Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 3 > flash_3 > Flashcards

flash_3 Flashcards

(100 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What 2 conditions increase TBG

A

Increase estrogen, acute hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 4 conditions decrease TBG?

A

Androgenic hormones, high-dose glucocorticoids, hypoprotenemia, CLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Levothyroxyne dose with increased TBG

A

Needs to be increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When to start pharm treatment for osteoporosis?

A

T-score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to correct calcium for albumin?

A

Measured calcium + 0.8 x (4-albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What value is used to monitor treatment of thyroid

A

Total T3 and T4 since TSH changes after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When to give VitK for supratherapeutic INR

A

low dose if 4.5-10 with increased risk of bleeding or high dose if >10 with no serious bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Octreotide and sulfonylurea

A

In sulfonylurea poisoning, octreotide decreases insulin secretion by acting as somatostatin analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nelson’s syndrome

A

Adenoma seen in patients with high ACTH after removal of adrenals 2/2 Cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When to treat subclinical hypothyroid?

A

TSH>10, sympotmatic, + TPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Side effect of B12 supplementation if severe anemia?

A

Hypokalemia within the first 48hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Difference between Type 1 and MODY

A

MODY has strong family history and generally do not develop ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatments associated with pseudomotor cerebri

A

Isotretinoin and minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Metabolic disarray associated with SCC of the lung

A

hypercalcemia (PTHrp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Charact of MEN disorders

A

1) Hyperpara, pancreas, pituitary 2A) Med thyroid, pheo, parathyroid 2B)marfanoid, MTC, pheo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Differences in orders of dyphagia

A

Both at first = neuromuscular; first solid and then liquid= mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Toxicity of anthracyclines

A

Dose-dependent decline in EF leading to dilated CM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment of thyroid nodules

A

Surgery is preferred but need to be euthyroid before procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How to reverse warfarin immediately?

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate (vitamin K dependent clotting factors that reverses immediately) + Vitamin K (takes 12-24hours for effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

First step after diagnosis of thyroid papillary cancer

A

US of neck and cervical lymph node for staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Surgeries for papillary thyroid CA

A

<1cm= lobectomy; >1cm = total thyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What rises first with iron supplementation

A

Reticulocyte count—> Hgb/Hct within 1month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

First step in patients diagnosed with H&N cancer?

A

Chemo and radiation (usually advanced by time of dx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What to biopsy if concern for metastasis?

