Flows Flashcards
(312 cards)
1
Q
Safety Check Overall Flow
A
CAPTAIN OR FIRST OFFICER SAFETY CHECK FLOW • NOSE WHEEL STEERING • HYDRAULIC PUMPS • LANDING GEAR LEVER • FLAP LEVER • SPOILER LEVER • RADAR • PARKING BRAKE • ADG MANUAL RELEASE • BATTERY MASTER • FFOD FIREX MONITOR TEST • AC POWER
2
Q
Firex FFOD Test
A
L / R JET / ENGINE and APU loops ………………………………………………………………………………………………………. BOTH
TEST …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….WARN and hold
Check:
• Triple chime/master warning lights
• Aural Warning: Fire bell / “JET PIPE OVERHEAT”
• The following switch/lights illuminated:
– L / R ENG FIRE PUSH
– APU FIRE PUSH
– L / R BOTTLE 1 / 2 ARMED PUSH TO DISCH
– APU BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH
• ED-1 warning messages displayed:
– APU FIRE
– R / L JETPIPE OVERHEAT
– R / L ENG FIRE
TEST …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….RELEASE
Check:
• All indications are normal
TEST ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….FAIL and hold
Check:
• Single chime/master caution lights
• ED-1 caution messages:
– APU FIRE FAIL
– R / L JET OVHT FAIL
– R / L FIRE FAIL
TEST …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….RELEASE
Check:
• All indications return to normal
ENGINE BOTTLE 1 / 2 and APU …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….TEST
Check:
• ED-2 advisory messages:
– L / R ENG SQUIB 1 / 2
– APU SQUIB 1 / 2
ENGINE BOTTLE 1 / 2 and APU switches …………………………………………………………………………………………….. NORM
Check:
• All indications return to normal
3
Q
Originating Flow
A
CAPTAIN ORIGINATING CHECK FLOW • ELECTRICS • FFOD CARGO FIRE TEST • LIGHTS • FUEL PANEL • BLEEDS • FFOD BLEED DETECTION TEST • START PANEL • HYDRAULIC TEST • PRESSURIZATION • AIR CONDITIONING • ANTI-ICE • FFOD ICE DETECTOR TEST • EMERGENCY LIGHTS • FFOD EGPWS TEST • FFOD STALL TEST • CLOCKS • EFIS • FFOD CVR TEST • STANDBY INSTRUMENTS • O2 PRESSURE • UPPER PEDESTAL • FFOD MLG OVERHEAT TEST • THRUST LEVER QUADRANT • LOWER PEDESTAL • FFOD RADAR TEST • FFOD STAB TRIM TEST
4
Q
Originating Electrics
A
ELECTRICS …………………………………………………………………………………………..CHECKED CP
Check:
DC SERVICE …………………………………………………………………………………………………. OFF
DC switch/light ………………………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
AC switch/light ………………………………………………………………………………………………..(___)
BATTERY MASTER …………………………………………………………………………………………. ON
IDG 1 / 2 DISC ……………………………………………………………………………………… GUARDED
AC ESS XFER ………………………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
GEN 1 / 2 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………. OFF
APU GEN ………………………………………………………………………………………………………(___)
AUTO XFER (both)…………………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
DC TIE 1 / 2 and ESS TIE ………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
5
Q
Originating FFOD Cargo Fire Test
A
FFOD CARGO FIRE TEST …………………………………………………………….. COMPLETE CP
CARGO BOTTLE …………………………………………………………………………. TEST 1 and hold
Check:
• Aural Warning “SMOKE”
• Triple chime/master warning lights
• ED-1: SMOKE CARGO warning message
• ED-2: CARGO SQUIB 1 advisory message
• CARGO FIREX panel:
NORMAL and STANDBY CARGO SMOKE PUSH lights illuminated
NORMAL, BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH light illuminated
CARGO BOTTLE ……………………………………………………………………………………. NORMAL
Check:
• All indications return to normal
CARGO BOTTLE …………………………………………………………………………. TEST 2 and hold
Check:
• Triple chime/master warning lights
• Aural Warning “SMOKE”
• ED-1: SMOKE CARGO warning message
• ED-2: CARGO SQUIB 2 advisory message
• CARGO FIREX panel:
NORMAL and STANDBY CARGO SMOKE PUSH lights illuminated
STANDBY, BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH light illuminated
CARGO BOTTLE ……………………………………………………………………………………. NORMAL
Check:
• All indications return to normal.
6
Q
Originating Lights
A
NAV ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ON
LOGO (night operations) ……………………………………………………………………………………. ON
7
Q
Originating Fuel Panel
A
FUEL PANEL ………………………………………………………………………………………….CHECKED CP
L / R BOOST PUMP ……………………………………………………………………DESELECT / INOP
GRAVITY XFLOW …………………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE ………………………………………………DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
L / R XFLOW ………………………………………………………………….DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
8
Q
Originating Bleeds
A
BLEEDS ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… SET CP
L / R 14TH STAGE BLEED AIR ……………………………………………..SELECT / EXTINGUISH
14th STAGE ISOL valve …………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
L / R 10th STAGE ………………………………………………………………….DESELECT / CLOSED
APU LCV ……………………………………………………………………….DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
10th STAGE ISOL ……………………………………………………………DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
9
Q
FFOD Bleed Detection Test
A
FFOD BLEED DETECTION TEST …………………………………………………………. COMPLETE CP
DUCT MON knob …………………………………………………………………………………………. TEST
Check:
• Triple chime/master warning lights
• “BLEED AIR DUCT” aural warning
• ED-1: L / R 10th and L / R 14th DUCT, ANTI ICE DUCT warning message
• ED-2: DUCT TEST OK advisory message displayed
• Bleed Air Panel: L / R 10th and L / R 14th DUCT FAIL warning lights illuminated
• Anti-Ice Panel: DUCT FAIL warning light illuminated
DUCT MON knob ……………………………………………………………………………………….. NORM
Check:
• All indications return to normal
10
Q
Originating Start Panel
A
START PANEL ……………………………………………………………………………………….CHECKED CP
L / R ENG START / STOP ………………………………………………………………….. EXTINGUISH
IGNITION A / B ……………………………………………………………….DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
CONT IGNITION …………………………………………………………….DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
11
Q
Hydraulic Test
A
Select ED-2 HYD synoptic page.
