Flashcards
1
Q
Breast tissue age is measured in years from
A
Menarche to menopause
2
Q
The most common breast symptom is
A
Painless mass
3
Q
A ____ mammography outcome can result in a delay in diagnosis and treatment
A
False negative
4
Q
The ____ pattern is the recommended search pattern for breast self exam
A
Linear
5
Q
The patient is instructed to remove all deodorant and powder from the axillary and breast region prior to the mammogram because it can mimic the appearance of suspicious
A
Microcalcifications
6
Q
The American College of radiology recommends that a woman of average risk begin annual mammography at the age of ____ and continue ____ for as long as the woman is in good health, expect to live at at least 5 to 10 years, and would seek treatment if a cancer were found
A
40/annually
7
Q
Approximately what percent of breast cancers are the result of inherited mutations and cancer susceptible genes?
(BRCA1and BRCA2)
A
5% to 10%
8
Q
A woman with a history of radiation therapy to the chest area for the treatment of cancer as a child or young adult significantly decreases or increases her risk of developing breast cancer
A
Increases
9
Q
Early menarche and menopause increase a woman’s risk of developing breast cancer because
A
Get results in an increased number of menstrual cycles and hormonal fluctuations during her lifetime
10
Q
BRCA1 and BRCA2 or referred to as tumor ______ genes because they help repair damage to DNA by producing proteins that prevent the tumor from growing abnormally
A
Suppressor
11
Q
What is the first chemo prevention drug approved by the FDA to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer?
A
Tamoxifen
12
Q
The Gail model is a risk prediction tool used by physicians to predict a women’s likelihood of developing future ____ breast cancer
A
Invasive
13
Q
Women who carry mutations of BRCA14 BRCA2 genes are at a higher risk of developing breast and ______ cancers when compared to women who do not carry the mutation
A
Ovarian
14
Q
The majority of women who developed breast cancer have risk factors or no known risk factors
A
No known risk factors
15
Q
What kind of palpable lump with what kind of margins is suspicious for malignancy?
A
Hard/irregular and fixed in place
16
Q
The clinical presentations of nipple, crusting, erosion, bleeding, and aerial changes are for what disease
A
Pagets disease of the breast
17
Q
Peau de’ orange and erythema to the skin of the breast represent our clinical indicators of what
A
Inflammatory breast cancer
18
Q
A small localized breast cancer diagnosed early on a screening mammogram likely to be treated with a
A
Lumpectomy and radiation therapy
19
Q
A small localized breast cancer diagnosed early on a screening mammogram likely to be treated with a
A
Lumpectomy and radiation therapy
20
Q
Brachytherapy delivers what kind of dose over a shorter period of time compared to traditional radiation therapy
A
A higher dose of radiation to a smaller area of the breast
21
Q
Targeted therapy for a monoclonal antibody decreases the risk of relapse for women with what kind of tumors
A
HER2-positive
22
Q
TRAM flap reconstruction create a new breast mound utilizing following mastectomy
A
Fat, skin and muscle from the lower abdomen
23
Q
According to the final regulations of the mammography quality standards act, what question must every mammography patient be asked before beginning the exam
A
Presence of implants
24
Q
When using my Clock method to identify the location of a breast lump 10 o’clock position in the right breast is located in which quadrant
A
Upper outer quadrant
25
Dense breasts are those placed in ACR BI-RADS category what
C and D
26
When is the optimal timing for self breast exams in menopausal patients
On the same day every month
27
Which of the following nipple, discharge fluids and/or colors is considered an increase suspicion for cancer
Sanguinous
28
What is the dose limit for a compressed 4.5 cm breast 50% fatty and 50% glandular breed according to the MQSA
3 mGy
29
What is the second highest incident cases of cancer in the United States according to the American cancer Society in 2020?
Lung and bronchus
30
What is the number 2 risk factor of breast cancer?
Advancing age
31
What part of the compression paddle should be straight and parallel to the edge of the image detector
Chest wall
32
What is the critic of a random sample of each technologist and interpreting physicians images to ensure quality images are being produced and interpreted
Equip - enhancing quality using the inspection program
33
The area of maximum radiation intensity must lie near the chest wall since that area is the thickest part of the breast. Tube manufacturer position what side of the x-ray tube at the thickest part of the breast?