A

A site of mets (mostly lymphnodes supraclavicular because they are easy to access)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Metabolic disarray in adrenal insuff
hyponatremia, hyperkalemia and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
26
EPO level in polycythemia vera
Low
27
When to start IVIg for Itp
If platelets <30 or mucosal bleeding noticed
28
Charact of CLL
Usually >70yo, lymphocytosis, can be asymptomatic
29
Bad prognosis in CLL
lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly and anemia/thrombocytopenia
30
PEF in mild and severe asthma exacerbation
mild-mod: 40-69%; severe <40%
31
When to start HIV meds after dx of meningitis?
2-10 weeks
32
How long to treat cryptococcal meningitis?
About 2 weeks w/ amphotericin and flucytosine, then 8 weeks of high-dose fluc and then 1 year maintenance with low-dose fluc
33
Centor criteria and treshold for test
1) tonsillar exudate 2) absence of cough 3) fever 4) tender anterior cervical LN (test if 3 or more)
34
Charact of epididymitis
Scrotl pain, swelling and tenderness, better with elevation
35
Non infectious fluids for HIV
Urine, feves, vomitus, tears
36
Post extubation stridor is sign of…
Laryngeal edema and should be re-intubated
37
Diagnosis of TB in patients with advance HIV usually require what?
pleural biopsy
38
Hydrophobia
Rabies
39
Who gets lung CT screning?
Patients 50-80 with >20pack-year hx and current smokers or quit <15 years ago
40
Treatment of Giardia
Tinidazole
41
Difference between entamoeba hystolitica and hydatid cysts
Echinococcus cysts usually take years to cause symptoms and usually don't cause fevers if not ruptured
42
Treatment of prostatitis
Bactrim or FQN for 6 weeks
43
Most common cause of erythema multiforme?
HSV
44
Charact of antifreese toxicity
severe AG metabolic acidosis, resulting in Kussmaul (rapid and deep breathing) respirations
45
Treatment of antifreeze ingestions
Fomepizole
46
When is elective repair of AAA recommended?
If large (>5.5cm) or rapidly enlarging (>0.5cm in 6m onths) or associated with PAAD or aneurysm
47
Immune response in ABPA
Vigourous IgE and IgG response
48
Main difference between cardiac contusion and flail chest?
Flail chest has tachypnea and vitals can be seen
49
Normal nutrition diet?
30kcal/kg/day and 1g/kg/day
50
Treatment of alopecia areata
Topical or intralesional corticosteroids
51
Treatment of keloids
Intralesional glucocorticoids
52
Bug that causes otitis-conjunctivitis syndrome
Nontypeable H. influenzae
53
Calcification in pulmonary nodule that is still benign?
Popcorn calcification
54
How long can OM effusions last in tympanic membrane?
3 months (NTD unless ongoing xs)
55
Most common complication of transurethral resectionof prostate
Retrograde ejaculation
56
When to take out coin if kid ingested it?
if >24hours or unknown timing. If <24hours can check Xrays in 12-24hours
57
Modifiable risk factors for C. diff
Antibiotic use, PPI
58
Diagnosis of Cdiff- associated diarrhea criteria
Watery diarrhea (>3 loose sttol in 24hrs) +/- abd pain, fever, leukocytosis AND positive stool testing
59
Causes of low SAAG ascites <1.1
Peritoneal carcinomatosis, TB, nephrotic syndrome, pancreatitis, serositis
60
Significant Cr increase after ACE is suggestive of…
Renal artery stenosis
61
What is pylephlebitis?
Infective suppurative portal vein thrombosis that results as complication of intraabdominal infections
62
S+S of celiac disease
Large volume, foul smelling stools, flatulences, weight loss, microcytic anemia
63
Abdominal pain and B Syptoms in untreated celiac disease
Enteropathy -associated T-cell lymphome (EATL) (malignancy of proximal jejunum)
64
Crystals in gout vs pseudogout
Pseudo positively birefringent, rhomboid crystals/ Gout: Negatively birefringent
65
Treating gout in renal failure or transplant
Low-dose colchicine and systemic and intra-articular glucocorticoids
66
Gastritis associated with pernicious anemia
Autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis (AMAG)
67
Endoscopy findings in AMAG
glandular atrophy (of body and fundus), intestinal metaplasia and inflammation
68
Treatment of diarrhea after cholecystectomy
Bile salt-binding resins (ie. Cholestyramine)
69
What other sign is usually associated with Boerhaave?
Left sided pleural effusion
70
Complication of compartment syndrome
Rhabdo and acute kidney failure from myoglobin
71
IgA nephropathy presentation
Hematuria within days of URI, renal insufficiency, HTN
72
Indications for ureteral stone removal
>10, persistent pain, acute renal failure, UTI
73
GERD complication that causes dysphagia with solids
Peptic stricture
74
When do you need larger sample sizes?
With increased power or when diffferences between 2 groups are small
75
Appropiate estimate of effect in RCTs when many subjects are loss to f/u?
Intention to treat analysis
76
Equation for NPV
True negative/ (True negatives + False negativees)
77
Equation of Relative Risk
Risk of outcome in exposed grou/ risk in nonexposed group
78
What is a ROC curve
Receiver-operating charaacteristic curve plots
79
Best AUC in a ROC curve
1= 100% on both; 0.5= 50/50
80
Incidence ratio equation
IR= (#new cases during a period)/(total of person-times contributed by at-risk population
81
When to use odds ratio
Association in case-control and cross-sectional studies
82
What helps rul eOUT a diagnosis
High sensitive tests (SnOUT)
83
Positive likelihood ratio equation
Postive LR= sensitivity/ 1- specificity
84
Negative LR equation
Negative LR= 1-sensitivity/specificity
85
When are conficence intervals statistically significant?
When they dod not overlap
86
Type I error
Rejecting null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
87
Factorial study design
Uses > than 2 interventions and all combinations of these interventions
88
Crossover study
Sequential exposure to different treatment arms
89
Nested study
Retrospective observational study in which subsets of cnotrols are matches to cases
90
Odd ratio equation
Odd of exposed/odds of non exposed or ad/bc
91
Equation of NNH
NNH= 1/ARI (Abs risk increase); ARI= Risk of disease among exposed - risk of disease amon non-exposed
92
Equation for NNT
NNT= 1/ ARR (ARR= risk of disease in non exposed - risk in exposed)
93
What is a net clinical benefit (NCB)
Benefits - harm
94
Why are ITT analyses done?
To preserve randomization and analyze groups based on orignical randomized groups
95
Common cause of recurrent cases of cellulitis
Tinea pedis, need to treat with antifungal
96
Charact of varicocele?
Soft scrotal mass that hides with supine position
97
Treatment of varicocele
Supportive if no sxs, gonadal vein ligation vs scrotal suport and NSAIDs (if older and no more children)
98
Single highest risk factor for pancreatic cancer
Smoking
99
Who gets ICD placement for primary prevention?
Prior MI and LVEF of <30, NYHA class II or III sxs and LVEF <35%
100
Shigella vs EHEC presentation
Shigella usually with fever and through contaminated water; EHEC: exposure to animals

Step 3 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions