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Flashcards in Flight Rules and Regulations Deck (42)
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IDENTIFY the organization responsible for the publication of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) and the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

Federal Aviation Administration


DESCRIBE the relationship between FAR Part 91, OPNAVINST 3710.7, and the AIM

FAR 91

  • entitled "General Operating and Flight Rules"
  • Regulations which apply to all aviators in the U.S., military and civilian


  • "Aeronautical Information Manual"
  • Guide to basic flight information and air traffic control procedures
  • Non-regulatry


  • "NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions"
  • rules governing the operation of naval aircraft throughout the world
  • certain departures from FARs are authorized by specific waivers.


LIST the regulatory priority of applicable Department of the Navy (DON), Department of Defense (DOD), and Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) publications

Priority of Regulations:
  2. 3710.7 (DON)
  3. FLIPS (DOD)
  4. FAR/AIM (FAA)

DON and DOD publications apply worldwide.


IDENTIFY "shall", "should", "may", and "will" as per OPNAVINST 3710.7

  • shall: mandatory
  • should: recommended
  • May: optional
  • Will: indicates futurity, not a degree of requirement


IDENTIFY the responsibilities of Air Traffic Control (ATC), Flight Service Station (FSS), Control Tower, Approach Control (APC), and the Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

Air Traffic Control (ATC)

  • Enforces FAR Part 91
  • Approves flight plans 
  • grants clearances

The following are all ATC sub-agiencies:

Flight Service Station (FSS)

  • provides pilot briefings, en-route communications, some search and rescue services, originates NOTAMs, processes flight plans, etc.
  • "Base Operations" at military airfields provide these services

Control Tower

  • Responsible for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic operating on an din the vicinity of an airport
  • three frequencies:
    • Clearance Delivery: relays IFR clearances
    • Ground: aircraft movement on the ground
    • Tower: clearance to takeoff and land

Approach Control (APC)

  • primary function is to control Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) traffic in the terminal area 

Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) "Center"

  • controls IFR traffic enroute (i.e. IFR traffic that is between terminal areas)


IDENTIFY the responsibilities of the Pilot in Command

FAR defines PIC as "the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of an aircraft during flight time. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft."

3710.7 defines PIC as "the pilot who is assigned by the unit commander, or a delegated authority, the responsibility for the safe, orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew.


IDENTIFY the OPNAVINST 3710.7 requirements for preflight planning

The PIC shall be familiar with all availiable information appropriate to the intended operation. This includes, but is not limited to:

  • available weather reports and forecasts
  • NOTAMs
  • fuel requirements
  • alternate airfields available
  • any anticipated traffic delays


IDENTIFY the purpose of a flight plan

  • relays important info to departure, destination, and intermediate agencies
  • establishes a baseline for lost communication and missing aircraft procedures if necessary


IDENTIFY the pilot's responsibilities for acquiring a flight weather brief

  • Naval avaiators shall be thoroughly familiar with weather conditions for the area of flight
  • For flights under Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), naval aviators shall obtain a flight route weather brief from a DOD qualified forecaster or approved forecasting service.


IDENTIFY the provision which allows deviation from established rules

Both the FAR and 3710.7 allow pilots to deviate from established rules during emergencies requiring immediate action.

The PIC must be ready to answer for such deviations.


IDENTIFY the pilot's responsibilities concerning Authorized Airfields, Fuel Purchases, and Closing of Flight Plans

Authorized Airfields:

  • PIC shall ensure they are aware of and meet airfield operating requirements and, when necessary, have satisified prior permission required (PPR) requirements.