Cathode
34
Spark compression magnification technique increases the distance between the what
Object to image detector (OID)
35
The area on the target and ode that is bombarded by electrons from the cathode of the x-ray tube is referred to as the what
Focal spot
36
What is not a characteristic of the low, penetrating being used in mammography
High energy
37
What is the effect of scattered radiation on image contrast?
As the amount of scatter radiation in the breast increases contrast decreases
38
What is the recommended focal spot size for magnification technique?
0.1 mm
39
The most common magnification factor used in mammography is what times
1.5
40
The benefits of adequate breast compression during mammography include everything but
Increase potential for motion due to a mobilization
(It decreases motion)
41
According to the ACR digital mammography quality control manual 2016, the average glandular must not exceeded a single view of a standard breast (4.2 cm, 50% granular, 50% adipose)
300 mRad (3 mGy)
42
The MQSA requirement regarding compression force is how many pounds of initial force applied
25 to 45 pounds
43
The basic component of a digital detector is the what
Pixel
44
CAD is an acronym for what? It is an important tool that assist the radiologist in interpretation by using software algorithms to recognize suspicious patterns and breast tissue, such as areas of density, masses, and patterns of micro-calcifications
Computer aided detection
45
The US Congress directed who to develop an employment MQSA regulations to ensure that all women have access to quality mammography for the detection of breast cancer and its earliest most treatable stages
FDA
46
Each Facility must have what kind of certificate in order to legally perform mammography
MQSA
47
The mammography technologist must perform how many mammographic examinations over how long of a period in order to fulfill MQS a continuing experience requirements
200 examinations over a 24 month period
48
MQSA requires that the mammography technologist obtain how many continuing education units in how long of a time
15 CEU over 36 months
49
If the medical physicist QC test for average glandular dose fails, corrective action, must be taken by the facility when
Immediately before any further exams are performed
50
The medical physicist is required to perform QC testing on all new Leland installed units, whether the equipment is new or used, at the time of installation and at least how long for MQSA
Annually
51
Phantom image testing is required by the QC mammography technologist on a weekly basis. When the results fail, corrective action must be taken by the facility when
Immediately before any further exams
52
The written report signed by the interpreting position must be provided to the patient’s healthcare provider within how many days of the exam
30 days
53
In addition to sending a report to the patient’s physician that facility must send a written summary of the mammography report to the patient in terms easily understood by a person within how many days of the exam
30 days
54
Current mammograms and records must be kept by the facility for how many years if no additional mammograms of the patient or performed at the facility
5 to 10 years
55
ACR accredited facilities must maintain a record of each serious consumer complaint received by the facility for at least how long after the complaint was received
Three years
56
For ACR accreditation purposes, the facility must submit two sets of clinical imaging for evaluation. What are they?
One from the patient with fatty breast and one from a patient with breast
57
Does MQSA require technique factors be identified for mammographic images
No
58
The phantom simulates a _____ compressed breast, consisting of 50% glandular and 50% adipose tissue
4.2 cm
59
A level one violation of MQSA regulations indicate what
A failure to meet a MQSA requirement that may compromise the quality of mammography performed at the facility
60
In FFDM systems with direct digital detectors, the photo conductor composed of what absorbs the x-rays and directly converts them to elect electrons
Amorphous selenium
61
What method of image capture is very efficient because the x-rays are not converted into light but instead directly into an electron signal
Direct conversion
62
QC testing for digital mammography does not include testing related to what
Image portability
63
A QC procedure performed by the mammographer to correct variances in sensitivity of the elements in the detector matrix
Flat field detector calibration
64
A QC test performed by the medical physicist to ensure that the hardware is performing properly so as not to degrade the resolution of the image
Modulation transfer function
65
The three categories for FFDM artifacts does not include
Handling artifacts
66
What type of artifact is unique to FFDM and results when a women’s breast compresses to less than 2 cm and thickness demonstrating the edges of the compression paddle at the corners of the image
Thin breast
67
What type of artifact is coming into certain manufacturers and is more commonly seen in women with thick breast
Breast within a breast
68
With fulfilled, digital mammography, the greater the number of pixels per inch the greater the what
Resolution
69
In the digital detector, what is similar to a collection of bins that store in electrical charge depending upon the number of x-rays that fall into that area
Pixels
70
What is the number of shades of gray or the contrast resolution in the image?
