flashcards_QA
(122 cards)
1
Q
Q1: What is the main objective of software testing
A
A1: To identify and fix defects in the software to ensure it meets the specified requirements and quality standards.
2
Q
Q2: What are the main types of software testing
A
A2: Unit testing_ integration testing_ system testing_ acceptance testing_ performance testing_ security testing_ and regression testing.
3
Q
Q3: What is unit testing
A
A3: Testing individual components or modules of a software application in isolation to ensure they work correctly.
4
Q
Q4: What is integration testing
A
A4: Testing the interaction between integrated units/modules to ensure they work together as expected.
5
Q
Q5: What is system testing
A
A5: Testing the complete and integrated software system to verify that it meets specified requirements.
6
Q
Q6: What is acceptance testing
A
A6: Testing conducted to determine if the software meets the business requirements and is ready for deployment.
7
Q
Q7: What is regression testing
A
A7: Re-testing software after changes to ensure that new defects have not been introduced and existing functionality is not broken.
8
Q
Q8: What are the main stages of the Software Testing Life Cycle (STLC)
A
A8: Requirement analysis_ test planning_ test case development_ environment setup_ test execution_ and test closure.
9
Q
Q9: What is a test plan
A
A9: A document outlining the scope_ approach_ resources_ and schedule for testing activities.
10
Q
Q10: What is a test case
A
A10: A set of conditions and steps to be executed to verify a particular feature or functionality of the software.
11
Q
Q11: What is a defect or bug
A
A11: A flaw or error in the software that causes it to produce incorrect or unexpected results.
12
Q
Q12: What is black-box testing
A
A12: Testing the software without knowledge of its internal code structure_ focusing on inputs and outputs.
13
Q
Q13: What is white-box testing
A
A13: Testing the internal structures or workings of an application_ also known as structural testing.
14
Q
Q14: What is exploratory testing
A
A14: An informal testing approach where testers actively explore the application to find defects without predefined test cases.
15
Q
Q15: What is automated testing
A
A15: Using software tools to execute pre-scripted tests on the software application before it is released into production.
16
Q
Q16: What is Active Directory
A
A16: A directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows domain networks_ providing authentication and authorization.
17
Q
Q17: What is a domain controller
A
A17: A server in an Active Directory domain that responds to security authentication requests (logging in_ checking permissions).
18
Q
Q18: What is Group Policy
A
A18: A feature of Windows Server that allows administrators to implement specific configurations for users and computers in the domain.
19
Q
Q19: What are the roles available in Windows Server
A
A19: Examples include Active Directory Domain Services_ DNS Server_ DHCP Server_ File and Storage Services_ Web Server (IIS)_ and more.
20
Q
Q20: What is Hyper-V
A
A20: A native hypervisor developed by Microsoft that allows for creating and managing virtual machines.
21
Q
Q21: What is DHCP and what does it do
A
A21: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol assigns IP addresses to devices on a network automatically.
22
Q
Q22: What is the difference between NTFS and ReFS
A
A22: NTFS (New Technology File System) is a file system that provides performance_ reliability_ and advanced features. ReFS (Resilient File System) is designed to offer improved data integrity_ availability_ and scalability.
23
Q
Q23: What are FSMO roles
A
A23: Flexible Single Master Operations roles are specialized domain controller tasks in an Active Directory environment.
24
Q
Q24: What is WSUS and what is its purpose
A
A24: Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is a server role that allows administrators to manage the distribution of updates released through Microsoft Update.
25
Q25: What is Server Core
A25: A minimal installation option for Windows Server that reduces the disk space_ servicing requirements_ and attack surface by excluding the GUI.
26
Q26: How do you promote a server to a domain controller
A26: By installing the AD DS role and using the dcpromo command or Server Manager to configure it as a domain controller.
27
Q27: What is a RODC
A27: A Read-Only Domain Controller holds a read-only copy of Active Directory database and is used in scenarios where security is a concern.
28
Q28: What is the purpose of Windows Server Backup
A28: To provide backup and recovery solutions for Windows Server environments.
29
Q29: What is PowerShell and why is it important
A29: PowerShell is a task automation and configuration management framework from Microsoft_ consisting of a command-line shell and associated scripting language. It is important for automating administrative tasks.
30
Q30: What is a GPO
A30: A Group Policy Object is a collection of settings that control the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts.
31
Q31: What is the OSI model and what are its layers
A31: The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions. Its layers are: Physical_ Data Link_ Network_ Transport_ Session_ Presentation_ and Application.