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A …………………………………………………………………………………… OFF
HYDRAULIC PUMPS 1, 3B, 2 ……………………………………………………………………………. ON
Check:
• ED-2: Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3 fluid temperature, quantity, and pressure
indications are normal
HYDRAULIC PUMPS 1, 3B, 2 …………………………………………………………………………AUTO
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A …………………………………………………………………………………….. ON
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A …………………………………………………………………………………… OFF
NOTE: Verify aircraft is chocked and the parking brake is ON. With flaps set at zero,
HYD 1 and 2 LO PRESS caution messages are inhibited
12
Q
Originating Pressurization
A
PRESSURIZATION …………………………………………………………………………………CHECKED CP
PASS OXY ………………………………………………………………………EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
MAN ALT …………………………………………………………………………………………………CENTER
MAN RATE …………………………………………………………………………………FULL DECREASE
PRESS CONT ………………………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
EMER DEPRESS …………………………………………DESELECT / EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
Check:
• ED-2: Cabin altitude approximately equal to field elevation
• ED-2: Cabin ΔP equal to zero
13
Q
Originating Air Conditioning
A
L / R PACK …………………………………………………………………………………. DESELECT / OFF
RAM AIR ……………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
CKPT / CABIN MAN ………………………………………………………..DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
CARGO FAN …………………………………………………………………………………………COND AIR
14
Q
Originating Anti Ice
A
WING ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. OFF
LH / RH COWL ………………………………………………………………………………………………. OFF
LH / RH WSHLD ……………………………………………………………………………………………. LOW
LH / RH PROBES …………………………………………………………………………………………… OFF
15
Q
FFOD Ice Detector Test
A
DET TEST ............................................................................................................... PRESS Depending on actual wing temperature, one of the following will occur: Check: • ICE light illuminated • ED-1: ICE caution message Or: Check: • ED-2: ICE advisory message
16
Q
Originating Emergency Lights
A
Arm
17
Q
FFOD EGPWS Test
A
PULL UP / GND PROX ………………………………………………………………………………. PRESS
Check:
• PULL UP / GND PROX switch/light: Amber GND PROX illuminated
• ED-2: TERRAIN FAIL, GPWS FAIL, and WINDSHEAR FAIL status messages
• Aural warning: “GLIDE SLOPE, WHOOP, WHOOP, PULL UP”
• PULL UP / GND PROX switch/light: Red PULL UP illuminated
• Aural warning: “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
• PFD: Red flashing WINDSHEAR master warning
• PFD: Amber flashing WINDSHEAR master caution
• Aural warning: “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, WHOOP, WHOOP, PULL UP”
• MFD: Cyan terrain test display
• MFD: Terrain display test pattern
18
Q
FFOD Stall Test
A
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A …………………………………………………………………………………….. ON
FLAPS ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 0
STAB TRIM ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 6.0
STALL PTCT PUSHER L / R………………………………………………………………………………. ON
STALL ………………………………………………………………………………………………………. PRESS
Check:
• Stick shaker activation (CP)
• IGNITION Panel CONT switch/light illuminates ON
• CONT IGNITION status message displayed
• Stick shaker activation (FO)
• Stick pusher activation
• STALL switch/light flashing
• Stick pusher deactivated
• STALL switch/light extinguished
• Stick shaker deactivates (CP/FO)
• IGNITION panel CONT switch/light extinguished
• CONT IGNITION status message extinguished
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A …………………………………………………………………………………… OFF
19
Q
FFOD CVR Test
A
TEST .......................................................................................PRESS / HOLD (5 seconds) Check: • Needle enters green arc OR • Green light illuminates
20
Q
Originating Standby Instruments
A
COMPASS …………………………………………………………………………………………….CHECKED
Check:
• Compass magnetic heading corresponds with AHRS heading on the L / R PFD /
MFD
• Compass correction card is properly displayed
STANDBY ATTITUDE INDICATOR ……………………………………………………………. UNCAGE
Check:
• SAI is erect and no flags displayed (except GS and LOC)
Aircraft with Integrated Standby Indicators (ISI), check:
• ALIGNING flag not displayed
: The ISI cage button resets the horizon to zero when pressed for more
than 2 seconds.
STANDBY ALTIMETER ……………………………………………………………………………….CHECK
Check:
• Altitude readout with CP and FO altimeters
STANDBY AIRSPEED INDICATOR ………………………………………………………………CHECK
Check:
• Indication is 0 KIAS
21
Q
Originating O2 Pressure
A
The captain verifies oxygen pressure and responds with the actual pressure.
22
Q
Originating Upper Pedestal
A
LDG GEAR HORN MUTED switch/light ………………………………EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
ANTI SKID ……………………………………………………………………………………………….. ARMED
IND LTS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………(___)
GND PROX / TERRAIN OFF ………………………….DESELECT / EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
GND PROX FLAP OVRD ………………………………DESELECT / EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
MECH ……………………………………………………………………………DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
23
Q
FFOD MLG Overheat Test
A
MLG BAY OVHT ………………………………………………………………………………OVHT and hold
Check:
• Triple chime and Master Warning lights flashing
• Aural warning: “GEAR BAY OVERHEAT”
• ED-1: MLG BAY OVHT warning message
MLG BAY OVHT ……………………………………………………………………………………..RELEASE
OVHT TEST WARN FAIL ………………………………………………………… WARN FAIL and hold
Check:
• Single chime and Master Caution lights flashing
• ED-1: MLG OVERHEAT FAIL caution message
24
Q
Originating Thrust Lever Quardrant
A
PITCH DISC handle …………………………………………………………………………………STOWED
ROLL DISC handle …………………………………………………………………………………..STOWED
SPOILERS GND LIFT DUMPING ……………………………………………………………………AUTO
LH / RH THRUST REVERSERS …………………………………………………………………. ARMED
Check:
• ED-2: L / R REV ARMED advisory message
L / R EMER STOW ………………………………………………………….DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
FLIGHT SPOILER ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 0°
L / R THRUST LEVER …………………………………………………………………………… SHUT OFF
L / R THRUST REVERSER LEVER ……………………………………………………………STOWED
FLAP ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 0°
25
Originating Lower Pedestaal
RTU 1 / 2 .............................................................................................................. NORMAL
Check:
• No messages
TCAS TEST:
RTU 1 or 2:
TCAS line select key ............................................................................................. SELECT
TEST line select key .............................................................................................. SELECT
Check:
• MFD and VSI: Threat symbols displayed
• Aural message: “TCAS SYSTEM TEST OK”
AUDIO PANEL / IC SYSTEM:
AUDIO PANEL selector ...................................................................................................PA
PA ...................................................................................................................SELECT / PA
Check:
• PA system operational using handheld microphone
• Switch/light illuminates
CHIME switch/light .................................................................................................. PRESS
Check:
• HIGH / LOW chime
CALL switch/light ..................................................................................................... PRESS
Check:
• Switch/light illuminates
EMER switch/light .................................................................................................... PRESS
Check:
• Switch/light illuminates and flashes
AUDIO PANEL selector ................................................................................................(___)
RTU 1 / 2 INHIBIT .....................................................................DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
ATC SEL (TRANSPONDER).......................................................................................STBY
FMS TUNE INHIBIT ..................................................................................... UNINHIBITED
Backup NAV / COM Tuning Unit .................................................................................STBY
Backup NAV / COM Selector ....................................................................................... COM
Check:
• Backup NAV / COM Tuning Unit displays the same frequency as the primary COM
1 and NAV 1 selection
STAB TRIM CH1 / CH2 .........................................................................SELECT / EXTINGUISH
Check:
• ED-1: STAB TRIM caution message extinguished
• ED-2: STAB CH1 / STAB CH2 INOP status messages extinguished
MACH TRIM .........................................................................................SELECT / EXTINGUISH
Check:
• ED-1: MACH TRIM caution message extinguished
FANS:
DISPLY FAN .................................................................................................................... NORM
ARINC FAN ...................................................................................................................... NORM
COMPASS L / R .................................................................................................................. MAG
ENGINE CONTROL:
APR .................................................................................................................................... ARM
VIB ....................................................................................................................................... OFF
LH / RH ENG SPEED ............................................................................................................ ON
TRIM:
AIL TRIM ..................................................................Actuate in both directions, return to Center
RUD TRIM ...............................................................Actuate in both directions, return to Center
DISPLAY SOURCE SELECT:
ATTD HDG ....................................................................................................................... NORM
AIR DATA ......................................................................................................................... NORM
EICAS .............................................................................................................................. NORM
DSPL CONT .................................................................................................................... NORM
CARGO FIREX NORMAL:
CARGO SMOKE PUSH ..............................................DESELECT / EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH ................................................DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
CARGO FIREX STANDBY:
CARGO SMOKE PUSH ..............................................DESELECT / EXTINGUISH / GUARDED
BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH ................................................DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
LANDING GEAR RELEASE ........................................................................................STOWED
ADG release ................................................................................................................STOWED
26
FFOD Radar Test
DCP RDR / TERR: select Radar on MFD
Radar Mode Select ..................................................................................................... TEST
Check:
• MFD: Radar test mode and display pattern indication
TILT.................................................................................................................................+ 6°
AUTO TILT .................................................................................................................... OFF
Radar Mode Select ....................................................................................................... OF
27
FFOD Stab Trim Test
STAB TRIM, CH 1, and MACH TRIM switches .............................SELECT / EXTINGUISH
Check:
• ED-2: STAB CH 2 INOP status message is displayed
• Stab Trim operation from both switches in both directions until clacker is activated
First officer’s STAB TRIM DISC switch .................................................................. SELECT
Check:
• ED-1: STAB TRIM and MACH TRIM caution messages are displayed
• Stab Trim is inoperative
STAB TRIM, CH 2, and MACH TRIM switches .............................SELECT / EXTINGUISH
Check:
• ED-2: STAB CH 1 INOP status message is displayed
• Stab Trim operation from both switches in both directions until clacker is activated
Captain’s STAB TRIM DISC switch ....................................................................... SELECT
Check:
• ED-1: STAB TRIM and MACH TRIM caution messages are displayed
• Stab Trim is inoperative
28
Pre Start Flow
* PRESSURIZATION
* ANTI-SKID
* YAW DAMPERS
29
Pre Start Fuel Quantity
The captain verifies the release fuel against the fuel on board and states: “RELEASE
FUEL (___), (___) ONBOARD.”
