Flashcards
(318 cards)
1
Q
(T/F) Photosynthesis occurs in the spongy layer of the mesophyll of a leaf
A
False.
Photosynthesis occurs in the palisade layer of the mesophyll of a leaf.
2
Q
What are the two types of roots
A
Traproot & Fibrous
3
Q
What happens when the turgor pressure in cells decreases too much?
A
The plant wilts.
4
Q
What is a fixed action pattern?
A
A complex, coordinated, innate behavioral response to specific patterns of stimulation.
The sign stimulus/releaser elicits the highly stereotyped behavior that must be completed once begun.
5
Q
(T/F) Imprinting can only take place during a brief critical period
A
True
6
Q
In classical conditioning, in order to elicit the conditioned response from the conditioned stimulus, what must be presented along with the conditioned stimulus during the conditioning period?
A
The combination of presenting the conditioned stimulus along with the unconditioned stimulus during the conditioning period elicits the conditioned response later on.
7
Q
(T/F) Operant conditioning may be used only to make an organism avoid a certain type of behavior.
A
False.
Operant conditioning may be utilized to make an organism repeat or avoid a certain type of behavior, depending on whether that behavior is associated with a reward or punishment, respectively.
8
Q
Place the following objects in the order in which they exist in the energy pyramid, from the top to the bottom: Secondary costumers, producers, sunlight, detrivores, primary consumers.
A
Sunlight -> Producers -> Primary consumers -> secondary consumers -> detrivores.
9
Q
What are omnivores?
A
Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals
10
Q
What role do animals have in the nitrogen cycle?
A
The wastes and dead remains of plants and animals provide the amonia used by nitrifying bacteria to produce nitrites and nitrogen dioxide and used by nitrifying bacteria to produce free nitrogen in the atmosphere.
11
Q
(T/F) Nitrogen fixation occurs in the stalks of leafy green vegetable plants.
A
False.
Bacteria on the roots of legumes are responsible for nitrogen fixation.
12
Q
(T/F) Chemosynthetic bacteria do not rely on photosynthesis for survival.
A
True.
13
Q
What are the three directly biological sources of CO2 in the environment?
A
Respiration
Photosynthesis
Decomposition
of plants and animals materials by bacteria of decay.
14
Q
Place the following in order of levels of biological organization, from the smallest to the largest:
Biosphere, Community, Ecosystem, Organism, Population
A
Organism -> Population -> Community -> Ecosystem -> Biosphere
15
Q
What are the characteristics of the population growth curve that occurs more often in nature?
A
The logistic growth curve is an S-shaped curve that plateaus @ a value of K (The carrying capacity).
The max # of organisms the environment can support result of the limited amount of resources.
16
Q
(T/F) In comensalistic relationship, both organisms involved benefit.
A
False.
Comensalistic relationship: One organism benefits the host not harmed.
17
Q
What is the principle behind ecological succession?
A
Organisms that live in a given environment alter the environment to make the living conditions less favorable for itself and more favorable for the community that succeeds it.
18
Q
What are the characteristics of Tundra?
A
Permanent Permafrost, little h2o, near poles, small plants, caribou, polar bears, artic foxes & hares.
19
Q
Which environment with the greatest diversity of plants and animals?
A
Tropical rain forest.
20
Q
What type of nervous system do annelids employ?
A
Primitive central nervous system with a brain composed of fused ganglia.
21
Q
What type of nervous system do arthropods employ?
A
Primitive central nervous system with a brain composed of fused ganglia with specialized sense organs.
22
Q
(T/F) Coelenterates employ a nerve net as their nervous system?
A
True
23
Q
What is asexual reproduction?
A
Any reproductive process that does not involve the fusion of gametes.
24
Q
(T/F) Binary fission (Prok) entails an equal division of cytoplasm as well as nuclear contents.
A
True
25
(T/F) Budding entails an equal division of cytoplams as well as nuclear contents.
False.
Budding is an asexual reproductive process characteristic of yeast in which there is an equal divisio of genetic material and unequal division of cytoplasm.
The daughter cell may pinch off and live independenltly, or remain connected and live as part of the larger colony.
26
What is parthenogenesis?