32
Q32: What is an IP address
A32: An IP address is a unique identifier assigned to a device on a network to facilitate communication.
33
Q33: What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6
A33: IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses allowing for 4.3 billion unique addresses_ whereas IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses allowing for a vastly larger number of unique addresses.
34
Q34: What is a subnet
A34: A subnet is a segmented piece of a larger network_ designed to improve performance and security.
35
Q35: What is a router and what does it do
A35: A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks_ directing traffic on the Internet.
36
Q36: What is a switch and what is its function
A36: A switch is a networking device that connects devices within a network and uses MAC addresses to forward data to the correct destination.
37
Q37: What is a VLAN
A37: A Virtual Local Area Network is a logical subdivision of a network that combines devices from different physical LANs into a single broadcast domain.
38
Q38: What is DNS and how does it work
A38: The Domain Name System translates human-readable domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses that computers use to identify each other on the network.
39
Q39: What is DHCP and why is it used
A39: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network.
40
Q40: What is NAT and why is it important
A40: Network Address Translation allows a single device_ such as a router_ to act as an agent between the Internet and a local network_ which helps to improve security and reduce the number of public IP addresses needed.
41
Q41: What is a firewall and what is its purpose
A41: A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
42
Q42: What is VPN and what is it used for
A42: A Virtual Private Network extends a private network across a public network_ allowing users to send and receive data as if their devices were directly connected to the private network.
43
Q43: What is the difference between TCP and UDP
A43: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is connection-oriented and ensures reliable data transmission_ whereas UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is connectionless and allows faster transmission but without reliability guarantees.
44
Q44: What is an SSL/TLS and why is it used
A44: Secure Sockets Layer / Transport Layer Security protocols are used to secure communications over a computer network by encrypting the data transmitted between devices.
45
Q45: What is the function of a network gateway
A45: A network gateway connects different networks_ allowing data to flow between them and translating protocols as necessary.
46
Q46: What is the function of an access point
A46: An access point allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi.
47
Q47: What is bandwidth
A47: Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a network path_ measured in bits per second (bps).
48
Q48: What is latency in networking
A48: Latency is the time it takes for a data packet to travel from the source to the destination across a network.
49
Q49: What is a MAC address
A49: A Media Access Control address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface for communications at the data link layer of a network segment.
50
Q50: What is port forwarding
A50: Port forwarding is a network technique used to allow external devices to access services on a private network by mapping an external port to an internal IP address and port.
51
Q51: What is a network topology
A51: Network topology refers to the arrangement of different elements (links_ nodes) in a computer network.
52
Q52: Name some common network topologies.
A52: Common network topologies include bus_ star_ ring_ mesh_ and hybrid topologies.
53
Q53: What is the difference between a hub and a switch
A53: A hub broadcasts data to all devices in a network segment_ whereas a switch sends data only to the specific device it is intended for.
54
Q54: What is Quality of Service (QoS)
A54: Quality of Service is a set of techniques to manage network resources and ensure the performance of critical applications by prioritizing certain types of traffic.
55
Q55: What is a network protocol
A55: A network protocol is a set of rules that govern data communications between devices in a network_ ensuring proper data transfer.
56
Q56: What is a collision domain
A56: A collision domain is a network segment where data packets can collide with each other when being sent on a shared medium_ causing network performance issues.
57
Q57: What is a broadcast domain
A57: A broadcast domain is a logical division of a network in which any broadcast sent over the network is heard by all devices within that segment.
58
Q58: What is an IPsec VPN
A58: An IPsec VPN uses Internet Protocol Security to encrypt and secure data transmission between two or more networks over an IP network.
59
Q59: What is the function of a proxy server
A59: A proxy server acts as an intermediary between a client and a server_ often used to improve security_ manage traffic_ and cache data.
60
Q60: What is SNMP
A60: Simple Network Management Protocol is used for network management_ monitoring_ and configuring network devices such as routers_ switches_ and servers.
61
Q61: What is an SSID
A61: Service Set Identifier is the name assigned to a Wi-Fi network_ used to identify and connect to the network.
62
Q62: What is 802.11
A62: 802.11 is a set of IEEE standards for wireless local area networking (Wi-Fi).
63
Q63: What is Ethernet
A63: Ethernet is a widely used network technology for local area networks (LANs) that defines wiring and signaling standards for the physical layer and protocols for the data link layer.
64
Q64: What is a traceroute
A64: Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool used to track the path that packets take from one network node to another_ helping to identify bottlenecks and routing issues.
65
Q65: What is the difference between a public IP address and a private IP address
A65: A public IP address is assigned to a device that is directly accessible over the Internet_ while a private IP address is used within a private network and not routable on the Internet.