30
Pre Start Check Call Outs
CABIN SIGNS ................................................................................................................. ON CP
SEAT BLTS ..................................................................................................................... ON
NO SMKG ....................................................................................................................... ON
PRESSURIZATION ....................................................................................................... SET CP
LDG ELEV..............................................................................................................(___) CP
Check:
• ED-2: LDG ELEV set to destination field elevation round up to the nearest increment of
20 ft
ALTIMETERS ..............................................(___) SET L&C / (___) SET R AND X-CKD CP/FO
L / R AIR DATA PANEL BARO ......................................................................... SET CP/FO
STANDBY ALTIMETER BARO ............................................................................... SET CP
Check:
• PFD-1 / 2: captain and first officer altimeters set to local altimeter setting
• Standby altimeter set to local altimeter setting
• The CP and FO altimeters indicate within 75 ft of field elevation and within 75 ft of
each other to comply with RVSM requirements
The captain states “(___) SET LEFT AND CENTER.”
The first officer states, “(___) SET RIGHT AND CROSS-CHECKED.”
31
Pre Start Anti Skid Test
PARKING BRAKE ......................................................................................................... OFF
ANTI-SKID TEST ........................................................................................... TEST / HOLD
Check:
• ED-1: A / SKID INBD & A / SKID OUTBD caution messages displayed
ANTI-SKID TEST .................................................................................................RELEASE
Check:
• ED-1: A / SKID INBD & A / SKID OUTBD caution messages extinguish
PARKING BRAKE ........................................................................................................... ON
To prevent aircraft movement when performing the anti-skid test,
ensure chocks are set and/or the tow bar and tug are connected prior to
releasing the parking brake. When unsure, advise the ground crew the brakes
will be released momentarily.
32
Pre Start Yaw Dampers
ENGAGE YD1 / YD2 ............................................................................................... PRESS
Check:
• YAW DAMPER caution message extinguished on ED-1
YD 1 and YD 2 do not engage until both AHRS or IRS systems are
aligned
33
Engine Start Flow
```
FUEL PUMPS
• IGNITION
• HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A
• BEACON
• NOSE WHEEL STEERING
• DOORS
```
34
Engine Start Check Parking Brake
On or Off
35
Engine Start Hydraulic Pumps
HYDRAULIC PUMP 1 / 3B / 2 ....................................................................................AUTO
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A .................................................................................................. ON
36
Engine Start Beacon
On
37
Engine Start Nosewheel Steering
Off
38
Engine Start Doors
Check:
• DOORS synoptic page indicates all aircraft doors closed
• ED-1 / 2: No door-related messages displayed
• Flight attendant verbally states “READY TO TAXI” and gives a thumbs-up signal
• Flight deck door is locked
39
Engine Start Callout /Actions
Fuel Pumps On/Ignition Armed....Start engine 1-2
Do not exceed 75% N1 for two minutes after start, or until all operating indications
are in normal range, whichever is longer.
40
Cold Weather Engine Warm Up
Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold soaked, the engines must be motored
for 60 seconds and fan rotation verified before engine start is initiated.
The engines must remain at idle until oil pressure reaches normal operating range.
After being cold soaked, the thrust reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles
are less than five seconds (CRJ 200) or two seconds (CRJ 700/900), prior to departure.
41
Taxi Check Flow
* GENERATOR(S)
* IGNITION
* FFOD ICE PROTECTION
* FFOD APR
* ELECTRICS
* RUDDER
* NOSE WHEEL STEERING
42
Taxi Check Ignition
For two-engine taxi:
IGNITION A or B .......................................................................DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
The captain states “OFF.”
For single-engine taxi:
IGNITION A or B ......................................................................................... SELECT / ARM
The captain states “ARMED.
43
Ice Protection Test
14th STAGE BLEED VALVE:
L / R 14th STAGE ............................................................................................................. DESELECT / CLOSED
Check:
• ED-2: L / R 14th SOV CLSD status message
L / R 14th STAGE ........................................................................................................... SELECT / EXTINGUISH
Check:
• ED-2: L / R 14th SOV CLSD status message extinguished
WING / COWL ANTI-ICE:
LH / RH COWL .................................................................................................................................................ON
Check:
• L / R ITT increase
NOTE: There is no requirement to wait until the L / R WING A / ICE caution messages extinguish
during this test.
WING .......................................................................................................................................................... NORM
Check:
• L / R ITT increase
• N2 gauges display amber range mark indication from 0 to 78%
NOTE: There is no requirement to wait until the L / R WING A / ICE caution messages extinguish
during this test.
14th STAGE ISOLATION VALVE:
14th STAGE ISOL ......................................................................................................................SELECT / OPEN
Check:
• ED-2: ISOL OPEN status message
NOTE: A slight increase in thrust may be required to ensure the 14th STAGE ISOL OPEN message
illuminates.
14th STAGE ISOL ..................................................................................................... DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
Check:
• ED-2: ISOL OPEN status message extinguished
WING..............................................................................................................................................................(___)
LH / RH COWL...............................................................................................................................................(___)
Select wing and cowl anti-ice as required.
44
APR Test
/ RH ENG SPEED ..................................................................................................... ON
APR TEST 1 ............................................................................................... TEST 1 / HOLD
Check:
• ED-1: APR icon displayed on N1 gauges
• ED-2: APR TEST 1 OK advisory message displayed
APR TEST 1 ........................................................................................................RELEASE
APR TEST 2 ............................................................................................... TEST 2 / HOLD
Check:
• ED-1: APR icon displayed on N1 gauges
• ED-2: APR TEST 2 OK advisory message displayed
APR TEST 2 ........................................................................................................RELEASE
APR TEST 3 (when installed)...................................................................... TEST 3 / HOLD
Check:
• ED-1: APR icon displayed on N1 gauges and APR INOP caution message
• ED-2: APR TEST 3 OK advisory message displayed
APR TEST 3 ................................................................................................................ ARM
45
Taxi Check Electrics
GEN 1 / 2 .................................................................................................................. ON CP
NOTE: The captain taxi check flow selects generators ON prior to setting BLEEDS
/ APU.
Select AC Electric Synoptic Page.
Check:
• ED-2: Main generator(s) powering the respective buses. Frequencies, voltages, and
loads are within normal parameters
Select DC Electric Synoptic Page.
Check:
• ED-2: TRUs are powered, voltages and loads are within normal parameters, and TIE
symbols indicate open
46
Taxi Check Nose Wheel Steering
Prior to arming the nose wheel steering:
• Select F / CTL Synoptic Page
• Exercise the rudder pedals through full travel in both directions and back to center
Check:
– ED-2: Rudder indicates full and correct travel in the appropriate direction and returns
to center
N / W STRG ................................................................................................................. ARM
When challenged with “FLIGHT CONTROLS” in the Taxi Check below-the-line, the
captain verifies completion of the rudder control system check by stating, “CHECKED
LEFT.”