Development of an egg in the absence of fertilization, resulting in a haploid organism.
ie: frogs
27
What type of excretory system do annelids employ?
Excrete urea through nephridia in skin.
28
What type of excretory system do arthropods employ?
Produce uric acid in the malpighian tubules and eliminate it through rectum.
29
(T/F) In coelenterates, ammonia and CO2 diffuse directly into the environment.
True
30
(T/F) In Protozoans, ammonia and CO2 diffuse directly into the environment.
True
31
What are the five kingdoms of living organisms?
```
Monera
Protista
Fungi
Plantae
Animalia
```
32
What are the subdivisions used classifying an organism withing a given kingdom?
```
Kingdom
Phylum
Subphylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
```
33
What is the founder effect?
loss of genetic variation that occurs when a new population is established by a very small number of individuals from a larger population
34
(T/F) Convergent evolution is due to homology.
False.
| Convergent evolution sis due to analogy
35
What are the name of the male and female reproductive organs of a plant and their parts?
Male: Stamen
-Filament
-long stalk-like segment
-anther
-small sac @ top of the filament
Female: Pistil
-stigma (the sticky surface that catches pollen)
-style (the area the pollen tube grows down)
-Ovary (eventually forms the fruit and contains seeds called ovules)
36
Where and what type of gametes are formed in male and female plants?
Pollen is produced in the anther; the embryo sac forms in the ovules.
37
How many N are the plant gametes, embryo and endosperm?
plant: 1N
Embryo: 2N
Endosperm: 3N
38
What is phototropism?
Phototropism is the phenomenon in which a plant grows toward its light source.
39
What type of circulatory system do annelids employ?
Closed.
| Simple circulatory system
40
What type of circulatory system do arthropods employ?
Open circulatory system
41
What type of circulatory system do coelenterates employ?
Diffusion
| cyclosis
42
What type of circulatory system do protozoans employ?
Diffusion, Cyclosis
43
What type of respiratory system do annelids employ?
Gas exchange via diffusion through moist skin (Worms)
44
What type of respiratory system do arthropods employ?
Gas exchange through respiratory tracheae which branch extensively through the body. air enters and leaves the trachea via openings on the surface called spiracles.
(Grasshopper)
45
What type of respiratory system do coelenterates employ?
Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.
46
What type of respiratory system do Protozoans employ?
Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.
47
What type of Digestive system do annelids employ?
One-way, two opening digestive tract
| Worms
48
What type of Digestive system do arthropods employ?
One-way, tow opening digestive tract
49
What type of Digestive system do coelenterates employ?
Extracellular digestion in the gastrovascular cavity (Hydra)
50
What type of Digestive system do protozoans employ?
Intracellular Digestion
51
What happens during the light cycle?
Light energy is used to produce ATP via photophosphorylation and photolysis (Splitting of water), while forming O2 and NADPH
52
What happens during the dark calvin cycle?
ATP & NADPH formed during the light reaction are used to fix CO2 into organic material. Light is not required, but the dark cycle usually occurs during the day when the light reaction provides ATP and NADPH
53
(T/F) Sugars may be synthesized once the light cycle has shut down?
True.
| The dark calvin cycle can continue without light.
54
What molecule provides the reducing power needed during the synthesis of sugar?
NADPH
55
(T/F) Photosynthetic organisms use CO2 and H2O to produce carbohydrates, proteins and lipids?
True
56
In what organelle does photosynthesis occur?
| What photosynthetic pigment is used?
Organelle: Chloroplast
Pigment: Chlorophyll
57
What structure lets gases in and out of the plant?
| What regulars the opening and closing of these structures?
Stomates
| Guard Cells.
58
What is the net reaction for photosynthesis?
6 CO2+ 12 H2O+ Light Energy -> C6H12O6 + 6 H2O
59
Describe Convergent Evolution
Independent development of similar characteristics by non-related groups.
60
Describe Parallele Evolution
Process whereby related groups independently develop similar characteristics due to analogous environmental pressures.
61
Describe Divergent Evolution
Process whereby related groups independently develop dissimilar characteristics.
