Flash cards
(144 cards)
1
Q
Are warning messages always visible at the top of the CAS message list?
A
Yes
2
Q
How many chimes for a warning message?
A
Three (triple-chime)
3
Q
Are some warning messages inhibited during takeoff?
A
Yes
Takeoff (8) - APU OVERTEMP, AV BAY OVHT, BRAKE OVERHEAT, CABIN ALT, CABIN DELTA P, FLT CTL DIRECT, GEAR, NORMAL BRAKE FAIL
Landing (3) - AV BAY OVHT, CABIN ALT, CABIN DELTA P
4
Q
When are CAS messages no longer inhibited during takeoff?
A
Aircraft at or above 400’ baro above takeoff altitude or
25 seconds after weight-off-wheels or
airspeed less than 50 kts in the event of an RTO
5
Q
When are CAS messages no longer inhibited during landing?
A
Airplane is weight-on-wheels for 25 seconds or
airspeed is less than 50 kts or
airplane climbs above 200’ AGL during a go-around
6
Q
Are some caution messages not inhibited during takeoff or landing?
A
Yes (20)- AURAL CH 1-2 FAIL, AURAL CH 1-2 OFF, EMER DEPRESS ON, EMER LIGHTS OFF, EMERGENCY DESCENT, FD MODE CHANGE, FLT CTRL DIRECT ADS, FLIGHT CTRL DIRECT IRS, GEAR DISAGREE, HYD 1-2 LO PRESS, HYD 1-3 LO PRESS, HYD 2-3 LOW PRESS, ICE DET RANGE LIMIT, L ELEVATOR FAIL, L REVERSER LOCK FAIL, L SIDESTICK, R ELEVATOR FAIL, R REVERSER UNLOCK, R SIDESTICK,
7
Q
When aural warnings are muted, can they still be heard in headphones?
A
Yes
8
Q
What occurs if autopilot is engaged with no active FD modes?
A
ROLL and FPA modes will activate
9
Q
Under which conditions does the autopilot automatically disconnect?
A
Flight control reversion to direct mode, if any AP fault is detected
10
Q
When will EDM automatically activate?
A
Autopilot engaged, cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500’, aircraft altitude greater than 25,000’
11
Q
What is the maximum operating altitude?
A
51,000’
12
Q
What is the length of the Global 7500?
A
111’ 2” (33.88m)
13
Q
What is the wingspan of the Global 7500?
A
104’ (31.71m)
14
Q
What is the height of the Global 7500?
A
27’ (8.24m)
15
Q
What is the maximum ramp weight?
A
115,100 lb (52,208kg)
16
Q
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A
114,850 lb (52,095kg)
17
Q
What is the maximum landing weight?
A
87,600 lb (39,735kg)
18
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A
67,500 lb (30,617kg)
19
Q
What is the maximum baggage load?
A
2,500 lb (1,134 kg)
20
Q
What is the maximum fuel weight?
A
51,850 lb (23,500 kg)
21
Q
What type of engine?
A
GE Passport 20-19BB1A
22
Q
What is the thrust rating of the engine?
A
18,920 lb at sea level ISA+15
23
Q
When is APU door position shown on the SERVICE synoptic?
A
When APU inlet door fails to fully open
24
Q
From where is fuel normally supplied to the APU?
A
Right wing collector tank
25
What is APU bleed air used for?
ECS, engine starting, fuel tank inerting
26
What happens when the APU is selected OFF?
1 minute cool down period followed by shutdown
27
What conditions trigger an APU emergency shutdown in flight?
Failure of both speed sensors or an actual overspeed
28
How can frequencies be tuned?
CTP
CNS
Graphically
From charts
29
How can the cursor be controlled?
CCP and MKP arrows
30
What happens to the PFD on DU1 if the DU fails?
It moves to DU2
31
When will an open large service door trigger a caution CAS message?
With one engine running
32
When will an open small service door trigger a caution CAS message?
One engine running and parking brake released
33
What are the three ways to close the passenger door?
Internal switch forward of the passenger door, exterior switch aft of the passenger door, manual closing device if motor failed
34
Where is the manual passenger door closing pull handling located?
On the door motor forward of the passenger door
35
What are the different types of electronic checklist?
Normal, non-normal, user-defined
36
What type of electrical power does the aircraft use?
115 VAC and 28 VDC
37
When does the RAT deploy?