Civilian Airfields

  • Permitted when such operations contribute to mission accomplishment, add value to training, or are otherwise in the interests of the government.
  • The following should be considered:
    • local or special procedures
    • Runway length and taxi load bearing capabilities
    • DOD contract services for fueling and servicing
    • appropriate security and force protection plans

Fuel Purchases

  • PIC shall make every effort to puchase fuel from military or government contract sources
  • Non-contract fuel is only authorized when:
    • Mission requirements dictate
    • Flight terminated as the result of emergency
    • Flight terminated at an alternate airport

Closing Flight Plans

  • responsibility of the PIC/formation leader
  • Military installations: pilot shall verbally confirm the closing of the flight plan with tower or base ops or deliver a copy of the flight plan form to base operations
  • Non-military installations: Closed with flight service through any means available
  • Cancellation of an instrument flight plan while airborne does not meet requirements for "closing out" the flight plan. A landing report must be delivered.


IDENTIFY the OPNAVINST 3710.7 requirements for Safety and Survival equipment, including Safety Belt and Shoulder Harness, Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment, Life Rafts, and Parachutes

Safety belt and shoulder harness:

  • shall be worn and tightened, between takeoff and landing, by each person, except when necessary duties require temporary removal.
  • Inertial reels shall be manually locked for all takeoffs and landings, and at all other times when high g forces may be encountered

Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment

(certain items may be omitted for cargo/transport category airplanes)

  • Protective helmit
  • boots
  • gloves
  • flight suit
  • ID tags
  • survival knife
  • personal survival kit
  • signal device (night flights, flights over water, etc._
  • survival radios
  • emergency beacon
  • flashlight (night flights)
  • dry suits (when required)
  • g-suits (in aircraft equipped for their use)
  • life preserver (near water, duh)
  • laser eye protection (suspected threat environment)
  • Supplemental Emergency Breathing Devices (SEBD) (helicopters, tilt-rotor, E-2, C-2)
  • CBRND (threat areas)

Life Rafts

  • Must be carried when there is a significant risk of water entry in the event of a mishap


  • PIC must ensure a parachutes are available for all flight personnel and passengers
  • All flight personnel and passengers must be familiar with the location, type of parachute, and bailout procedures
  • Increased risk of injury when surface winds exceed 25 knots


IDENTIFY the requirements for oxygen use

As a general rule, all occupants shall use supplamental oxygen when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000'.

  • The pilot at the controls and aircrew participation in physical activity shall use supplemental oxygen continuously above 10,000' cabin altitude
  • When oxygen is not available to all occupants, flight between 10,000' and 13,000' shall not exceed 3 hours, and flight above 13,000' is prohibited
  • Aircraft without any supplamental oxygen shall not exceed 1 hour above 10,000' and shall not exceed 12,000'

Tactical Jet

  • Oxygen shall be used by all occupants from takeoff to landing.


IDENTIFY principle factors affecting aircrew performance

  • dehydration (most treatable cause of fatigue)
  • weather
  • extreme temperatures
  • nighttime operations
  • use of vision imaging systems
  • mission delays
  • use of PPE and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)
  • duration of duty period
  • quality and duration of sleep
  • amount of recent flying
  • jet lag
  • physical health
  • additional duties
  • misuse of alcohol, caffeine, tobacco, or supplements


IDENTIFY the OPNAVINST 3710.7 regulations for Human Performance and Aeromedical Factors

Crew rest and sleep:

  • crew rest is the non-duty time before a flight duty period begins.
  • must include an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep for every 24 hr period
  • Flight crew should not be scheduled for continuous alert or flight duty in excess of 18 hours.


  • Use of prescription and OTC drugs by flight personnel is prohibited unless specifically approved by a flight surgeon.
  • Consumption of alcohol is prohibited within 12 hours of any mission brief or flight planning. In addtion, aircrew must be free of hangover effects prior to flight
  • Tobacco-use prohibited in naval aircraft
  • Caffeine-excessive intake should be avoided

Pregnancy- grounded


  • All illnesses shall be evaluated by flight surgeons

Immunizations and injections

  • Flight personnel shall not participate in flight duties for 12 hours after receiving an immunization or injection