62
when are two populations descending from the same ancestral stock considered to be different species?
when they can not longer interbreed and produce viable offspring
63
What is adaptive radiation
emergence of a number of distinct lineages from a single ancestral species.
The different lineages usually result when a group begind to exploit a different niche.
64
How does genetic drift diff from gene flow?
Genetic drift: changes in gene pool due to change,
| Gene Flow: changing gene pool due to the migration of individuals.
65
(T/F) Stabilizing selection maintains a well adapted uniform character in a population.
True
66
How does disruptive selection affect the phenotype of a population?
Disruptive selection favors the phenotypical extremes, leading to the expression of two or more phenotypic forms.
67
How does directional selection affect the phenotype of a population?
Directional selection favors the expression of one phenotypical extreme.
68
What are the 5 necessary conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equation to hold true.
1. No immigration
2. No mutation
3. Large population
4. Random mating
5. Genes in a population are equally successful @ reproducing
69
(T/F) Lamarck's theory of evolution is based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics
True
70
(T/F) Lamarckian evolution holds true in a number of different circumstances
False
71
Define fitness according to Darwin
Ability for an organism to mate and produce fertile offspring
72
What is an operon?
gene that regulates bacterial transcription.
73
What is an inducible system?
requires the presence of an inducer for transcription to occur.
74
What is a repressible system?
repressible system is in a constant state of transcription unless a corepressor is present to inhibit transcription.
75
Describe the lytic and lysogenic cycles
lyric cycle: results in the production of new progeny that cause the cell to lyse.
Lysogenic Cycle: results in incorporation of the viral DNA into the bacterial DNA where it remains inactive.
A lysogenic cycle may progress to a lytic cycle
76
What are the threw mechanisms by which bacteria can increase genetic variability?
1. Transformation: incorporation of foreign chromosome fragments.
2. Conjugation: Transfer of genetic material between two bacteria.
3. Transduction: Virus carries DNA between two bacteria.
77
What is a retrovirus?
RNA virus that codes for the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which uses the RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
78
What is a prophage (provirus)?
Bacterial virus that has integrated into its host cell genome.
79
What are the three stages of polypeptide synthesis?
Initiation, elongation & termination
80
What are the three types of base pairs mutations that can occur during the protein synthesis?
Substitutions, insertions, and deletions.
81
What is transcription?
process where mRNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
82
What is translation?
process where proteins are synthesized from a mRNA template.
83
What is an exon?
| An intron?
exon: coding sequence on a gene.
Intron: non-coding sequence on a gene.
84
What is a codon?
3 base sequence on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acids.
85
What is an anticodon?
3-base sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a mRNA codon.
86
(T/F) DNA synthesis proceeds in the 3' to 5' direction.
False.
| DNA synthesis proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction.
87
What are the three types of RNA, and what are their functions?
```
Messenger RNA (mRNA): contains the codons for peptide chain synthesis.
Transfer RNA (tRNA): transports amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA): structural component of ribosomes.
```
88
Name the four nitrogenous bases in DNA
Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine.
89
Name the purines.
| Name the pyrimidines.
purines: adenine and guanine.
pyrimidines: cytosine and thymine.
90
What is the base-pairing in DNA?
| How many bonds hold the bases together?
Adenine- Thymine (2 H bonds)
| Cytosine- Guanine (3 H bonds)
91
Name three differences between RNA and DNA
RNA uses ribose instead of deoxyribose.
RNA replaces thymine with Uracil
RNA is single-stranded
92
(T/F) Females can express a sex-linked recessive trait.
True.
93
What is nondisjunction?
the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during cellular reproduction.
94
(T/F) In humans, most sex-linked genes are located on the Y chromosome.
False. Most are located on X chromosomes.
95
What percentage of daughters will inherit their father's sex-linked gene?
100%
96
What percentage of sons will inherit their father's sex linked gene?
0%
97
What percentage of sons will inherit their mother's sex linked gene (assuming a heterozygous mother)?
50%
98
Red flowers crossed with white flowers yield pink flowers. What kind of dominance is portrayed in this example?
Incomplete dominance
99
What is endocytosis?
cell membrane invaginates, forming an intracellular vesicle containing extracellular medium.
