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B777 Flight Controls > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

Flight Controls

1
Q

What are the three flight control modes?

A

Normal, Secondary, Direct.

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2
Q

How are the primary flight controls powered?

A

Redundant hydraulic sources.

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3
Q

How are the flaps and slats powered after a hydraulic failure?

A

Electrically (as backup).

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4
Q

How are the control column and wheels connected to each other?

A

Through jam override mechanisms.

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5
Q

How are the rudder pedals connected to each other?

A

Rigidly between the two sides.

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6
Q

How many Primary Flight Control computers are there?

A

3

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7
Q

How many Actuator Control Electronics units are there?

A

4

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8
Q

Which unit receives the pilot control orders directly?

A

ACEs (Actuator Control Electronics units)

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9
Q

Where do the ACEs send the pilot control orders?

A

To the primary flight control computers (PFCs)

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10
Q

Why do the PFCs receive other aircraft system data?

A

To compute appropriate control surface commands for enhanced handling qualities.

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11
Q

Where do the PFCs send control commands?

A

PFCs send the control commands back to the ACEs (to position the flight control surfaces).

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12
Q

Where are autopilot commands sent?

A

To the PFCs (which then produce control surface commands).

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13
Q

When do the flaperons droops?

A

For use as flaps increased lift, drops (move aft & down) in proportion to trailing edge flap extension.

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14
Q

When do the ailerons droop?

A

When flaps 5, 15 or 20 set for T/O.

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15
Q

What surfaces are locked out in normal mode?

A

Ailerons & spoilers 5 & 10 locked out during high speed flight.

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16
Q

Why does the rudder have a mechanical hinged tab?

A

Hinged tab deflects twice as far as rudder control surface for additional yaw control authority.

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17
Q

How are the pilot controls affected during autopilot operation?

A

Autopilot commands move the pilots controls to provide indications of what the autopilot is doing.

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18
Q

What is the effect of pilot override on the controls during autopilot operation?

A

Autopilot disconnects (PFCs disconnect the autopilot and use the pilot control inputs).

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19
Q

In which flight control modes is autopilot available?

A

Normal mode only.

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20
Q

When is the PFC self-­‐test performed?

A

After hydraulic systems are shut down (2 mins after EICAS caution message HYD PRESS SYS +C+R shows).

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the flight envelope protection system?

A

Reduces possibility of inadvertently exceeding the aircraft’s flight envelope.

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22
Q

How does the system provide crew awareness of envelope margins?

A

Through tactile, aural and visual cures (no reduction in pilot control authority).

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23
Q

In secondary mode, which protections are not available?

A

• Autopilot. • Auto speed brakes. • Envelope protection. • Gust suppression. • Thrust asymmetry compensation (TAC). • Yaw damping (may be degraded or inoperative). • Tail strike protection.

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24
Q

Which surfaces are provided during mechanical backup operation?

A

Stabiliser and selected spoilers (4 & 11) are controlled by DCT cables FM FLT deck (allows pilot to fly S&L until electrical system is restarted).

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25
Q

On the ground, what are the trim switches on the control wheel for?

A

Stabiliser is directly positioned when the pilot uses the pitch trim switches.

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26
Q

What surface do the primary pitch trim switches move in flight?

A

Pitch trim switches do not position the stabiliser directly, but do make inputs to the PFCs to chance the trim reference speed.

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27
Q

How is the autopilot affected by the alternate pitch trim levers?

A

Autopilot does not disconnect, but does move stabiliser.

28
Q

At what speed is nose up trim inhibited?

A

Minimum manoeuvring speed (stall protection limits trim reference speed –> inhibits trim in nose up direction).

29
Q

How are column forces affected when flying near stall speed?

A

Column forces increase to higher level than would occur for an equivalent out-­‐of-­‐trim condition ABV the minimum manoeuvring speed.

30
Q

When can the autothrottle support stall protection?

A

If armed and not activated (if speed decreases to stick shaker activation, autothrottle activates in appropriate mode [SPD or THR REF] advancing thrust to maintain minimum manoeuvring speed or speed set in MCP speed window, whichever is greater).

31
Q

. When will overspeed protection occur?

A

At VMO/MMO.

32
Q

When does elevator variable feel occur?

A

In normal mode (force increases as airspeed increases & column displacement increases).

33
Q

In secondary and direct modes, what do control column command?