47
Single Engine Taxi Flow
* GENERATOR 2 ON
* L BOOST PUMP OFF
* ELECTRICS ELEC (AC & DC), F/CTL page
* RUDDER CHECK
* NWS ON
48
Rapid Alignment Procedure
When the EFIS COMP MON caution message and associated PFD flag(s) remain illuminated
after taxiing clear of the ramp area, the crew accomplishes the rapid alignment procedure as
follows:
• Determine which EFIS is in error by comparing both EHSIs to the standby compass indicator
• Select the COMPASS from MAG to DG for the side in error
• Slew the respective EHSI to the correct heading as indicated on the standby compass indicator
• Select the COMPASS from DG to MAG for the respective side
• Verify that EFIS COMP MON caution message and associated PFD flag(s) are extinguished
and both EHSIs indicate proper headings
49
Before Takeoff Check Below The Line Lights
LANDING LTS - LEFT / NOSE / RIGHT ......................................................................... ON
STROBE ......................................................................................................................... ON
WING INSP (night operations) ........................................................................................ ON
LOGO (night operations) ................................................................................................. ON
50
FFOD Firex Warning
Jet Engine/APU Loops to Both
Test: Warn
```
Triple Chime with 2 Master Warning Lights
Firebell with Jet Pipe Overhead Audible
6 Lights:
L/R Engine Fire Push
APU Fire Push
L/R Bottle 1/2 Armed push to discharge
APU Bottle armed push to discharge
5 ED1 warning messages:
APU Fire
R/L Jetpipe Ovht
R/L Engine Fire
```
51
FFOD Firex Fail Cautions
```
Single Chime
2 Caution Lights
ED 1 Messages:
Apu Fire Fail
R/L Jet Ovht Fail
R/L Fire Fail
```
52
FFOD Engine Bottle 1/2 +APU: TEST
ED2 Advisory Message
L/R Engine Squib 1/2
APU Squib 1/2
53
Engine Start Flow
```
Fuel Pumps
Ignition
Hydraulic Pump 3A
Beacon
Nose wheel Steering
Doors
```
54
Engine Start Check Responses:
```
APU: On
Manifest: Checked
Takeoff Data: Set Left
Trims:
Transponder:
Seatbelt/Shoulder Harness: Checked Left
Parking Brake: On or off
Beacon: On
N/w Steering: off
Doors: Checked
```
55
Captain Flow Engine Start
* FUEL PUMPS
* IGNITION
* HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A
* BEACON
* NOSE WHEEL STEERING
* DOORS
56
Single Engine Taxi Flow
```
Generator 2: On
Left Boost Pump: off
Electrics: AC and DC page
Flight Control Page
Rudder Check
NW Steering: On
```
57
Originating Check NON FFOD
* ELECTRICS
* FFOD CARGO FIRE TEST
* LIGHTS
* FUEL PANEL
* BLEEDS
* FFOD BLEED DETECTION TEST
* START PANEL
* HYDRAULIC TEST
* PRESSURIZATION
* AIR CONDITIONING
* ANTI-ICE
* FFOD ICE DETECTOR TEST
* EMERGENCY LIGHTS
* FFOD EGPWS TEST
* FFOD STALL TEST
* CLOCKS
* EFIS
* FFOD CVR TEST
* STANDBY INSTRUMENTS
* O2 PRESSURE
* UPPER PEDESTAL
* FFOD MLG OVERHEAT TEST
* THRUST LEVER QUADRANT
* LOWER PEDESTAL
* FFOD RADAR TEST
* FFOD STAB TRIM TEST
58
Taxi Check Flows
* GENERATOR(S)
* IGNITION
* FFOD ICE PROTECTION
* FFOD APR
* ELECTRICS
* RUDDER
* NOSE WHEEL STEERING
59
Taxi Check Expanded Flow
```
Gen 1/2 ON
Ignition: off or armed
Electrics checked: AC/DC
Flight Controls: Rudder Check
Nose Wheel Steering: Armed
```
60
Descent Check Lights
```
Landing Lights Left/Nose/Right
Logo Lights (night)
Wing Inspection (night)
```
61
After Landing Lights
LANDING LTS - LEFT / NOSE / RIGHT ......................................................AS REQUIRED
TAXI / RECOG .............................................................................................AS REQUIRED
STROBE ....................................................................................................................... OFF
WING INSP .................................................................................................................. OFF
62
Shutdown Check Calls
```
Parking Brake: On
Chocks: In
AC Power: Established
Generators: off
Thrust levers: shut off
Seat belt sign: off
Fuel Feed CVT: complete
Anti-ice: off
Packs: off/on
Fuel pumps: off
Bleeds: off
Hydraulic pump 3a: off
Beacon: off
N/W Steering: off
Transponder: Standby
```
63
Shutdown Check Flow
```
Parking Brake
AC Power
Generators
Thrust levers
seat belt sign
anti-ice
Packs
fuel pumps
hydraulic pump 3a
beacon
n/w Steering
```
64
Shutdown Check Expanded
Parking Brake: on
Chocks: in....receive chocks in signal
AC Power Established...AC power connected, Electrical power services AC AVAI illuminated OR APU
Generators: APU generator off unless required
Gen 1: off
APU Gen: off/on
Gen 2 Off
Thrust levers, shutoff
Seat Belt Sign: off....receive chocks in first
Anti-ice LH/RH cowls....off
Packs: on/off ....L/R pack off
```
Fuel Pumps..off
Bleeds ....off ....10th stage L/R deselect/closed
Hydraulic Pump 3A...off
Beacon...off
N/W Steering....off
```
65
Engine 1 Shutdown Flow (at gate)
```
Parking brake
L Generator
L Thrust Lever
Seat Belt Sign
L Boost Pump
FFOD Fuel Feed CVT
```
66
Two Engine Shutdown Flow
```
Parking Brake...on
AC Power
Thrust Levers
Seat Belt Sign
Anti-Ice
Packs
Fuel Pumps
Hydraulic Pump 3A
Beacon
N/W Steering
```
67
Actions during unanticipated, no time threat
Fly the airplane
PF vs PM
Act: airport, 200 knots, longest runway, 10 mile final
Communicate: 2 in...2 out
68
Actions during unanticipated time threat
Fly the airplane
PF vs PM
Plan:create time...use CRM...
Communicate: 2 in ...2 out
69
What is the decision making process
```
DIGDE
Define the problem
Identify Solutions
Gather Data
Decide and implement decision
Evaluate the effects
```
70
Required Flight deck crew preflight activities/duties
• Review the dispatch release for accuracy, including:
– Aircraft "N" number
– Fuel load
– Flight plan
– Weather, to include reported and forecasted conditions and alternate requirements
– Remarks
– Maintenance items, to include deferrals and airworthiness
– Performance data
– Applicable NOTAMs
– Check RAIM availability
• Crewmember preflight briefings, as required
• External inspection/security inspection
• Airworthiness acceptance
71
Recommended delegation of duties CAPTAIN
```
Captain:
Safety Check
• Airworthiness verification
• Originating Check
• Initialize FMS / ACARS
– FMS 4.1
– FMS 4200
• Obtain ATIS
• Obtain Clearance
• Enter transponder code
• Complete EFB set up (as applicable). This includes route, appropriate taxi
diagrams/instructions and DPs. Set up information is located in the Electronic Flight Bag
(EFB) paragraph of Flight Operations Manual SP 3100 Chapter 05 Flight Operations.
• The PF enters the release/cleared routing into the FMS. The PM verifies the routing is
entered correctly.
• Verify flight instruments are set and cross-checked
• Set communication and navigation frequencies and courses for departure
• The PF conducts the takeoff briefing
• Pre-start Check
Approximately 10 minutes prior to
departure, start the APU and give the
command/signal when ready to disconnect
the air and/or power
• Review W&B
• Accomplish Jumpseat Briefing, when
appropriate
• Accomplish a welcome aboard briefing,
time permitting
Prior to locking the flight deck door, FA provides the “READY TO TAXI” notification
• Lock flight deck door
Establish communication with ground
personnel/pushback crew
Engine Start Check
• Accomplish pushback, as required
```
72
Delegation of duties FO
```
FO
Walk around
CLR PIN
V speeds zero fuel weight
Stab trim
Push back clearance
```
73
What items must be on the release
```
DIMWIT
Date
IFR/VFR
Minto
Weather
Identification tail number
Takeoff/landing data
```
```
– Aircraft "N" number
– Fuel load
– Flight plan
– Weather, to include reported and forecasted conditions and alternate requirements
– Remarks
– Maintenance items, to include deferrals and airworthiness
– Performance data
– Applicable NOTAMs
– Check RAIM availability
```
74
When is the safety check required to be accomplished
• Flow is accomplished by either pilot prior to reading the silent checklist
• Is conducted prior to the preflight external inspection when:
– Accepting an aircraft
– The aircraft was left unattended by the flight deck crew
– The aircraft was completely powered down
75
Who conducts the Safety check flow
Captain or FO
76
Relation to safety check, when does the preflight external walk around occur
• Is conducted prior to the preflight external inspection when:
– Accepting an aircraft
– The aircraft was left unattended by the flight deck crew
– The aircraft was completely powered down
77
When is the originating check required
• Is accomplished in a flow pattern by both pilots prior to the captain calling for the Originating
Check. The first officer conducts the challenge and response checklist.