100
What is exocytosis?
cell fuses with the cell membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular medium.
101
(T/F) Facilitated diffusion requires energy.
False.
| all forms of diffusion are passive processes.
102
Define active transport.
net movement of dissolved particles against their concentration gradient with the help of carrier molecules.
ATP required.
103
(T/F) Active transport requires energy.
True
104
What is a membrane receptor?
protein or glycoprotein that binds to molecules in the extracellular environment.
105
Can small polar and non-polar molecules easily cross the cell membrane?
Yes because of their size.
106
How does a large charged molecule cross the cell membrane?
via carrier protein
107
(T/F) The nucleus is surrounded by a single-layered membrane.
False, it's double layered.
108
Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)
| What would be the phenotypic ratio of a PP x pp cross?
100% purple
109
Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)
| What would be the phenotypic ratio of a Pp x Pp cross?
75% purple : 25% white
110
Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)
| What would be the phenotypic ratio of a Pp x pp cross?
50% purple: 50% white
111
Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)
| What would be the genotypic ratio of a Pp x pp cross?
50% Pp : 50% pp
112
Given: P= dominant (purple) p= recessive (White)
| What would be the genotypic ratio of a Pp x Pp cross?
25% PP : 50% Pp : 25% pp
113
Summarize Mendel's 1st Law (Law of segregation)
Law of segregation states that alleles segregate during meiosis specifically:
- Gene exist in alternative forms (alleles)
- An individual inherits two alleles for each trait, one from each parent.
- The two alleles segregate during meiosis.
- if two different alleles are present, only on will be fully expressed.
114
Summarize Mendels 2nd Law (Law of independent assortment)
sties that alleles of unlinked genes assort independently during meiosis
115
What are alleles?
different forms of the same gene they occupy same position on homologous chromosomes.
116
Define genotype
genetic makeup of an individual.
117
Define Phenotype
physical manifestation
118
Define Homozygous
Homozygous have two copies of the same allele for a given trait.
119
Define heterozygous
Heterozyous have two different alleles for a given trait.
120
Which type of photoreceptor cell is specialized for color vision?
Which type is specialized for low light conditions?
Cones: Color
Rods: Night
121
What is the fovea?
are in the retina with high density of cones.
122
what are the components of the middle ear?
Tympanic membrane
Malleus
Incus
Stapes
123
What are the components of the inner ear?
Cochlea
| Corti
124
Which part of the nervous system radiates the body for "flight or fight"?
Sympathetic Nervous system.
125
What are the functions of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?
slows down body and conserves energy.
126
Which division of the nervous system inhibits digestion?
Sympathetic
127
(T/F) Dorsal root ganglia house the cell bodies of sensory root fibers
True
128
What are the components of hindbrain?
Cerebellum
Pons
Medulla oblongata
129
What is the function of the cerebellum?
coordination
130
What part of the brain controls autonomic activities?
Medulla oblongata
131
What are the four regions of the spinal cord?
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
132
What is the largest part of the human brain?
Cerebral cortex
133
what is the function of the cerebral cortex
processes and integrates sensory input and motor response and controls memory
134
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
visceral functions such as hunger, thirst and sex drive.
135
(T/F) The cerebral cortex is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses.
False.
| The midbrain is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses.
136
Which type of neuron serves as a link between motor and sensory neurons?
Interneurons
137
What are the two major subsystems of the nervous system?
Central Nervous system and Peripheral nervous system
138
What are the components of the central nervous system>
brain and spinal cord.
139
What is saltatory conduction?
Jumping of an action potential between unmyelinated nodes of ranvier.
140
What happens when an action potential reaches a synapse (in a mammal) ?
the electrical signal causes the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic membrane into the synapse.
141
what is the function of a sensory afferent neuron?
carries impulses from sensory organs to brain and spinal cord.
142
what is the function of a motor efferent neuron?
transmits impulses from the brain and spinal cord to muscles or glands.
143
(T/F) In a resting neuron, Na+ concentration is higher inside the cell than outside the cell.
False
| Na+ higher outside then inside.
144
Do Na+ ions rush into or out of the cell during depolarization?
into the cell during depolarization.