Dynamic range
71
As the pixel sizes made smaller, the amount of data contained in the image does what?
Rapidly increases
72
Mammography units offer how many focal sizes
Two
73
A special feature of a high transmission cellular grid is what
Scatter control in two dimensions
74
Digital images are not limited by the characteristic curve of film because why
Brightness and contrast can be changed post exposure
75
High image contrast is of great importance in mammography in order to what
Visualize subtle signs of pathology, such as microcalcifications or small nodules
76
Contrast on a mammogram results from the varying density differences between what
Glandular and adipose tissues
77
What is controlled by the MA?
Quantity or the total number of photons in the beam
78
The maximum MAS tube limit is established before automatic cut offs occur in order to what
Protect the x-ray tube from damaging heat
79
The exposure increases or decreases how many percent with each increment in the density setting
10% to 20%
80
What kind of array are the active electronic readout mechanism commonly used in both direct and indirect digital mammography systems
Thin film transistors (TFT)
81
The amount of filtration required to reduce the intensity of the xray beam by one half its original value
Half value layer
82
If a grid were used for magnification views, the exposure time would what
Increase significantly
83
The air gap technique refers to the gap of air between one
Breast and the image detector
84
In magnification radiography, a small focal spot is necessary in order to what related to the penumbra effect
Counter the effect of increased blurring at the edges of the image
85
What appears darkest on the mammographic image?
Adipose tissue
86
The main reason we use a low KVP in mammography because why
There is greater differentiation in attenuation between the breast tissue types
87
The average glandular dose for an automated exposure on a digital mammography system will what
Increase with increasing compressed breast thickness
88
At higher kvp, with an appropriate reduction in MAs to maintain the same image density there will be a ____ due to more penetrating x-ray being produced, but also some loss of subject contrast
Reduced dose
89
If magnification mammography were performed without the use of a small spot, the resulting image would be magnified and what
Blurred
90
The effective spot magnification on the patient dose does what
Dose increases because source to patient distance is reduced
91
Grids and air gap techniques are effective means of controlling, scatter radiation and what in mammography
Improving contrast
92
A measure of image sharpness and is described as the ability of the system to display high frequency structures, such as microcalcifications without losing them in the noise of the system
Modulation transfer function
93
The detection of what in FFDM is most visible as graininess or waves and uniform surfaces
Noise
94
When quality control test that evaluate the performance of the image acquisition components fall outside the action limits as specified by the manufacturer the source, the problem shall be identified and corrective action shall be taken when
Before any further examinations
95
If a facility accepts self referred to to patients who do not name a healthcare provider, what happens
Facility must send the patient the written mammography report in addition to a summary in lay terms
96
The mammography accreditation phantom is a QC tool that detects imaging changes that degrade imaging quality. The target items with the phantom do not include what
Asymmetry
97
How often must EQUIP be performed
Yearly
98
Mammographic image displays and printers are regulated under the MQSA. It is essential that the printing device can display the same grayscale information as the electronic display. The what was developed for this purpose?
SMPTE test pattern
99
During magnification imaging, positioning the breast above the detector reduces scatter radiation to the detector. This demonstrates what
Air gap technique
100
What QC test uses a scale?
Compression force
101
What usually presents itself as a small group of malignant microcalcifications on a screening mammogram
Ductal carcinoma in-situ
102
What is the gold standard for the detection of early nonpalpable breast cancer?