• Is conducted:
– First flight of the day
– After a flight crew change
– After maintenance has been performed on the aircraft
– When the aircraft was completely powered down
78
What is required to be checked for the maintenance status task?
The captain or first officer ensures the maintenance status of the aircraft will not prevent
power being applied.
79
Where is each flight deck emergency equipment located and how to pre flight each item
* Escape rope (1)
* Crew escape hatch (1)
* Flashlights (2)
* Crash axe (1)
* PBE unit (1)
* Life vests (3)
* Halon fire extinguisher (1)
80
Where is the list of required flight deck documents/equipment located? What must be done if something is missing...
EFB required flight deck stuff....must be replaced
81
During the safety check flow, after a crew swap and the airplane remains powered, are you required to reset the hydraulic pumps to the off position?
When the aircraft remains powered during a crew change, these items do not
need to be reset to the condition specified.
82
After the battery master switch has been selected to ON, what items must be checked for safety check
Check:
• Flight compartment standby lights illuminate when the battery bus is powered and
AC power is off
• MASTER WARNING / MASTER CAUTION lights illuminated, then reset
ECP: Select ELEC DC synoptic page
Check:
• ED-2: MAIN BATT ≥ 22 V and APU BATT ≥ 22 V
83
When selecting WARN and FAIL during the firex monitor test, what indications are required for a successful test....
```
Triple chime
Master warning lights
Jetpipe overheat audible
Firebell
LH RH Engine fire push
APU fire push
L/R push to discharge
APU push to discharge
APU FIRE
– R / L JETPIPE OVERHEAT
– R / L ENG FIRE messages
```
```
Fail
Single chime
Master caution lights
• ED-1 caution messages:
– APU FIRE FAIL
– R / L JET OVHT FAIL
– R / L FIRE FAIL
```
84
When selecting Engine 1/2 and APU bottle switches, what indications are required for successful test?
• ED-2 advisory messages:
– L / R ENG SQUIB 1 / 2
– APU SQUIB 1 / 2
85
Why is hydraulic pump 3A energized during the safety check?
To actuate nose gear doors to look for pins, lights,
86
What is the difference between the airworthiness acceptance and maintenance status
Maintenance Status: The captain or first officer ensures the maintenance status of the aircraft will not prevent
power being applied.
Airworthiness acceptance: • Ensure MX CAN is onboard
• Ensure MX CAN, AML, and AFL match the flight release and aircraft tail number
• Ensure Airworthiness Release signature is on a white AFL page (M-127)
• Review previous AMLs (M-125) for open/incomplete blocks in the Discrepancy,
Corrective Action, and Item Closed By sections
• Review DMI Log (M-2) and cross-check the flight release. When a discrepancy is
found contact the dispatcher or Maintenance Control and amend the flight release,
as necessary.
• Review MEL procedures, limitations, etc.; repeat/review the actions above to ensure
the aircraft is properly returned to service and dispatched
• Print names and sign the AFL, as appropriate
87
During the originating flow, what are you checking for with the clock?
Time, Date,
The aircraft clocks are automatically synchronized to the GPS date and time when the
aircraft is energized. The clocks are the data source for time and date for the entire CRJ
avionics suite.
When GPS data is invalid or unavailable, the clocks can be set to operate in the internal
(self-contained) mode. The clocks remain in the internal mode until the aircraft is powered
down and re-energized.
When GPS signal loss occurs, the captain’s clock drives the time for the MDC
and FMS.
88
When conducting the originating checklist, what are you stating is complete for panel prep?
The captain and first officer ensure aircraft systems are operational and flow items are
complete.
89
What are the warning and cautions when using low pressure external air?
The aircraft may be air conditioned using an external pre-conditioned air source. The PIC
must coordinate with FA(s) to ensure the MCD is not closed until the external air source is
disconnected.
WARNING: WHEN USING LOW PRESSURE PRE-CONDITIONED AIR, THE MCD
MUST REMAIN OPEN TO PREVENT PRESSURIZING THE CABIN.
WHEN THE CABIN BECOMES INADVERTENTLY PRESSURIZED:
• DO NOT ALLOW ANY PRESSURE VESSEL DOOR TO BE OPENED
• GROUND PERSONNEL MUST DISCONNECT THE LP AIR SOURCE
• ALLOW THE CABIN TO DEPRESSURIZE ON ITS OWN
90
With low pressure air and the APU running, what position should the packs be selected to?
off
91
What is the priority of sources for air conditioning?
External ground air should be used to provide conditioned air to the cabin when available. When
not available, the APU is used before high pressure external air.
92
What is the procedure for using high pressure external air?
To establish air conditioning using a high pressure external air source:
SAFETY CHECK ........................................................................................................ COMPLETE
High Pressure External Air Source ..............................................................................ESTABLISH
CKPT MAN ......................................................................................... DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
CABIN MAN ........................................................................................ DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
10th STAGE ISOL ...............................................................................................SELECT / OPEN
L / R PACK .............................................................................................. SELECT / EXTINGUISH
93
When is the PIC allowed to inspect the airplane after a bird strike?
When mx is now available, but under the direction of mx with a write up
94
After a bird strike, when is the pic required to contact mx
asap
95
At what temperature must air conditioning be available to prevent display shutdown?
When ambient temperatures exceed 30ºC, the air conditioning packs or the ground conditioned
air must be available to prevent a display shutdown.
96
Why is DC power limimted to 5 minutes when there is no AC power?
Ground operations using DC power only is limited to 5 minutes. Display cooling is not available
without AC power or when the APU is in service configuration.
97
Can the display fan switch be selected to STBY or other position during normal operations?
: UNLESS DIRECTED BY THE QRH OR MEL, PLACING THE DISPLAY FAN
CONTROL SWITCH IN STBY OR ANY POSITION OTHER THAN NORMAL IS NOT
AUTHORIZED DURING FLIGHT OR GROUND OPERATIONS.
98
How is the required oxygen pressure level determined?
sopm
99
When is the minimum oxygen pressure level required to be at or above 1650 psi?
International trips
100
During the originating check, the captain can select the windshield heat to off at what temperature?
Above 30 C
101
Is the pre-start check required to be accomplished for every flight?
Every flight
102
What must be completed prior to the captain calling for the pre-start checklist?
The captain’s flow and all tasks must be completed prior to the captain calling for the Pre-Start
Check. The first officer conducts the challenge and response checklist.
103
What is a logical method for completing the pre-start check task items?
RADIOFCCPT or look at the TOLD Card
104
When completing the pre-flight checks task, what must be completed? Where are these duties located?
RADIOFCCPT .....sopm
105
What does the FMS task require to be completed?
• Prior to conducting the takeoff briefing, both pilots visually cross-check the ATC
clearance and flight plan by sequencing through each waypoint on the FMS PLAN MAP
page. Simultaneously, both pilots verify waypoint names, sequence, speed restrictions,
crossing altitudes, and appropriate discontinuities appear on the MCDU
106
What six items are checked with completing the flight instrument task?
• FMA is clear
• DH / MDA is clear
• NAV SOURCE selected to FMS or green needles
• Altitude preselect set to initial assigned altitude
• Heading bug set to departure runway heading
Map page
107
When completing the radio task, what is set in com 1 and com 2
Groud, tower.....ramp, company
108
How does the oxygen task differ from the FFOD crew oxygen mask test?
No speaker, no mask,
109
What is the procedure when a CARGO OVHT caution message is displayed during the preflight, prior to takeoff, and in flight?
• Direct ramp personnel to close the cargo door when not actively loading/unloading bags
• Do not load live animals until just prior to securing the door for departure
• When the CARGO OVHT caution message illuminates or remains illuminated after securing
the cargo door for departure, leave the CARGO switch selected to COND AIR position until
just prior to takeoff
• Just prior to takeoff, select FAN. Ensure the CARGO OVHT caution message extinguishes.
When the message fails to extinguish, do not take off. Consult with Maintenance and record
the discrepancy in accordance with maintenance reporting procedures outlined in Flight
Operations Manual SP 3100 Chapter 06 Airworthiness.
• Approximately 30 minutes after takeoff, return the CARGO switch to the COND AIR position.