66
Q66: What is Wireshark
A66: Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used to capture and interactively browse the traffic running on a computer network.
67
Q67: What is the purpose of a DHCP lease
A67: A DHCP lease defines the duration for which a DHCP server assigns an IP address to a client device. After the lease period expires_ the client must renew the lease.
68
Q68: What is a firewall rule
A68: A firewall rule is a set of criteria used to allow or block specific network traffic based on factors like IP address_ port number_ and protocol type.
69
Q69: What is load balancing
A69: Load balancing is the process of distributing network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server becomes overwhelmed_ improving responsiveness and availability.
70
Q70: What is BGP
A70: Border Gateway Protocol is a standardized exterior gateway protocol used to exchange routing information between different networks on the Internet.
71
Q71: What is MPLS
A71: Multi-Protocol Label Switching is a technique used to speed up and shape network traffic flows by assigning labels to data packets for efficient routing.
72
Q72: What is a WAN
A72: A Wide Area Network is a telecommunications network that extends over a large geographical area_ connecting multiple local area networks (LANs).
73
Q73: What is the purpose of network segmentation
A73: Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets to improve performance_ manageability_ and security.
74
Q74: What is a CDN
A74: A Content Delivery Network is a distributed network of servers that deliver web content and other digital assets to users based on their geographic location_ improving load times and reliability.
75
Q75: What is a network bridge
A75: A network bridge connects and filters traffic between two or more network segments_ making them act as a single network.
76
Q76: What is DMZ in networking
A76: A Demilitarized Zone is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization's external-facing services to an untrusted network_ typically the Internet_ while protecting the internal network.
77
Q77: What is a packet sniffer
A77: A packet sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network packets to monitor and troubleshoot network traffic.
78
Q78: What is a network interface card (NIC)
A78: A NIC is a hardware component that connects a computer to a network_ allowing it to communicate with other devices.
79
Q79: What is a network socket
A79: A network socket is an endpoint for sending or receiving data across a network. It includes the IP address and port number of the target device.
80
Q80: What is a network collision
A80: A network collision occurs when two or more devices on the same network segment attempt to send data simultaneously_ causing the packets to collide and be discarded.
81
Q1: What is smoke testing
A1: A preliminary test to check the basic functionality of the application_ ensuring that the major functions work and the build is stable enough for further testing.
82
Q2: What is sanity testing
A2: A subset of regression testing focused on verifying specific functionalities after minor changes_ ensuring they work as expected.
83
Q3: What is the difference between validation and verification
A3: Verification ensures the product is built correctly according to specifications_ while validation ensures the built product meets user needs and requirements.
84
Q4: What is a test suite
A4: A collection of test cases intended to test a software program to ensure that it meets specified requirements.
85
Q5: What is usability testing
A5: Testing to evaluate how easy and user-friendly the software is_ often involving real users to perform tasks.
86
Q6: What is boundary value analysis
A6: A testing technique that involves creating test cases based on boundary values of input domains to identify potential edge cases.
87
Q7: What is equivalence partitioning
A7: A testing technique that divides input data into equivalent partitions that can be tested with a single test case to reduce the total number of test cases.
88
Q8: What is a defect lifecycle
A8: The sequence of stages a defect goes through from identification to closure_ typically including states like New_ Assigned_ Fixed_ Verified_ and Closed.
89
Q9: What is exploratory testing
A9: An informal testing approach where testers actively explore the application to find defects without predefined test cases_ relying on their experience and intuition.
90
Q10: What is alpha testing
A10: Testing performed by the internal staff at the developer's site_ usually before releasing the product to external users or customers.
91
Q11: What is beta testing
A11: Testing performed by a select group of external users or customers in a real-world environment before the final release of the product.
92
Q12: What is test-driven development (TDD)
A12: A software development approach where test cases are written before the code is written_ ensuring the code meets the requirements from the start.
93
Q13: What is behavior-driven development (BDD)
A13: A software development approach that extends TDD by writing test cases in a natural language format_ facilitating communication between developers_ testers_ and non-technical stakeholders.
94
Q14: What is code coverage
A14: A measure used in software testing to describe the degree to which the source code is tested by a particular test suite.
95
Q15: What is a test environment
A15: The setup of software and hardware on which the test team will execute the test cases_ including operating systems_ network configurations_ databases_ and other components.
96
Q16: What is Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
A16: A feature that provides single sign-on (SSO) to authenticate a user across multiple web applications over the life of a single online session.