Digital mammography
103
Which nipple discharge is not considered suspicious for malignancy
Milky
104
The first selective population study to demonstrate a reduction in breast cancer mortality as a result of screening mammography was the what
HIP Study for New York (Health Insurance Plan)
105
What are the smallest structures visible on mammogram
Micro calcifications
106
The average doubling time for a breast cancer cell is what
90-100 days
107
A triple negative breast cancer diagnosis indicates that the cancerous tumor is estrogen receptor negative, progesterone receptor negative, and what
HER2 receptor negative
108
The final assessment category is assigned by the radiologist, following interpretation of the mammographic images. When the radiologist assigns a category four to patient study, it is understood that the mammogram is what
Demonstrates the suspicious abnormality and biopsy should be considered
109
Younger women tend to have a predominant of what and what kind of breast tissue making the detection of early breast cancer in these women, more difficult
Heterogeneously dense and/or extremely dense glandular
110
The majority of breast cancer 50% are found in the dense, glandular tissue of what quadrant
Upper outer quadrant
111
Breast tissue extend superior to the level of the what
Clavicle
112
An early embryonic breast formation known as the what extends from the armpit to the groin
Mammory line/milk Ridge
113
What is composed of layers of adipose and connective tissue separating the breast tissue from the pectoralis major muscle?
Retromammary fat space
114
The skin of the breast is thickest at the what
Base
115
What begins at the extra lobular terminal duct and extends to the terminal ductules
Terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU)
116
A condition in which breast has more than one nipple
Polythelia
117
The term used to describe a steady decrease in the amount of glandular tissue (INVOLUTION)
Atrophy
118
On the mammogram, fibroglandular tissue produces lower optical density appears what
Radiopaque, light or whiter
119
A halo size typically present with a benign circumcised tumor. A halo sign is a what.
Narrow radiolucent ring around the periphery of a lesion
120
A mass is three-dimensional and occupied space. It is seen on what
On two different mammographic projections
121
If a potential mass is seen only on a single projection, it should be called a what until is three dimensionally confirmed
Asymmetry
122
A stellate lesion is characterized by what
A radiating structure with ill defined borders consisting of spicules
123
The Montgomery glands are large, sebaceous glands within the nipple, areola complex that opened the skin surface via protrusions on the skin known as what
Morgagni tubercles
124
What act is suspensory ligaments of the breast?
Cooper’s ligaments
125
Most breast cancer are identified as what
Invasive Ductal Carcinoma
126
The ____, small glandular sacs at the terminal ducts, are the milk producing units to the breast
Acini
127
The breast extends from which rib to approximately which rib in the midclavicular line
Second rib to sixth rib
128
Approximately 2/3 of the upper breast overlies which muscle
Pectoralis major
129
Each breath of the total of between how many lobes of glandular tissue?
15 to 20
130
What transports milk from the terminal ductile lobular unit to the nipple
Ducts
131
Approximately how many openings are found on the surface the nibble
15 to 20
132
The chief arterial blood supplies the breast is from the perforating branches of which artery
Internal mammory artery
133
What is adenopathy?
Swollen lymph nodes or glands
134
What are the common sites of metastasis?
Brain, lung, liver & bone
135
The most important factors involved in analyzing microcalcifications are formed, size and density (morphology) of the individual particles, as well as the number and ____ of the particles
Distribution
136
Cystic enlargement within the breast that contains milk and usually occurs during lactation
Galactocele
137
What is the defined as cancer cells confined to the duct and their site of origin?
Ductal carcinoma in situ
138
Male breast cancer is primarily what
Invasive ductal carcinoma
139
The most common characteristic symptom of a male with breast cancer is what
Painless, subareolar lump
140
The radiologist will assign BI – RADS final assessment category what to an incomplete mammogram needing additional imaging and/or prior mammograms for comparison
Zero
141
The opening in the duct, which transports breastmilk to the nipple is referred to as the what of the duct
Lumen
142
A rare inflammatory malignant cancer of the nipple and are
Paget’s disease
143
Women with several first-degree relatives, diagnosed with breast cancer should begin mammography, how many years prior to the youngest age of the relative at time of diagnosis
10 years
144
What refers to carcinoma invading into and obstructing the lymphatics of the skin of the breast
Inflammatory breast cancer
145
The main prognostic factors for breast cancer staging are based on what
Tumor size, lymph node, involvement, evidence of distant metastasis, grade, hormone receptors, proliferation index, and HER2/Neu receptors
146
What kind of tumor is an example of a sarcoma that can occur in the breast
Phyllodes
147
Benign lesions that mimic cancer mammography and histologically
Radial scars
148
What are particularly useful for discussion of the optimal therapy for patients with a biopsy proven diagnosis of breast disease
Multidisciplinary tumor boards
149
When a patient with a protruding abdomen presents for a mammogram, you will encounter difficulty positioning the breast over the image detector. One possible solution may be to ask your patient to _____.