145
Do K+ ions rush into or out of the cell during repolarization?
out of the cell during depolarization.
146
(T/F) A neuron can conduct during the refractory period.
False.
| A neuron is unable to respond to stimulus during refractory period.
147
What is hyper polarization?
a state where the potential across the membrane is more negative than the resting potential.
148
What is the function of a dendrite?
conducts nerve impulses towards the cell body.
149
What is the function of an axon?
conducts nerve impulses away form the cell body.
150
What is the composition of a myelin sheath?
CNS: composed of the membranes of oligodendrocyes.
PNS: composed of membranes of schwann cells.
151
What protein complex is responsible for the resting potential (-70 mV) of a neuron?
Sodium potassium pump.
152
Which two hormones are secreted by the ovaries?
estrogen and progesterone.
153
What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?
Follicular phase
Ovulation
Lutheal phase
Menstruation.
154
What is the corpus luteum?
Develops from a ruptured follicle in the ovary and secretes estrogen and progesterone.
155
what is a coenzyme?
organic cofactor for an enzymatic reaction
156
what are the energy carrier molecules for a cell's metabolic processes?
ATP, NAD+, NADP+ and FAD
157
how do ATP, NAD+, NADP+ and FAD store energy?
ATP: high energy phosphate bonds
| NAD+, NADP+ and FAD: high-potential electrons
158
What is the net reaction for glycolysis?
Glucose + 2ADP + 2 Pi + 2NAD+ -> 2 Pyr + 2ATP + 2 NADH + 2H + 2 H2O
159
What happens to the free energy (delta G) of a reaction if it is catalyzed by an enzyme?
The free energy of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is the same as the reaction without the enzyme.
160
What happens as the concentration of substrate is increased in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
The reaction rate increases until most of the active sites are filled and then the reaction rate reaches a plateau
161
(T/F) At very high concentrations of substrate, reaction rate approximates Vmax
True
162
(T/F) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
True
163
What is a bacteriophage?
virus that infects bacteria only
164
what are the components of a virus?
A protein coat and nucleic acid.
165
what kinds of nucleic acids are found in viruses?
single or double stranded DNA or RNA
166
what is the function of centrioles?
spindle fiber formation during cell replication. found only in animals
167
what is a centrosome?
region of a cell that contains the centrioles
168
(T/F) Proteins synthesized by RER are secreted directly into the cytoplasm.
False.
| They are secreted into the cisternae of RER and then sent to SER where they are secreated into vesicles.
169
What is the function of the golgi apparatus?
receives vesicles from SER, modifies them and repackages them into vesicles for distribution
170
What happens to a secretory vesicle after it is released from the golgi apparatus?
fuses with the cell membrane to release its contents via exocytosis.
171
which endocrine organ secretes insulin and glucagon?
The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon
172
how does glucagon affect blood glucose levels?
increases blood glucose levels
173
how does insulin affect blood glucose levels?
decreases blood glucose levels
174
(T/F) too much insulin causes hypoglycemia
true
175
which endocrine gland secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?
adrenal medulla
176
(T/F) Epinephrine and norepinephrine return the body to its resting state and increase nutrient absorption.
False.
| they slow down digestion and increase basal metabolic rate.
177
What are some of the effects of epinephrine?
increase heart rate
increased blood glucose level
increase blood supply to brain, muscle and heart
decrease digestion and excretion
178
name the three types of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex
glucocorticoids
mineralocorticoids
cortical sex hormones
179
what is the function of cortisol?
increases the blood glucose levels
180
what important mineralocorticoid is released by the adrenal cortex?
aldosterone
181
Name the hormones secreated by the thyroid gland
Thyroxine
triiodothyronine
calcitonin
182
how do thyroid hormones affect metabolism?
increase metabolism
183
how does calcitonin affect the level of Ca+ in blood plasma?
decreases blood plasma calcium
184
what hormone does the parathyroid gland produce and what is its function?
parathyroid hormone and increases blood plasma calcium.
185
Name the hormone synthesized by the posterior pituitary.
none
| posterior pituitary stores hormones oxytocin and ADH synthesized in the hypothalamus
186
what two hormones are released by the posterior pituitary and what are their functions?