When the CARGO OVHT caution message illuminates, comply with the QRH abnormal
procedures.
110
Prohibited from carrying animals with cargo overheat?
No, but load them last
111
When are you required to calculate the fuel load using flightview-manifest?
During normal operations, the main tanks are completely filled prior to adding fuel to the center
tank. When there is fuel in the center tank and the two main tanks are not full, the allowable
fuel load must calculated using the manifest application in FliteView. Refer to EFB > Company
Manuals > EFB > FliteView User Guide.
The total fuel index is entered on the manifest for weight and balance calculations.
112
With one or more fuel gauges inoperative, how long should you wait before taking readings using the MLI's and Pitch and Roll indicators?
Fuel Magnetic Level Indicators (MLIs) in conjunction with “pitch” and “roll” indicators in the flight
deck are used to determine fuel quantity when one or more fuel gauges are inoperative. The
MEL provides guidance and Maintenance consults charts to provide the correct fuel quantity
based on the readings of the MLI and the “pitch” and “roll” gauges.
After refueling, wait at least three minutes before taking readings.
113
When will the captain call for the FO to start the engines?
After the checklist is complete, the captain calls for engine start as appropriate (e.g., at the gate,
during pushback, when pushback is complete). The first officer starts the engine(s).
114
Where is the procedure for starting the engines located?
SOPM
115
Which engine is started first for FFOD? Non-FFOD?
FFOD number 1.....non FFOD engine 2
116
Which engine is used for a single engine taxi?
Number 2
117
When only starting a single engine for taxi, when is the other engine started?
Prior to taxi; or
• During taxi
– Ensure operating engine N2 ≤70% prior to start
118
The APU must be started how many minutes prior to pushback?
10 minutes
119
What must be set for the takeoff data task item?
• Enter V-speeds
• Set speed bug to V2+20
• Verify N1 thrust setting (normal or reduced)
The first officer references source data (ACARS or Release) and states the takeoff data,
takeoff weight, runway condition, target thrust setting, and flap setting. The captain
verifies the takeoff data on the PFD against the ACARS or speed cards, as appropriate
120
What is set/checked for the trim task?
* Set stabilizer trim to takeoff setting
* Verify aileron and rudder trim is in center position
* The first officer states the trim setting
121
What could occur if stab trim setting is inappropriately set?
: FAILURE TO SET THE PITCH TRIM APPROPRIATE TO THE
COMPUTED CENTER OF GRAVITY MAY RESULT IN EXCESSIVE ROTATION
DURING TAKEOFF.
122
Prior to closing the MCD, what must the crew check?
When ground air conditioning is in use, ensure low pressure air has been
disconnected prior to closing the MCD
123
When starting the engine, what are the two messages the FO must check on ED2?
LR engine start, Ignition
124
What does the FO check for on the ITT and N2 gauges prior to moving the thrust levers to idle?
20 and 120
125
When is the FFOD fuel feed check valve test part 1 completed?
: The FFOD FUEL FEED CHECK VALVE test requires starting Engine 1 prior to
conducting the test. Engine 2 is started after the test, and prior to tax
126
After two minutes has elapsed and no R fuel LO pressure caution message is displayed, what will the FO do? How long can the engine be dry motored for this test?
Dry motor, 30 seconds
127
What does the absence of R fuel low press indicate and what to do?
check valve failed in open position....write up and contact mx
128
Can both engines be started at the gate with the jetway connected and the MCD open?
When external AC power is being supplied from the jetway, movement of the jetway may be
prevented due to a built-in safety mechanism.
Both engines may be started at the gate with the jetway connected and the main cabin door open.
The FA is advised prior to starting engines with the main cabin door open.
129
Who must be notified when engines will be started with the MCD open?
Flight attendant
130
Before the FFOD, prior to starting a cold soaked engine, what is required?
Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold soaked, the engines must be motored
for 60 seconds and fan rotation verified before engine start is initiated
131
Prior to departure in a cold soaked airplane, the thrust reverser deploy and stow cycles must be less than how many seconds in a crj200
5 seconds
132
Where is the crj200 cross bleed engine start procedure located?
QRH v1
133
Where is the external air engine start procedure located?
QRHv1
134
What is required prior to aircraft movement for pushback?
```
• Obtain necessary clearance
• Establish and maintain audio or visual communication with pushback crew. The use of a
headset by the pushback operator is strongly recommended.
Check:
• Steering OFF
• Parking brake OFF
Communicate:
• Steering OFF
• Brakes released
• Ready for pushback
```
135
What does the release brakes hand signal communicate to the ground personnel?
When using hand signals, the “release brakes” hand signal indicates the nosewheel
steering has been confirmed OFF and the brakes are released
136
How do the procedures vary when using the LEKTRO cart?
• The brakes must be released and the aircraft positioned into the LEKTRO cart bucket
by the operator prior to pushback
• The LEKTRO cart operator requests the brakes be set after pushback, prior to removing
the aircraft from the bucket
137
What pushback procedure are to be followed during pushback on a contaminated ramp?
When the ramp is contaminated, traction may be compromised.
Normally, engine start is delayed until the pushback procedure is complete. When
an engine start is required prior to pushback:
– Only one engine is started.
– During pushback, the operating engine must remain at idle.
– Repositioning of the aircraft to a location with adequate traction may be required
prior to crossbleed start.
– The PIC will not permit pushback without headsets, except when the flight deck
to ground audio system is deferred. In this case, the PIC will establish alternate
communication procedures
138
What are the HOT start, interrupted start, and N2 stagnation memory items?
Affected thrust lever........shutoff
Ignition....off
Dry motor....below 120 or starter time limit
139
What are the no light off memory items?
Affected thrust lever....shutoff
ignition .....off
dry motor.....starter time limit
140
What procedure for NO STRTR cutout?
Stop engine
141
What are the two taxi scenarios when conducting the taxi check?
The Taxi Check is conducted using one of two scenarios:
• Two-engine taxi, required when:
– Conducting FFOD checks
– Operating on a contaminated or congested ramp or taxiway(s)
– Short taxi-out (≤5 min)
– Captain’s discretion
SINGLE ENGINE TAXI
Single engine taxi is conducted for all taxi operations, except the following conditions:
• Ramp/Taxiway surface contamination
• Maneuvering room in the ramp/gate area is marginal
• Taxi time to/from a runway is expected to be less than 5 minutes
• Airport-specific regulations prohibit single-engine taxi
• Risk of injury to personnel or damage to equipment
• Captain’s discretion
Additionally, when making a decision to conduct a single engine taxi, consider airplane weight,
uphill slopes, time to warm up engine, and time to the active runway
142
When is a two-engine taxi required?
FFOD, contaminated ramp/taxiway/short taxi ,<5min/CA discretion
143
When will the captain and FO start their respective taxi flows?
After engines are started
144
When are the flight controls checked?
The rudder and nose wheel steering are checked only after it is verified pushback
equipment has been disconnected and the ground crew is confirmed clear.
145
Prior to taxi, what procedures will you follow?
• Clear left and right
• Both flight deck crewmembers have the Airport Diagram chart available for reference
• Complex taxi instructions are written down
• The entire Before Takeoff checklist is completed prior to initiating a back-taxi on the runway to
be used for takeoff
146
During taxi, what procedures will you follow?
Flight crews minimize “heads-down” activities, such as entering and verifying data in the FMS
while the airplane is moving.
The captain’s primary responsibility and attention is focused on taxiing the aircraft. The first
officer’s primary responsibility is monitoring and providing feedback of the aircraft’s progress
along the cleared taxi route and setting FMS and takeoff performance, when needed, as directed
by the captain.
In the event the take off data becomes invalid for any reason prior to takeoff, (e.g., runway / SID
change, aircraft configuration, performance, weather), the data must be corrected and confirmed
(refer to Chapter 03, Operating Philosophy, Flight Automation, FMS). Changes to the FMS
should only be made when it does not interfere with the taxi process.
Follow ATC Taxi instructions and verify differences from the initial briefing when applicable.
Briefing the taxi route during departure and arrival WANT briefings reduces the workload during
taxi. ATC is contacted anytime there is a concern about a potential conflict.