stand slightly back from the digital detector then ask her to lean in with her hips back
150
The development of the C-View, a 2-D synthesized image, in Digital Breast Tomosynthesis (DBT) resulted in the elimination of the 2D exposure, a reduction in exam time and ______.
a reduction in patient dose
151
_____ is the most valuable adjunct imaging method to mammography.
Ultrasound (U/S)
152
3D DBT images can be acquired in either a _____ or a step-and-shoot motion.
continuous
153
_____ is the most valuable modality for investigating the integrity of breast implants.
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
153
____ was/were developed for MR imaging of the breast for improved spatial resolution.
Dedicated surface coils
154
Sentinel node mapping is performed following the injection of a radioactive tracer in order to locate the _____ for surgical biopsy and pathologic inspection.
first lymph node to drain lymphatic fluid from the cancer site
155
_______ uses an iodinated intravenous contrast agent in combination with mammography, allowing the x-ray image to become enhanced to potentially detect hidden lesions or masses in the breast.
Contrast-enhanced spectral mammography (CESM)
156
____ utilizes the principle of triangulation to determine the horizontal, vertical and depth of the lesion within the breast.
Stereotactic biopsy
156
____ uses a thin needle and syringe to collect cell clumps or single cells from a breast lump.
Fine-Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC)
157
When a patient with a nonpalpable lump is scheduled for an open surgical biopsy, a ____ must be performed before the surgeon is able to excise the area.
needle localization procedure
158
Specimen radiography, utilizing a magnification technique, should always be done when a biopsy is performed for ____.
microcalcifications
159
Prior to an interventional procedure, the benefits, limitations, and risks of the procedure, as well as alternative procedures should be discussed with the patient and _______ should be obtained and documented.
The informed consent form
160
The FDA approved the use of ______ only as an adjunct to mammography.
breast thermography
160
3D breast tomosynthesis virtually eliminates the challenges associated with _____, the greatest problem associated with 2D mammography.
overlapping structures within the breast
161
The total angular range covered by the x-ray tube in 3-D tomosynthesis is known as the _____.
scan angle
162
During 3-D breast tomosynthesis, the projection images are reconstructed into a data set of slices through the breast in planes _____.
parallel to the detector
163
Routine annual screening on a patient with breast implants results in a series of at least _____ projections.
8
164
Molecular breast imaging requires the injection of a radioactive isotope (tracer) followed by _____.
imaging with a gamma scanner
165
Color Doppler Ultrasound is used to evaluate the _____ of a questionable lesion.
vascularity
166
A ____ of the tissue sample will provide the pathologist with a visual measure of the size, number and distribution of the microcalcifications.
specimen radiograph
167
Lymphatic mapping with sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy is performed on patients ____.
as an alternative to axillary lymph node dissection
168
A basic rule in mammography on a male patient is that _____.
the nipple should always be projected in profile
169
The ____ is/are necessary in order to triangulate a lesion.
CC and 90-degree lateral
170
The ACR identifies _____ as the primary cause for the clinical failure of an image.
improper patient positioning
170
Magnification mammography would NOT be recommended _____.
to better image implant patients for capsular contracture
171
Mammographic screening routinely includes two views because it provides _____.
the best opportunity to visualize all breast tissue
172
What is the optimal time for the performance of a diagnostic mammogram?
When a radiologist is onsite in order to evaluate the patient and request additional views
173
As related to the breast’s natural mobility, how do we visualize the maximum amount of breast tissue on the Craniocaudal (CC) view?
Elevate the inframammary fold before compression is applied
174
If the mammographer fails to elevate the inframammary fold on the Craniocaudal (CC) view and leaves the detector too low, the superior and _____ tissues will not be visualized.
posterior
175
Approximately _____ of women are estimated to have a prominent axillary Tail of Spence making it necessary to include Exaggerated Craniocaudal Lateral views (XCCL) on the screening study.
