipsilateral node dsxn w 2cm margins >2cm = stage II or greater, radical vulvectomy w bilateral inguinal node dsxn, post op XRT if margins <1cm
37
which type of ovarian cancer has the worst prognosis?
clear cell type
38
stages of ovarian ca?
stage I: one or both ovaries only II: limited to pelvis III: throughout abdomen IV: distant
39
what is meige's syndrome?
pelvic ovarian fibroma that causes ascites and hydrothorax (excision of tumor cures syndrome)
40
where does cervical ca mets to first?
obturator nodes
41
what is postpartum pelvic thrombophlebitis? tx?
can lead to ovarian vein, IVC, and hepatic vein thrombosis get liver failure w ascites after pregnancy tx: heparin and abx
42
where does cartilage receive its nutrients from?
synovial fluid (osmotic)
43
what is the salter-harris classification?
classification of epiphyseal injuries: type I and II: closed reduction types III, IV, V: ORIF, cross the epiphyseal plate and can affect the growth
44
whats a jone's fractue?
fx of 5th metatarsal, assoc w nonunion
45
which fx is assoc w avascular necrosis?
scaphoid, femoral neck, talus and hip dislocation
46
fx associated w compartment syndrome?
supracondylar humerus, tibia, calcaneus
47
biggest risk factor for nonunion?
smoking
48
injury assoc w anterior shoulder dislocation?
axillary nerve injury (closed reduction)
49
injury assoc w posterior shoulder dislocation?
axillary artery injury (seen in seizures and electrocution)
50
management of supracondylar humeral fracture in adults vs children?
adults: ORIF children: nondisplaced = closed reduction, displaced = ORIF
51
what is a colles fracture?
fall onto outstretched hand, distal radius fx -> closed reduction
52
what is monteggia's fx?
proximal ulnar fx and radial head dislocation | tx: ORIF