Challenge and response must be used by crewmembers to confirm taxi instructions, runway
crossing assignments, and when accepting a takeoff or line up and wait clearance.
147
What would cause the takeoff data to become invalid? What is required when it becomes invalid?
Runway change, condition change, T/O behind heavy....runway performance change check.
148
What is to be confirmed by challenge and response taxi check?
flaps
149
During the challenge and response, when would the captain respond with OFF for ignition? When would they respond with Armed?
Off....for 2 engine taxi
| On....for single engine taxi
150
During single engine taxi with bleeds open performance, can the APU shudtown be delayed until prior to takeoff?
Yes for environmental needs
151
On the ground, what is used to determine icing conditions?
```
COWL
When OAT is ≤10° and:
• Visible moisture is present, or
• Visibility is ≤1 mile, or
• When operating on surfaces where ice, snow, standing water or slush is present:
```
WING - CRJ 200
• When OAT ≤5°C, with or without visible moisture, and
• The aircraft has not been anti-iced with Type II or IV fluid:
After second engine start and at least two minutes prior to takeoff:
152
In regards to wing anti ice during taxi, what message must be displayed prior to takeoff?
• ED-2: WING A / ICE ON advisory message displayed prior to takeoff
153
When is the runway ad performance change check accomplished?
The Runway and Performance Change Check is accomplished prior to the Before Takeoff Check.
154
What must be completed prior to the captain calling for the runway and performance change check?
Tasks
155
What is the response when there are no changes
Runway and performance change check complete, no changes
156
What should the captain consider when completing the runway and performance change checklist?
When operationally prudent, consider stopping the aircraft when accomplishing a runway change
to ensure takeoff data is correctly programmed.
157
After completing both the runway and performance change check and before takeoff check, you receive a change, what is required?
: When a change to the runway, departure clearance, and/or aircraft performance occurs
after conducting the Before Takeoff Check, the Runway and Performance Change Check and
Before Takeoff Check must be completed again
158
When is the before takeoff check to the line conducted?
When approaching the runway, the captain calls for the Before Takeoff Check, as appropriate.
The captain and first officer complete the flow items and the first officer conducts the challenge
and response checklist:
• Holding short – Check to the line
• Cleared onto runway – Check below the line or entire checklist
159
When is the below the line checklist conducted
When cleared onto the runway
160
Can the entire before takeoff check be completed at once?
Yes when cleared onto the runway
161
When would it be prudent to accomplish a before takeoff check in entirety
Cleared onto runway
162
What items is the FO required to check for the takeoff data before takeoff check?
Runway...., RNAV or Vectors to First fix, Altitude,
163
How does the captain verify flaps setting for before takeoff check?
FO Flaps: source data flaps 20.....20 set CP
164
What message is checked when the FO reads Takeoff Config on the checklist?
Takeoff Config ED2
165
What info is checked for CAS before takeoff check?
Check:
• ED-1 / 2: Appropriate messages are displayed for aircraft configuration
• ED-2: BRAKE TEMP indications within limits
166
Is takeoff permitted with a BTMS indication of 6? With BTMS greater than 7?
When brake temperature indications are 6, refer to QRH Volume 1 to
determine if the takeoff is permissible. When brake temperature indications are ≥7,
the takeoff is prohibited until BTMS values decrease to permissible levels.
167
What is the procedure for verifying the runway?
Runway __ is confirmed
168
What is the minimum flap retraction speeds for the CRJ200
FLAPS 8 TAKEOFF - AT MFRA:
CRJ 200
• Attain at least V2+12, select flaps up
FLAPS 20 TAKEOFF - AT MFRA:
CRJ 200
• Attain at least V2+12, select flaps 8
• Attain at least V2+20, select flaps up
169
At what speed is full maneuvering capability reached with flaps extended to 8 or 20? With flaps retracted?
V2+20 with flaps
Vfto with flaps up
170
During takeoff with normal thrust, how much is thrust reduced prior to starting the after takeoff check flow? During takeoff with reduced thrust?
2-3 percent......none
171
What is the callout for flap retraction? When would this occur?
1000ft or MFRA CLIMB SEQUENCE
172
At what altitude do you accelerate from 200 knots to 250 kts
2500 AFE
173
When is cowl anti-ice required for takeoff?
For takeoff when OAT ≤10°C:
• Visible moisture (visibility ≤1 SM or any precipitation); or
• The runway is contaminated
174
When are wing and cowl anti-ice required for takeoff?
For takeoff when ≤OAT 5°C:
• Visible moisture in any form including any precipitation, fog, mist, or clouds < 400 feet AGL; or
• The runway is wet or contaminated:
175
After being anti-iced with type II or IV, when would the wing anti-ice be selected on?
When Type II or IV anti-icing fluids have been applied, the wing anti-ice system must be
selected ON just prior to takeoff
• Operate the anti-ice system during takeoff and take the associated weight penalty, only
when the conditions above exist at the time of takeoff
176
At what crosswind component is continuous ignition required to be ON?
Greater than 10 kts
177
If the EFIS Comp MON message remains prior to takeoff, what is the procedure?
When the EFIS COMP MON caution message and associated PFD flag(s) remain illuminated
after taxiing clear of the ramp area, the crew accomplishes the rapid alignment procedure as
follows:
• Determine which EFIS is in error by comparing both EHSIs to the standby compass indicator
• Select the COMPASS from MAG to DG for the side in error
• Slew the respective EHSI to the correct heading as indicated on the standby compass indicator
• Select the COMPASS from DG to MAG for the respective side
• Verify that EFIS COMP MON caution message and associated PFD flag(s) are extinguished
and both EHSIs indicate proper headings
178
What happens if EFIS comp mon does not go away?
Verify the EFIS COMP MON or EFIS COMP INOP caution messages and
HDG comparator flag are not displayed. Continued display of these messages
and/or flags indicates an abnormal system fault and QRH procedures are required.
179
When is reduced thrust prohibited for takeoff?
Flex thrust takeoffs are prohibited when:
• Cowl and/or wing anti-ice are/is selected ON
• The runway is contaminated
• Tailwind components are in excess of 5 knots
• Windshear warnings are forecasted or reported
• Anti-skid is inoperative
• Takeoff behind a heavy or larger aircraft
• CRJ 200: Flaps 8 takeoff
180
What could occur if the tiller is used during the takeoff roll?
Do not actuate the tiller during the takeoff roll. Increased speed increases the load on the
actuators and feedback to the ECU. This can result in a system fault.
181
When would an unpresurized takeoff be required?
Unpressurized takeoffs are permitted when the APU is inoperative and performance limitations
or anti-ice system requirements necessitate engine bleeds to be closed
182
The pressurization is set to what altitude prior to an upressurized takeoff?
3000ft above field elevation?
183
What conditions/indications would direct a decision to abort a takeoff?
* Engine failures
* EICAS warnings
* REV UNLOCKED (CRJ 200 caution message)
* SMOKE TOILET (CRJ 200 caution message)
184
How is maximum deceleration achieved on a contaminated runway?
When the decision is made to reject the takeoff on a contaminated runway, maximum
deceleration is achieved by using maximum reverse thrust and maximum braking. Anticipate
the possibility of skidding
185
What precautions should be taken if there is suspected windshear during takeoff?
The most important way to deal with windshear is to avoid areas of known or potential occurrence.
Severe windshear may be defined as a rapid change in wind direction and/or velocity that results
in airspeed changes greater than 15 kt or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min.
Whenever windshear is suspected during takeoff, the following precautions must be taken:
• Use normal takeoff thrust. (Use of reduced thrust is prohibited.)
• Use flaps 8, if performance allows
• Use the longest runway available with the lowest possibility of a windshear encounter
• Monitor airspeed trend during takeoff. When evidence of windshear exists before V1, consider
an RTO.
• Closely monitor the vertical flight path and call out any deviations
• Do not engage the autopilot when windshear is reported or suspected
186
What altitude can EGPWS detect wind shear?
EGPWS detects windshear at radar altitudes between 10 ft and 1,500 ft AGL. Use the
flight director escape guidance. At radio altitudes less than 150 ft AGL, escape guidance may
command pitch 2-3° in excess of stick shaker angle.
187
At what altitude would the PF call for the after takeoff check?