10%
175
The mammographer will use the “up and out maneuver” while _____.
supporting the anterior breast tissue for the Mediolateral Oblique (MLO) position
175
The pectoralis muscle will be visualized on the properly positioned Craniocaudal (CC) view in _____ of our patients.
30% to 40%
176
It is preferred that the Exaggerated Craniocaudal Lateral (XCCL) be performed with no tube angulation. Only when necessary, the maximum tube angulation allowable for this view is no more than _____.
5-degrees
177
Which true lateral projection takes advantage of the mobile borders of the breast, allowing the pectoral muscle and lateral breast tissue to move medially along the rib cage toward the detector?
Lateromedial Lateral (LM)
178
To identify the location of a lesion, the radiologist will request a 90-degree true lateral. If the lesion moves down on the lateral view or is located lower than it was on the MLO view, the lesion is located in the _____ aspect of the breast.
lateral
179
The view that would best demonstrate whether an abnormality is medial or lateral to the nipple is the _____.
Craniocaudal (CC)
180
When the radiologist suspects that calcifications seen on the mammogram are probably located in the skin, the _____ view will verify its skin location.
tangential (TAN)
181
_____ identifies the Left breast examined in the CC projection with the superior breast tissue rolled laterally.
LCCRL
182
The _____ requires that the X-Ray beam be directed from the lower-outer aspect of the breast to the upper-inner breast.
Lateromedial Oblique (LMO)
183
Vigorous compression over the area of a breast implant could cause _____ and is NEVER advised.
an implant to rupture
184
To create uniform density and contrast throughout the examination on an implant patient, _____ should be used.
a combination of manual and automatic exposure techniques
185
A/An _____ compression paddle is needed for the localization of dermal calcifications.
alpha-numeric localizing biopsy (fenestrated or windowed)
186
The _____view can be used to better define a lesion obscured by dense fibroglandular tissue on the standard views.
Tangential (TAN)
187
The _____ technique is used to better define the margins of a mass because it is less obscured by superimposed tissue and the area of interest is brought closer to the detector.
spot compression
188
The distance _____ is NOT measured when locating a lesion for a Spot Compression view.
from the nipple to the pectoralis muscle
189
One of the major reasons why ultrasound screening cannot replace mammography for the detection of early breast cancer is because ______.
mammography is currently the only method capable of depicting malignant calcifications without an associated mass
190
Motion is a common problem on magnification views because _____.
the smaller focal spot results in a longer exposure time
191
The _____ view is used to separate overlapping structures that are superimposed on the standard views.
Roll
192
An additional _____ view can eliminate the radiologist's concern regarding benign Milk of calcium calcifications.
90-degree lateral (ML or LM)
192
With the biopsy needle properly advanced to the area of interest, two stereo images, called _______ are taken to verify the proper positioning of the tip of the needle in the area of the lesion.
Pre-fire images
193
When severe capsular contracture prohibits the mammographer from performing Implant-Displaced (ID) views, a _____ should be added to the CC and MLO routine views.
90-degree lateral (ML or LM)
194
The mammographer will experience difficulty visualizing _____ breast tissue in the Craniocaudal (CC) projection when examining a patient with Pectus Excavatum.
medial
194
Large-breasted patients who do not fit on the standard image detector are examined using the ____ positioning technique.
mosaic / tiling
195
______ is a result of radiation therapy following lumpectomy. Identify the finding that is INCORRECT.
Pectus excavatum
196
A _____ mammogram is performed on asymptomatic patients at regular intervals.
screening
197
The intravenous contrast material most commonly used for an MRI exam contains a metal called _____.
gadolinium
198
On a properly positioned CC view, the nipple should point _____ to the midline of the detector.
straight back
199
The _____ measurement on the CC must be within 1 cm of the PNL measurement on the MLO to verify that the maximum amount of breast tissue has been captured on both views.