Loss of all AC power in flight or when the RAT deployment handle is lifted
38
What is the function of the BATT LOADS switch?
Disconnects most electrical loads from the batteries
39
Where is the external ground power panel located?
On the lower body fairing forward of the right engine
40
Can one generator (VFG or APU) supply the entire electrical system?
Yes
41
What is the function of the EXT AC PBA on the overhead electrical panel?
Connects and disconnects external AC power to the aircraft
42
On the electrical overhead panel, what does a cyan AVAIL indication on the EXT AC PBA indicate?
External AC power is connected to the aircraft and is capable of supplying up to 60 kVA
43
What is the electrical output of a VFG?
115 VAC at 60 kVA continuous, 67.5 kVA for 5 mins, 75 kVA for 2 mins, 90 kVA for 5 seconds
44
What is the electrical output of the APU generator?
115 VAC at 60 kVA continuous, 67.5 kVA for 5 mins, 75 kVA for 2 mins, 90 kVA for 5 seconds
45
What is the load limit on the APU generator?
60 kVA up to 45,000 feet, 40 kVA up to 51,000 feet.
46
Above what altitude does the APU GCU allow only one AC hydraulic pump to operate?
43,000 feet
47
What is the electrical rating of the TRUs?
28 VDC at 300 amps up to 40,000 feet, 250 amps up to 51,000 feet
48
What is the purpose of the two PMGs?
Permanent Magnet Generators provide a secondary power source to the Fly By Wire Power Converters
49
What DC buses are powered by the TRUs and batteries?
MAIN BATT BUS, APU BATT BUS
DC ESS BUSS 1, DC ESS BUS 2
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2
50
When are the MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS powered?
At all times regardless of the position of the battery switches (when batteries are connected)
51
During bus isolation, when is power removed from the AC BUS 2?
When the R GEN PBA is selected OFF
52
In the event of a total loss of AC power, what is the source of emergency AC power?
RAT
53
When deployed and operating, at what speed does the RAT supply power to the AC ESS BUS via the ESS TRU?
147 knots
54
What is shed during power of high-power demand?
Non-essential electrical equipment
55
What does selecting the TRIP softkey on the CB page do?
Confirms the breaker tripped state, changes the state from TRIPPED to OUT and removes the CB TRIP message from the CAS if no other TRIP soft keys are active
56
What position must the CB CONFIG rotary switch be in prior to flight?
NORM
57
What is the thrust rating of the GE Passport 20 engine?
18,920 lbs at SL
58
What is the dedicated power source for the FADEC?
The Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA) attached to engine
59
How many channels does each FADEC have?
Two, each channel is supported by an EEC
60
How are the thrust reversers powered?
Hydraulically
61
What is the capacity of each engine oil tank?
11.6 qt
62
What is the function of the fuel/oil heat exchangers?
To heat fuel
63
When does the FADEC use both ignitors?
During airstarts, when the IGN PBA is selected to ON
64
Which parameter is used when calculating flex takeoff thrust?
Assumed outside air temperature
65
When the engines are in TO mode, if an engine fails, what mode does the remaining engine transition to?
Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)
66
What happens when an uncommanded thrust reverser deployment occurs?
L(R) THURST REVERSED UNLOCKED red CAS message, LEFT REVERSER UNLOCKED aural warning, red REV icon in the N1 gauge, Master warning, engine thrust automatically reduced to idle
67
In flight, what is the priority bleed source for airstarting?
The opposite engine
68
What happens when the TRIM AIR PBA is selected?
Trim air valves modulate open, the Hot Air Shutoff Valves (HASOV) close
69
Which control on the PRESSURISATION panel immediately closes the outflow valves?
OUTFLOW VALVE 1(2) PBAs
70
Up to what maximum cabin altitude can the cabin be depressurized when the EMER DEPRESS PBA is pressed?
14,500 feet
71
How can an O2 overpressure be detected?
Green blow out disc forward of the passenger door is missing
72
Which switch setting on the cockpit O2 masks provides a mix of ambient air and oxygen adjusted for cabin altitude?
N (normal)
73
When the PASSENGER OXYGEN rotary switch is set to NORMAL, at what altitude do the passenger oxygen masks automaticcally deploy?
14,500 feet
74
What flight control surfaces are hydraulically positioned by Power Control Units (PCU)s?