Oxytocin: increases contractions
ADH: promotes absorption of water in nephron
187
(T/F) The Hypothalamus regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary through hormone secretion and neurosecretory cells
True
188
Name all the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.
```
GH
Prolactin
Adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH
Thyroid stimulating hormone TSH
Luteinizing hormone LH
Follicle stimulating hormone FSH
```
189
(T/F) Growth hormone promotes bone and muscle growth.
True
190
What is the function of prolactin?
stimulates production of breast milk
191
What is the target gland of ACTH?
ACTH acts on the adrenal cortex
192
What is the function of TSH?
causes the thyroid to uptake iodine and produce thyroid hormone.
193
(T/F) LH and FSH are secreted only in females?
False.
194
What is the general function of Endoplasmic reticulum
transport of materials throughout the cell
195
What is the difference between an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland?
Endocrine: secrete hormones directly into the blood stream.
Exocrine: secrete substances that are transported by ducts.
196
The anterior pituitary is regulated in part by what other endocrine gland?
hypothalamus
197
Where and how does ADH affect the nephron?
ADH makes the distal convulated tubule and collecting duct more permeable to H2O
198
(T/F) Urine leaves the kidney via the ureter and leaves the bladder via the Urethra.
True
199
Is urine hypertonic or hypotonic to blood?
hypertonic
200
What are some of the functions of the liver?
regulation of blood glucose, detoxification of toxins, beta-oxidation of fatty acids, destruction of old red blood cells.
201
(T/F) Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O from the distal tubule and collecting duct.
True
202
Would high levels of aldosterone result in concentrated or dilute urine?
concentrated urine
203
How would low levels of aldosterone affect blood pressure?
low levels of aldosterone lead to reduced blood plasma volume and therefore reduced blood pressure.
204
Would high levels of ADH (vasopressin) result on concentrated or dilute urine
High levels of ADH result in concentrated urine.
205
What is the primary purpose of the kidney?
regulate salt and water concentration in the blood.
206
Where are amino acids, glucose, and vitamins reabsorbed in the nephron?
proximal convoluted tubule.
207
Where in the loop of henle does water passively diffuse out?
descending limb
208
(T/F) Water passively diffuses into the ascending limb.
False.
| the ascending limb is impermeable to water.
209
Define homeostasis.
maintenance of a stable internal environment.
210
What are the primary homeostatic organs in mammals?
kidney
liver
large intestine
skin
211
What are the three regions of a kidney?
pelvis
medulla
cortex
212
(T/F) A nephron is situated such that the loops of henle runs through the medulla.
True
213
How is material exchanged between the nucleus and the cytoplasm?
The nuclear membrane contains nuclear pores that selectively allow for the exchange of materials.
214
What is a histone?
structural protein complexed with euk DNA to form a chromosome.
215
What is the function of the nucleolus?
synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
216
What is the function of a ribosome?
sight of protein translation (assembly) during protein synthesis.
217
(T/F) Plant cells have all of the organelles of an animal cell, plus a cell wall and chloroplast.
False.
218
What is cytosol?
fluid component of the cytoplasm
219
Define fluid mosaic model
cell membrane consist of a phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded throughout.
220
Name the components of a typical bacterial cell.
Cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, flagella, and DNA
221
Where does respiration occur in the bacterial cell?
cell membrane
222
(T/F) all multi-cellular organisms are composed of euk cells.
True
223
Which type of euk cells have a cell wall?
Plant cells and fungal cells have a cell wall.
224
(T/F) Bacteria and viruses are examples of prok cells.
False
225
Describe bacterial DNA
single circular chromosomes
226
(T/F) Bacteria contains ribosomes
True
227
What is the function of immunoglobins (antibodies)?
attract other cells that can phagocytize an antigen or cause antigens to clump together.
228
(T/F) Skin, ciliated muscosa, macrophages and inflamatory responses are all examples of non specific defense mechanisms.
True
229
What happens to interstitial fluid that doesn't diffuse into a capillary?
Excess interstitial fluid is picked up by the lymphatic system and returned to the circulatory system.