Posterior Nipple Line (PNL)
200
When imaging the full breast on a patient with breast implants, minimal compression is used in order to _____.
immobilize the breast
201
Correct positioning of the CC view always requires the inclusion of _____ breast tissue since it is NOT visualized on the MLO view.
medial
202
203
204
When positioning for the CC view, it is recommended that the technologist use two hands to elevate and pull the breast anteriorly onto the detector in order to visualize the _____ breast tissue.
inferior and posterior
204
On the MLO view, the patient leans in toward the unit for maximum tissue visualization with the detector positioned at an angle parallel to the _____.
pectoralis muscle
205
When positioning for the CC view, the shoulder on the side being examined is relaxed and lowered to relax the pectoralis muscle and include the breast tissue in the _____.
upper outer quadrant
206
On a properly positioned mediolateral oblique (MLO) view, the pectoralis muscle should be depicted obliquely down to the level of the _____ or lower. The shape of the muscle should bulge outward in a _____ curve as a sign that the muscle is relaxed. The nipple should be depicted in profile and a small amount of abdominal tissue should be visible as a sign that all _____ breast tissue is included.
nipple / convex / inferior
206
During routine screening mammography, the mediolateral oblique (MLO) view is preferred over a lateral 90-degree (ML) projection because more of the breast tissue can be imaged in the _____.
upper outer quadrant and the axilla
207
Fine-Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) uses a fine gauge needle of _____ compared to stereotactic core biopsy, which uses a needle of _____.
22 or 25 gauge / 11 or 14 gauge
208
By properly supporting the anterior aspect of the breast during MLO positioning, the technologist can avoid the drooping _____ appearance.
camel’s nose
209
The preferred route for the needle during a needle localization procedure is _____.
the shortest distance from the skin to the lesion
209
If the radiologist places a tissue marker at the biopsy site, a post-procedure mammogram is performed using two orthogonal views, _____, to document the placement of the marker.
CC and 90-degree lateral
210
Your patient presents with a palpable lump. The diagnostic mammogram does not visualize any abnormality in the area. The radiologist’s next step is to _____.
order a targeted breast ultrasound exam
211
The craniocaudal (CC) view demonstrates a density in the extreme posterior-medial aspect of the breast. The radiologist suspects it is the demonstration of the sternalis muscle. You are asked to perform a _____ view for verification.
cleavage
212
The craniocaudal (CC) view demonstrates a linear density on the lateral side of the breast. This line represents a _____.
skin fold
213
A common problem when positioning a patient with very small breasts is the mammographer’s hand will get caught under the compression paddle as she holds the patient’s breast in place. Which of the following suggestions listed below would NOT be helpful in performing this task?
Ask the patient to hold her breast tissue in place
214
When a lactating patient presents with a clinical finding, ultrasound and mammography may be requested. As part of an infection control protocol, the mammographer should _____.
wear gloves
215
When performing a stereotactic core-needle biopsy, the term “stroke margin” refers to the distance from the _____.
tip of the probe in the fired position to the breast support / image receptor
216
When a patient in her mid-twenties presents with a palpable lump in her breast, the initial method of evaluation is ________.
Ultrasound US
216
Current cancer related indication for breast MRI is _______________.
Lesion characterization of proven or suspected cancer and delineation of extent of disease, including multifocality (within the same quadrant), multicentricity (cancer in other quadrants), and evaluation of the contralateral breast.
217
__________ have almost totally replaced surgical excision for biopsy of lesion from the breast.
Percutaneous image guided breast biopsy
218
Excising the tumor and getting appropriate margins around the cancer while preserving cosmetic integrity are the primary goals for the surgeon. A _________ microscopic margin is a free margin.
2 to 3 mm
219
Regardless of the surgical treatment chosen for the breast, axillary sampling of the _________ axilla should be performed.
Ipsilateral
220
__________ therapy (adjuvant) after lumpectomy should be considered standard of care for invasive and many non-invasive breast diseases.
Radiation
220
The common side effects of hormonal therapy when taken for the treatment of breast cancer are _____.
Vaginal dryness, hot flashes, night sweats, sexual disfunction
221
Approximately _______ percent of women are candidates for hormonal therapy and are advised to take it to prevent breast cancer recurrence.
50