Rudder, elevator, ailerons, spoilers
75
Are most structural protections lost in FBW DIRECT mode?
Yes
76
What indicates both sidesticks are being operating simultaneously?
DUAL INPUT aural warning, red DUAL message shown on both PFDs
77
What occurs when the sidestick AP/PTY pushbutton is pressed and held?
Momentary sidestick priority indicated by a green PTY annunciation on the glareshield SIDESTICK PBA and a "PRIORITY LEFT" or "PRIORITY RIGHT" aural message repeated three times
78
What do the three MFS pairs on each wing provide?
Roll assist, speed brake control, ground lift dumping
79
How is the horizontal stabiliser actuated?
Electromechanically
80
What bank angle requires continuous sidestick input?
Greater than 45 degrees
81
What are the nose up and nose down pitch limits?
17.5 degrees nose up on the ground, 30 degrees noseup in flight, 20 degrees nosedown
82
In FBW normal mode, what indications occur when airspeed is at or below VAOA SOFT?
Sticker shaker activates, pitch attitude automatically reduced to limit minimum speed
83
What occurs when FBW overspeed protection mode is active?
When 4 knots above VMAX, OVSPD appears in FMA, airspeed tape turns red, continuous chirp aural alert sounds
84
What compensation is automatically provided by the FBW during an engine failure?
Partial yaw compensation
85
Which flight controls provide feedback to the FBW system but are not controlled by it?
Slats and flaps
86
How are the flats and slats actuated?
Electrically
87
At what altitude above terrain is radar altitude displayed?
2,500 feet
88
What is the normal air data source for the left PFD?
ADS 1
89
What is the normal air data source for the ISI?
ADS 3
90
What is the backup air data source?
ADS 4
91
In the event of a failure or miscompare, does the air data source switch to the backup automatically?
No
92
What is required for the FBW to operate in normal mode?
An air data source, an inertial reference source, at least one PFCC
93
What are the normal mode pitch protections?
Load factor, pitch attitude, high AoA, overspeed, tail strike, elevator surface command limiting
94
What are the normal mode functions?
Pitch command and speed stability, pitch compensation in turns for bank angles up to 33 degrees, auto stab trim.
95
Reversion to direct mode may occur at what speed when the RAT is supplying AC electrical power?
110 knots
96
What are the characteristics of the FBW in ground mode?
Direct control of primary flight control surfaces, pitch trim controls the HSTAB, trim speed set to V2+10, pitch limit 17.5 degrees, stick shaker active above 60 knots and activates at 14.3 degrees AoA
97
Is the autopilot available in any DIRECT FBW mode?
No
98
What are the DIRECT FBW modes?
PFCC direct, REU direct, AFCU direct
99
How is the PFCC direct mode annunciated?
Amber DIRECT message on PFD, amber FLT CTRL DIRECT ADS or FLT CTRL DIRECT IRS message on CAS, DIRECT MODE on flight control synoptic page
100
How is the REU direct mode annuciated?
Amber DIRECT message on PFD, amber FLT CTRL DIRECT CAS message and 3 PFCC messages (FAIL or OFF), DIRECT MODE on flight control synoptic
101
How is the AFCU DIRECT mode annuciated?
Red DIRECT message on PFD,
102
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
75 ft (22.86m)
103
What is the maximum permitted tailwind for takeoff and landing?
10 knots
104
What is the maximum permitted tailwind for engine start?
20 knots
105
What is the normal configuration and speed for circling?
Flap 4, Vref+10 until final then Vref
106
What is the prioritization of handling checklist procedures from highest to lowest priority?
1. Emergency procedures
2. Normal procedures
3. Caution procedures
4. Advisory procedures
5. INFO messages during ground operations
107
What is VMO below 8000 feet?
300 knots
108
What are the turbulence penetration speeds?
265 knots from S.L to 8000 ft increasingly linearly to 285 knots at 10,000 ft
285 knots from 10,000 ft to 0.85 mach
109
What are the maximum and minimum ambient temperatures permitted for takeoff?
ISA +40 deg C to - 40 deg C
110
What is the takeoff procedure for crosswinds above 18 knots and wind more than 30 deg from the runway centreline?
1. Max 60% N1 below 30 kt
2. At 30 kt promptly set TO thrust
111
What is the maximum altitude for slats/flaps?
18,000 ft
112
What is the maximum altitude for operating with the landing gear extended?