230
(T/F) platelets play a key role in the immune response.
False.
| Platelets are key players in clot formation.
231
Which proteins are essential for proper clotting?
Thrombin and fibrin are essential for clot formation.
232
What is the function of a macrophage?
Phagocytizes foreign matter.
233
What is plasma?
liquid component of blood.
234
What are the cellular components of blood?
erythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets
235
(T/F) all arteries carry oxigenated blood and all veins carry deoxygenated blood.
False.
Pulmonary arteries & Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood.
Pulmonary veins and umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood.
236
(T/F) the right side of the heart pumps blood into pulmonary circulation and the left side pumps blood into systemic circulation.
True
237
Starting with the right atrium, trace the path of blood flow throughout the body
Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary capillaries, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava.
238
Which part of the brain controls breathing?
Medulla oblongata
239
What are the three components of the large intestine?
Cecum
colon
rectum
240
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
absorb water and salts
241
Where does protein digestion begin? Lipid digestion?
Protein digestion begins in the stomach and lipid digestion begins in the small intestine.
242
Which component of the nervous system inhibits digestion?
| Which component promotes digestion?
Inhibit: Sympathetic
Promotoes: Parasympathetic
243
Which segment of the small intestine is primarily responsible for digestion?
The duodenum is primarily responsible for digestion.
244
Which segment of the small intestine is primarily responsible for absorption?
The jejunum and ileum are primarily responsible for absorption.
245
Why is pancreatic juice basic (High pH)?
Pancreatic juice contains biocarbonate ion, which serves to neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach. This is necessary because pancreatic enzymes work best ar a slightly basic pH
246
(T/F) Bile is manufactured in the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and facilitates lipid digestion.
True.
247
What is peristalsis?
wave-like contractions that propel food through the digestive tract.
248
What two sphincters separate the stomach from the rest of the alimentary canal?
cardiac phincter
| pyloric sphincter
249
What are the three segments of the small intestine?
duodenum
jejunum
ileum
250
Name the structures of the human alimentary canal (in order)
```
Oral cavity
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
large intestine
```
251
What enzyme does saliva contain and what does it digest?
salivary amylase digest starch carbohydrates
252
Which types of muscle display myogenic activity?
Cardiac and smooth muscle
253
What is the role of calcium in the initiation of sarcomere contraction?
Calcium binds with troponin, which causes a conformational shift in tropomyosin, expressing the myosin binding site.
254
Which compound is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin?
ATP is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin.
255
(T/F) A muscle fiber exhibits an "all or nothing" response.
True
256
Which component of the nervous system innervates smooth muscle?
autonomic nervous system
257
Which type of muscle are under involuntary control?
smooth & cardiac
258
One molecule of glucose requires how many turns of the citric cycle?
The citric acid cycle TCA completes two cycles per molecule of glucose
259
How many ATP, NADH & FADH2 are created in one turn of the citric cycle?
1 ATP
3 NADH
1 FADH2
260
What is a cytochrome?
Molecular electron carrier involved in oxidative phosphorylation
261
When and where does oxidative phosphorilation occur?
inner mitochondrial membrane during the electron transport stage of cellular respiration.
262
Does the electron transport chain require oxygen?
yes. its the final acceptor which forms water.
263
(T/F) The electron transport chain generates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
true
264
Where does glycolysis occur?
cytoplasm
265
Where does the citric cycle occur?
inner mitochondrial matrix
266
(T/F) If glucose in unavailable, the body can use carbs, fats and proteins to create energy.
true
267
Describe the cell theory
all living things are composed of cells.
Cells are the basic functional unit of life.
cells arise only from pre-existin cell.
cells carry their genetic info in the form of DNA
268
(T/F) Electron microscopy can be used for the study of living specimens.
False.
| Preparation kills the specimen.
269
What type of laboratory method can be used to separate cells without destroying them?
low speed centrifugation can separate cells on the basis of type without destroying them.
270
(T/F) Differential centrifugation can be used to separate cells with similar densities.
False.
| densities are required for separation
271
Name the two distinct groups into which all cells can be categorized.
prok
| euk
272
What is the key differentiating criterion between prok and euk cells?
euk: have membrane bound organelles
prok: no membrane bound organelles
273
During Contraction, what happens to the width of the A-band?