97
Q17: What is a forest in Active Directory
A17: A forest is the top-level container in an Active Directory structure that contains one or more domain trees and represents the security boundary within which users_ computers_ and other resources are accessible.
98
Q18: What is the purpose of the Global Catalog (GC)
A18: The Global Catalog is a distributed data repository that contains a searchable_ partial representation of every object in every domain within an Active Directory forest.
99
Q19: What is DFS (Distributed File System)
A19: DFS allows administrators to group shared folders located on different servers into one or more logically structured namespaces_ improving accessibility and manageability.
100
Q20: What is NIC teaming
A20: NIC teaming_ also known as Load Balancing and Failover (LBFO)_ is a feature that allows multiple network interface cards to be combined for redundancy and improved performance.
101
Q21: What is the difference between a full backup and an incremental backup
A21: A full backup copies all data_ whereas an incremental backup only copies data that has changed since the last backup.
102
Q22: What is the purpose of Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
A22: WSUS allows administrators to manage the distribution of updates released through Microsoft Update to computers in a corporate environment.
103
Q23: What is a shadow copy
A23: Shadow Copy is a feature that allows for creating snapshots of files or volumes at specific points in time_ providing backup and recovery options.
104
Q24: What is the difference between a primary and secondary DNS server
A24: The primary DNS server holds the original read-write copy of all zone records_ while the secondary DNS server contains a read-only copy and helps with load balancing and redundancy.
105
Q25: What is a Hyper-V Replica
A25: A feature that allows virtual machines to be replicated from one Hyper-V host to another for disaster recovery purposes.
106
Q26: What is the purpose of Server Manager in Windows Server
A26: Server Manager is a management console that provides a single interface for managing server roles_ features_ and configuration across multiple servers.
107
Q27: What is DirectAccess
A27: A feature that allows remote users to securely access internal network resources without the need for traditional VPN connections.
108
Q28: What is the purpose of Failover Clustering
A28: Failover Clustering provides high availability and scalability for applications and services by grouping multiple servers to work together as a single system.
109
Q29: What is BitLocker
A29: BitLocker is a data protection feature that encrypts the entire drive to protect data against unauthorized access if the computer is lost or stolen.
110
Q30: What are security policies and how are they applied in Windows Server
A30: Security policies define security settings for users and computers_ applied using Group Policy to enforce security standards across the network.
111
Q31: What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)
A31: A VPN allows secure_ encrypted connections over the Internet_ enabling remote access to a private network.
112
Q32: What is Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
A32: WDS is a network-based installation service that allows for the deployment of Windows operating systems to computers without needing physical media.
113
Q33: What is the purpose of Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
A33: RDS allows users to remotely access applications_ data_ and desktops hosted on a Windows Server from various devices and locations.
114
Q34: What is the purpose of the Event Viewer
A34: Event Viewer is a tool that allows administrators to view and analyze log data generated by the operating system and applications for troubleshooting and monitoring purposes.
115
Q35: What is the Windows Server Core installation option
A35: Server Core is a minimal installation option that includes only the essential components needed to run specific server roles_ reducing the attack surface and maintenance requirements.
116
Q36: What is a Virtual LAN (VLAN)
A36: A VLAN is a logical grouping of network devices that can be managed as if they were on the same physical network_ enhancing network segmentation and management.
117
Q37: What is the role of a DHCP relay agent
A37: A DHCP relay agent forwards DHCP requests and replies between clients and servers when they are not on the same physical subnet_ facilitating network configuration in larger environments.
118
Q38: What is the purpose of the Windows Server Backup feature
A38: Windows Server Backup provides backup and recovery solutions for Windows Server environments_ allowing administrators to protect and restore data.
119
Q39: What is iSCSI and its role in Windows Server
A39: Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is a protocol that allows clients to send SCSI commands to storage devices over IP networks_ enabling the use of remote storage as if it were local.
120
Q40: What is the purpose of the Print Management console
A40: The Print Management console allows administrators to manage printers and print servers across the network_ including deploying and managing printers_ drivers_ and print queues.
121
What is Quality Assurance?
It encompasses all activities designed to ensure the software development and maintenance processes are adequate to produce a quality product. This includes process management, methodologies (e.g., Agile, Waterfall), and standards (e.g., ISO, CMMI).
122
What are the key QA practices?
- **Code Reviews**: Regularly reviewing code to catch errors early.
- **Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD)**: Automating the build, testing, and deployment processes.
- **Automation Testing**: Using tools like Selenium, JUnit, or TestNG to automate repetitive tests.
- **Defect Management**: Tracking and managing defects from detection to resolution.