20,000 ft
113
How many ACMP pumps may be operated on the ground while on APU or external power?
2
114
When in AUTO, when will ACMP 1B operate?
1. When the aircraft is in the takeoff or approach phase (gear or slats/flaps extended)
2. When EDP1A has failed or left engine not running (low pressure in system 1)
3. The PTU is operating and either EDP 2A has failed or the right engine is not running
115
When in AUTO, when will the PTU operate?
1. When the aircraft is in the takeoff or approach phase
2. EDP2A has failed
3. Right engine not running in flight
4. On the ground with the left engine running and parking brake released
116
What is the AC priority source for AC BUS 1 and 2?
1. Onside engine VFG
2. APU generator
3. External AC power
4. Opposite side VFG
117
What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?
22 VDC
118
How long will the aircraft batteries last as the sole source of power?
Minimum 5 minutes
119
If the RAT generator trips offline, how can it be reset?
By moving the RAT deployment handle to stow and back to the deploy position
120
How are the batteries charged?
By DC ESS BUS 1, there are no dedicated battery chargers
121
Are the MAIN and APU battery buses powered when the battery switches are selected OFF?
Yes
122
What components of the electrical system control and distribute AC power?
AC power centers (ACPCs)
123
How many AC power centers are there?
2
124
What controls distribution and routing of DC power?
DC power centers
125
How many DC power centers are there?
5 - DCEPC 1, DCECP 2, EMER EPC, MAIN BATT EPC, APU BATT EPC
126
Below what speed does the RAT generator go offline?
147 kt
127
If a generator is reset after the RAT has deployed, which buses will the RAT power?
AC ESS Bus
128
Where are the engine fire detection sensing elements located?
1. Accessory gearbox
2. Engine core
3. Fixed cowl
129
What 6 events occur when the L/R ENG FIRE PBA is pressed?
1. Firewall fuel SOV closes
2. Engine PRSOV closes
3. Hydraulic SOV closes
4. Generator taken offline
5. BTL 1 and BLT 2 PBAs illuminate green AVAIL to indicate armed
6. Ignition is disabled
130
What 5 events occur when the APU FIRE PBA is pressed?
1. APU firewall fuel SOV closes
2. APU fuel control unit shuts off fuel flow
3. APU generator taken offline
4. APU bleed control valve (BCV) closes
5. BTL 2 squib armed, AVAIL green PBA comes on
131
Does pressing the ENG FIRE PBA command an immediate engine shutdown?
No; the fire PBA closes the fuel feed SOV at the firewall, the engine will run for up to 20
seconds to empty the fuel line. Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch per the checklist
132
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, what is the automatic shutdown and extinguishing sequence
of events?
1. APU fire warning horn sounds outside of the airplane
2. APU BCV closes
3. FIDEEX triggers APU shutdown
4. Within 10 seconds of detection, BTL 2 discharges
133
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance for ground operations, and during takeoff and
landing?
600lb
134
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during flight?
1,100lb
135
At what level of fuel imbalance will the auto transfer system activate?
340lb on the ground
510lb in flight when the total fuel volume is over 16,000lb
136
When does FRTT (fuel-return-to-tank) automatically operate?
Above 30,000ft feet and wing fuel temperatures colder than -20ºC
137
When does FRTT stop?
Automatically closed when any fuel tank temp sensor is -5ºC or higher, or when the
altitude is below 30,000ft
138
When do the auxiliary DC fuel pumps automatically operate?
When low pressure is sensed at the AC fuel pump outlet
139
When does fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing inner tanks begin?
When inner wing tank quantities decrease to about 14,000lb
Continues until wing inner tanks reach full capacity (approximately 15,000lb)
140
When does fuel transfer from the aft tank to the wing inner tanks begin?
When either wing inner tank quantity decreases to 6,800lb
141
When will the wing outer tanks deplete into the wing inner tanks?
When wing inner tanks decrease to about 10,850lb
142
When is longitudinal CG control inhibited?
1. Pressing the CG CTRL PBA
2. When wing-to-wing transfer is automatically or manually initiated
3. When the fuel quantity of each wing inner tank reaches 10,850lb
143
What are the starter duty cycles?
Start attempts 1 and 2: 5 minutes ON, 5 minutes cool down between starts
Start attempts 3 through 10: 5 minutes ON, 15 minutes cool down between starts
144