Blood donation

  • Flight personnel grounded for 4 days following donation of 1 pint of blood



DESCRIBE runway orientation

Magnetic direction rounded to nearest 10° with last digit removed. (e.g. airplane would have a heading of 090° on runway 09)


IDENTIFY airport visual devices, including Aldis lamp signals, airport signs, waveoff signals, visual wind/landing indicators, and airport lighting

ALDIS lamp

  • Steady Green
    • Ground - cleared to take off
    • Air - Cleared to land
  • Flashing Green
    • Ground-  cleared to taxi
    • Air - Return for landing
  • Steady Red
    • Ground - stop
    • Air - give way to other aircraft cont. circling
  • Flashing Red
    • Ground - taxi clear of runway in use
    • Air - Airport unsafe do not land
  • Flashing White
    • Ground - Return to starting point on airport
    • Air - not used
  • Alternating red and green
    • exercise extreme caution

Airport signs

  • Mandatory Instruction- white letters red background
  • Location- yellow letters yellow borders black background (black square, you're there)
  • Direction- black letters yellow background
  • Destination- black letters yellow background
  • Information-black letters yellow background
  • Runway remaining- white letters black background

Waveoff signals- red flare, hand paddles or flags or aldis lights or runway waveoff light within the approach lighting system

Visual wind/landing indicators- Wind cone, wind sock or wind tee. The large end of the wind cone or sock points into the wind as does the large end of the crossbar.

Airport lighting- Approach Light System ALS, Visual Glideslope indicators, VASI, IFOLS, SGSI, Runway edge lights etc.


IDENTIFY the following terms: Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), Visual Flight Rules (VFR), and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

Visual Meteorological (VMC): flight weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling, which are equal to or better than a specified minima.
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC): Flight weather conditions which are less than the minama specified for VMC. IMC also exists whenever a visible horizon is not distinguishable.
Visual Flight Rules (VFR): Rules governing the procedures for conducting flight under visual conditions.
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR): Rules governing the procedures for conducting flight under instrument conditions.


IDENTIFY the principle of see and avoid

When weather conditions permit, regardless of flight plan, pilots are required to observe the presence of, and maneuver to avoid other aircraft.


IDENTIFY the weather requirements for VFR flight, including takeoff, en route, and destination weather

Takeoff: Ceiling must be at least 1000’ AGL with prevailing visibility at 3sm or greater.
Enroute: Maintain VMC throughout flight per the weather criteria for the classification of airspace being flown in.
Destination: 1000’ ceiling / 3sm visibility minimum (ETA +/- 1 hr)


IDENTIFY the alternatives if en route weather is less than required for VFR flight

  1. Alter route of flight so as to continue under VMC
  2. Remain in VMC until a change of flight plan is filed and IFR clearance is obtained
  3. Remain in VMC and land at a suitable alternate


IDENTIFY the general requirements for IFR

  • Must have an ATC clearance in controlled airspace
  • Aircraft must be certified and equipped for IFR flight
  • Pilot must be instrument rated and current

All flights in naval aircraft shall be conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules to the maximum extent practicable.


IDENTIFY the requirements for IFR flight, including instrument approaches, landing minimums, destination and alternate flight planning weather minimums, and IFR fuel requirements

Instrument Approach Landing Minimums:

  • Published in DOD FLIP for specific approaches.
  • Multi-Piloted Aircraft: an approach may be attempted when weather is at or below minimums only if the aircraft is able to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach
    • May also apply to single-pilot aircraft with an assisting NFO if certain criteria are met.
  • Single-Piloted Aircraft: shall not attempt an approach if reported weather is below minimums.
    • Absolute minimums for a precision approach are 200 ft ceilings (or HAT) and visibility 1/2 SM (or 2400' RVR)
  • Pilots may not descend below MDA or DH unless:
    1. they have the runway environment in sight and
    2. a safe landing can be executed
  • When directed by a controller, execution of a missed approach is mandatory