A

Proportional elevator deflection (instead of a manoeuvre command).

34
Q

How is elevator feel different in secondary and direct modes?

A

Feels vary W/ flap position (increases W/ flaps up to discourage overcontrol, decreases W/ flaps extended to provide force levels appropriate for APP & LDG).

35
Q

How many hydraulic systems power the stabiliser??

A

2 (C & R hydraulic systems).

36
Q

If the automatic protection fails, how can stabiliser hydraulic power be removed?

A

Placing both stabiliser cutout switches to the CUTOUT position (aisle stand).

37
Q

How is stabiliser greenband calculation performed?

A

Using FMC inputs of CoG, GW and T/O thrust.

38
Q

How is the greenband calculation crosschecked?

A

Nose gear oleo pressure switch (switch must be selected to nose up or nose down band, then the pressure switch is compared to the computed greenband).

39
Q

Which surfaces are cables driven through the control wheels?

A

Spoilers 4 & 11.

40
Q

How is aileron trim indicated?

A

Indicated on a scale on the top of each control column.

41
Q

When is aileron trim inhibited?

A

When autopilot engaged.

42
Q

When is bank angle protection enabled?

A

When bank angle exceeds 35o (bank angle protection boundary).

43
Q

How does airspeed affect rudder pedal forces?

A

Does not vary with airspeed (only proportional to rudder pedal displacement).

44
Q

Which component reduces rudder authority at higher airspeeds?

A

Rudder ratio changer.

45
Q

When does thrust asymmetry compensation occur?

A

When L & R engine’s thrust differs by > 10%, except when: • Airspeed < 70kts on GND. • Reverse thrust being used. • Engine thrust data lost.

46
Q

Does TAC move the rudder pedals?

A

Yes (rudder movement back-­‐driven through rudder pedals, proportionately to difference in engine thrust)

47
Q

. In which mode and to what speed is wheel to rudder cross-­‐tie available?

A

210kts in normal mode.

48
Q

What does yaw damping provide?

A

Provides turn coordination and Dutch roll damping.

49
Q

Does gust suppression move the rudder pedals?

A

No (only improves lateral ride quality through combination of roll & yaw movements).

50
Q

In what modes are gust suppression and TAC available?

A

Normal mode only.

51
Q

Which surfaces are used as ground speedbrakes?

A

All spoilers (7 sets on each wing [5 outboard, 2 inboard]).

52
Q

If ARMED, when do the speedbrakes extend?

A

When LDG gear firmly on the GND (no tilt) and thrust levers idle.

53
Q

Does the speedbrake lever move automatically for extension?

A

Yes (in normal mode only).

54
Q

If not ARMED, what action causes speedbrake extension?

A

When either reverse thrust lever moved to reverse idle detent.

55
Q

What is the purpose of the Krueger flap?

A

Provides a seal between inboard slat and engine nacelle on each wing.

56
Q

What surfaces move with FLAP 1 selected?

A

Slats only.

57
Q

What are the takeoff flap positions?

A

Flap 5, 15 and 20 (25 & 30 for LDG).

58
Q

Above what altitude is flap extension inhibited?

A

20000’ (or 265kts).

59
Q

When will the slats move to the fully extended position?

A

Flap 25 or 30.

60
Q

When is secondary slat/flap mode automatically engaged?

A

Whenever primary mode fails to move the flaps or slats to the selected position.

61
Q

How are the slats affected in secondary mode?

A

When flaps not up (in secondary mode), slats will: • Fully extend if airspeed < 246kts. • Move to the midrange position if the airspeed > 246kts (or will not extend beyond midrange position).

62
Q

How do the slats and flaps extend in alternate mode?

A

Simultaneously. Pilot must manually select alternate mode. Alternate mode allows DCT manual operation of flaps & slats through the secondary drive electric motors.

63
Q

In which flap positions is load relief available?

A

Flap 15 to 30 in primary mode only.

64
Q

In which mode is slat load relief available?

A

Slat load relief in secondary mode only.

65
Q

How does autoslat operation enhance stall characteristics?

A

Upon receiving signal FM the stall warning, slats automatically extend FM midrange to fully extended LDG position à reduces stall speed.

66
Q

When will the expanded flap indication be displayed?

A

When any flap/slat is non-­‐normal, including secondary and alternate mode.

B777 Flight Controls (1 decks)

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