Constant width
274
During contraction what happens to the H zone and I bands?
Contract and decrease in length
275
(T/F) The release of Ca+2 by the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates muscle contraction.
True
276
(T/F) The sarcoplasmic reticulim must uptake Ca+2 for relaxation to occur
True
277
What are the three distinct types of muscle in mammals?
skeletal
cardiac
smooth
278
What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions in muscle cells.
279
(T/F) Within a sarcomere, thick filaments are made of actin and thin filaments are made of myosin
False
Thin: Actin
Thick: myosin
280
(T/F) Endochondral ossification is the replacement of cartilage with bone?
True.
281
What is intramembranous ossification?
transformation of mesenchymal tissue into bone.
282
What is the function of a ligament?
connect bone to bone & strengthen joints.
283
What is the function of an osteoclast?
bone reabsorption
284
What is the function of an osteoblast?
bone formation.
285
What are the functions of the skeleton?
physical support
protection of delicate organs
source of blood cells
286
What are the two major components of the skeleton?
cartilage & bone
287
What are the two types of bone?
compact bone & spongy bone
288
(T/F) The allantois and yolk sac form the basis of the umbilical cord.
True
289
From what structure does the placenta originate?
chorion
290
(T/F) Adult hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than fetal hemoglobin
False
291
What is the function of the ductus venosus?
shunts blood away from the fetal liver
292
What is the function of foramen ovale?
diverts blood away from the pulmonary arteries and into the left atrium
293
What is the function of the ductus arteriosus?
shunts blood directly from the pulmonary artery into the aorta
294
What structures arise from ectoderm?
Intergument
Lens of eye
Nervous system
295
What structures arise from endoderm?
Epithelial lining of digestive
respiratoy tracts
parts of liver, pancreas, thyroid and bladder.
296
What structures arise from mesoderm?
```
nusculoskeletal system
circulatory systems
connective tissue
excretory system
gonads
```
297
(T/F) The placenta and umbilical cord are responsible for fetal respirtation, nutrition and waste removal.
true
298
Order the following embryonic stages:
| Blastula, Neurula, Morula, Gastrula, Zygote
```
Zygote
Morula
Blastula
Gastrula
Neurula
```
299
What is differentiation?
specialization of cells that occurs during development
300
What are the 3 primary germ layers?
ectoderm, endoderm & mesoderm
301
What is the net gain in ATP from cellular respiration?
```
Euk= 36 ATP
Prok= 38 ATP
```
302
(T/F) Cellular respiration requires aerobic conditions.
True
303
What are the three stages of cellular respiration?
1. Pyruvate decarboxylation
2. citric acid (krebs) cycle
3. electron transport chain
304
(T/F) During pyruvate decarboxylation, a molecule of CO2 is lost, leaving acetyl CoA.
True
305
What happens to the number of electrons when a reactant gets reduced?
reduction results in the gain of electrons.
OIL
RIG
306
(T/F) All enzymes in the body are proteins.
True
307
what is the optimal temp for most enzymes in the body?
37 C
308
How many chromosomes are in a human diploid cell?
46 chromosomes
309
How many chromosomes are in a human haploid cell?
23 chromosomes
310
What are the four types of asexual reproduction?
binary fission
budding
mitosis
parthenogenesis
311
What is parthenogenesis?
development of an egg into an embryo without fertilization
312
Starting with the ovary, name the different structures of a female reproductive tract.
```
Ovary
Oviduct (fallopian tube)
Uterus
Cervix
Vagine
```
313
What is a polar body?
small cell that results from unequal distribution of cytoplasm during meiosis
314
(T/F) Dizygotic (fraternal) twins are identical.
False.
| Monozygotic twins= identical.
315
Name the different structures of the male reproductive tract.
```
Seminiferious tubules
Epidermis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
n
Urethra
Penis
```
316
(T/F) Homologous code for different traits.
False.
317
In what phase of meiosis would one find a tetrad?
Prophase 1
318
(T/F) Synapsis and crossing over result in genetic recombination.
True