IFR fuel requirements

  • No alternate required: fuel required to destination, plus 10% fuel reserve, but at least 20 minutes (same as VFR)
  • Alternate required: sufficient fuel to fly to approach fix at destination, then to an alternate, plus 10% fuel reserve, but at least 20 minutes



IDENTIFY the rules concerning VFR and IFR cruising altitudes

VFR: Above 3000 AGL and below 18,000' MSL

  • Courses 360 to 179 Odd thousands plus 500
  • Courses 180 to 359 Even thousands plus 500

(NEODD SWEVEN) or (East is odd, West is Even odder)

IFR: Below 18,000' MSL:

  • Courses 360 to 179 Odd thousands
  • Courses 180 to 359 Even thousands

Flights above 18000' MSL but below FL 290:

  • Courses 360 to 179 Odd flight levels
  • Courses 180 to 359 Even flight levels

Flights at FL 290 or above:

  • Courses 360 to 179 any flight level at 4000' intervals beginning at FL 290
  • Courses 180 to 359 any flight level at 4000' intervals beginning at FL 310


IDENTIFY aerobatic flight

Intentional maneuver involving bank angles greater than 60 degrees, pitch angles greater than +/- 45 degrees, or accelerations greater than 2.0g


IDENTIFY the rules concerning aerobatic flight

No aerobatic flight when

  • over any congested area of a city town or settlement
  • over an open air assembly of persons
  • within class b, c, d, or e airspace
  • below an altitude of 1500 foot AGL
  • When visibility is less than 3 SM
  • 3710.7 adds:
    • if prohibited by a particular aircraft NATOPS manual
    • stretches jurisdiction world wide


IDENTIFY the rules concerning unusual maneuvers in class B, C, and D airspace, in a classroom

Pilots shall not perform or request clearance to perform unusual maneuvers in class b c or d airspace if such maneuvers are not essential to the performance of the flight. ATC personnel are not permitted to approve a pilots request, or ask a pilot to perform these manuvers.


IDENTIFY the difference between controlled and uncontrolled airspace

Controlled Airspace: A generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace and defined dimensions within which air traffic control service in provided. ATC has the ability and authority to control that airspace

Uncontrolled Airspace: A generic term for all airspace under FAA jurisdiction that is not Class A B C D or E and in which no ATC services are provided.


IDENTIFY the dimensions of and requirements for entry into the following controlled airspaces: Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, and Class G

  • Class A : All airspace from 18000’ MSL up to FL600 overlying continental US.
    • Must operate under IFR.
    • Pilot and aircraft must be instrument certified.
    • Transponder with Mode C.
    • IFR clearance must be received from ATC
  • Class B: Generally consists of airspace from the surface to 10000’ MSL surrounding the busiest airports in terms of IFR operations and passenger boardings. It has two or more layers.
    • Pilot must have Private Pilot Cert. or higher 
    • Operable VOR or TACAN receiver
    • Transponder with mode C
    • ATC clearance
    • Establish two-way radio communications with ATC prior to entry.
  • Class C: Generally consists of airspace from the surface to 4000’ surrounding airports that have an operational control tower.
    • operable transponder with mode
    • establish two way radio comms with ATC prior
  • Class D: consists of the airspace extending from the surface to 2500’ AGL surrounding airports with an operational control tower.
    • Two way radio comms with ATC need to be established.
  • Class E: is the controlled airspace that is not designated Class A B C D begins at 14,500 MSL (really 1200' or 700' AGL over most of U.S.) no defined vertical limit except for 18000’ MSL.
    • VFR aircraft must volunteer for control
  • Class G: Uncontrolled airspace


IDENTIFY the dimensions of and types of airspace that make up VOR airways and Jet Routes

VOR Airways: identified by letter V followed by a number. They extend from 1200’ AGL to but not including 18000 MSL. Width is 4nm on either side of center line.

Jet Routes: standardize routing in class A airspace and are designated by the letter J and a number. They extend from 18000’ MSL to FL450 and have no defined width.