1500 AFE
188
Auto pilot must be engaged at what altitude?
FL200
189
What exterior lights must be on above FL180
NAV
• BEACON
• STROBE (unless operation of strobes creates a distraction to the crew)
190
At what point is cruise speed considered stable?
cruise speed is stable, as indicated by a fixed and static speed within the speed bug
191
Who is responsible for monitoring thrust management and cruise speed during the cruise phase?
Monitoring of thrust management and cruise speed must be maintained by both crewmembers,
beginning at TOC, and throughout the entire cruise phase of flight
192
When is the cruise check conducted?
The cruise checklist is accomplished only after the appropriate cruise speed has been
established and stable.
193
When can climb thrust be reduced?
Maintain climb thrust until cruise speed is achieved.
194
With regard to cruise altitude, what is the crew's responsibility?
Cruise altitude is presented on the dispatch release or ACARS. It is the responsibility of the flight
crew to select an altitude that ensures safety margins are met and maintained.
195
What is the normal cruise speed when at or below planned cruise altitude? Above planned cruise altitude?
At or below: planned...minimum is Vmd
Above: .74 crj200 .78 crj7/9
196
What is the minimum cruise speed all altitudes?
Vmd
197
What is important to consider when flying higher than planned cruise speeds?
: Airspeeds other than planned or outlined may be flown when assigned by ATC, to
comply with aircraft/regulatory requirements, or to meet restrictions imposed by an MEL/Ferry
Permit. In any case, speeds below VMD are not permitted in cruise flight. Speed variations
above planned may result in increased trip fuel burn
198
When are y ou required to advise ATC of your TAS?
When TAS differs by more than 10 kt or 5% of flight-planned TAS, advise ATC of the new TAS.
199
On the speed cards VMD speedline what do dashed lines indicate
Dashed lines on the Speed Cards VMD speed line do not provide a speed with
adequate bank protection for turns in excess of 15°. Bank angles in excess of 15° and holding
at these altitudes and weights are prohibited
200
When is fuel trend monitoring required?
Flight deck crews must monitor flight time and fuel burn while in the cruise phase of flight with
reference to the flight plan. Fuel trend monitoring takes place for all flights beginning at the top of
climb (TOC) and at least once each hour thereafter.
The resources available to assist in this process are:
• Expanded flight release
• Planned Estimated Fuel Remaining (EFR) from the MFD menu page
201
What estimated fuel quantity upon landing is considered min fuel....emergency fuel?
CRJ200: 1050....1500
| CRJ700/900 1500....2150
202
How is the oxygen mask and ACP configured when using supplemental oxygen?
Use the following procedure when supplemental oxygen is required:
OXYGEN MASK ..................................................................................................................... DON
NORMAL / 100% LEVER ......................................................................................................100%
MASK / BOOM switch ..........................................................................................................MASK
AUDIO PANEL R / T / I / C switch ...........................................................................................OFF
CONTROL YOKE R / T I / C selector ......................................................................................OFF
AUDIO PANEL SPKR.....................................................................................................(press) ON
203
What do the pilots do to ensure the altitude maintained is the altitude reported to ATC by the transponder?
The transponder is selected to the same pilot position (1 or 2) as the autopilot/flight control
system. This ensures the altitude maintained is the altitude reported to ATC.
204
To avoid a TCAS resolution advisory, the vertical speed must be reduced to ____ at least __ prior to reaching cleared flight level
To avoid TCAS Resolution Advisories during climb and level off when aware of traffic in close
vicinity, monitor climb and consider reducing vertical speed to 1,500 ft/min or less at least 1,000 ft
before reaching the cleared flight level.
205
What criteria won't allow you to continue RVSM?
Altitude deviations of 200 ft or greater. Declare an emergency when unable to comply with
the assigned altitude
• Failure of transponder(s)
• Failure of either primary altimeter system
• Failure of altitude alerting and/or capture capability
• Failure of the AFCS
206
What deviation between altimeters may indicate a system failure?
The primary altimeter systems must indicate within 200 ft of each other in flight. A discrepancy in
excess of 200 ft may indicate a system failure.
207
How are stall margins increased when inadvertent flight into sever turbulence occurs?
Flights through severe turbulence must be avoided. When it is not possible, reduce altitude to
increase stall margin.
208
What should the pilot do with regards to altitude, thrust, airspeed, attitude, and pitch trim when in turbulent air?
ALTITUDE
Do not chase altitude. Allow altitude and airspeed to vary and maintain attitude. Large altitude
variations are possible in severe turbulence.
THRUST SETTING
When severe turbulence cannot be avoided, make an initial thrust setting for the target airspeed.
Change thrust setting only in the case of unacceptable airspeed variation.
AIRSPEED
Do not chase airspeed. Severe turbulence causes large and often rapid variations in indicated
airspeed. Fly a maximum of VB or MB.
ATTITUDE
Do not apply sudden, large control inputs. Maintain wings level and pitch attitude. Use the
attitude indicator as the primary instrument.
PITCH TRIM
Maintain control of the airplane with the elevators. After establishing the trim setting for
penetration speed, do not change pitch trim
209
What techniques are used when manually flying in severe turbulence?
When the autopilot is not available, control the airplane pitch attitude with the elevators using
the attitude indicator as the primary instrument. Do not change the stabilizer position. Do not
make sudden large elevator control inputs. Corrective actions to regain the desired attitude
should be smooth. Control the airplane attitude first, then make corrections for airspeed, altitude,
and heading. Fly VB or less.
210
What is the driftdown procedure?
• Set maximum continuous thrust
• Refer to the performance cards for driftdown performance speed
(When unable to hold altitude, decelerate to Venr
• Use ice protection equipment only when necessary
• Proceed to the nearest suitable airport for landing. When unsure of terrain clearance, divert to
the driftdown airport listed on the flight release using Method 1 or 2 procedures as appropriate.
• Refer to the Aerodata Performance Handbook for additional information
211
During a clean stall, what should you request from ATC? What should be declared at RVSM altitudes?
Because stall recovery at high altitudes may require a significant amount of altitude loss, notify
ATC of the need for a descent. Altitude loss may be 2,000-4,000 ft or more in order to regain
normal airspeed and return the airplane to normal flight. When the stall occurs at RVSM
altitudes, declare an emergency
212
When is the airplane state considered to be upset?
An upset can generally be defined as unintentionally exceeding the following conditions:
• Pitch attitude greater than 25° nose up, or
• Pitch attitude greater than 10° nose down, or
• Bank angle greater than 45°, or
• Within above parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions
213
What are the double engine failure memory items
Speed not less than 240 knts
| Continuous ignition....on
214
During descent....vertical speed must not exceed ___ when below ___AGL
1500 FPM below 2500 AGL
215
When should you arrive at traffic pattern altitude and flap 0 maneuvering speed?
Plan all descents to arrive at traffic pattern or IAF, flaps-up maneuvering speed:
• 12 miles out straight-in approach, or
• 8 miles out abeam approach
216
How do you calculate top of decent and descent rate for a 3 degree glidepath?
• Determine altitude required to lose (use straight line distance to airport)
• Distance Calculation:
– Altitude to lose * 3 / 1,000
• Required rate of descent varies proportionally to groundspeed
• Rate of Descent Calculation:
– Require Rate of Descent = Groundspeed * 5
217
What is the descent speed for an early arrival above 10,000 feet? What about a later or on time arrival?
Early arrival.... .74/300kts On time .77/320
218
What is the minimum holding speed?
• Minimum holding speed: VMD
219
What consideration should be given when holding in icing conditions?
Avoid holding in icing conditions for extended periods of time.
220
When are the flight deck crews required to make landing performance assessments?
• Conditions at the destination are different from those planned (e.g., runway surface
condition, runway braking capability, runway to be used, winds, airplane landing
weight/configuration/speed/deceleration devices); or
• The flight deck crew needs to know the absolute performance capability of the airplane in
emergencies or abnormal and irregular configurations of the airplane, such as an engine
failure or flight control malfunctions. In these circumstances, the flight deck crew must know
the actual landing distance (without an added safety margin) when making such an evaluation.
The landing performance assessment should be made as close to landing as practical, when the
most current airport conditions are available, respecting workload management.
Unless there are no other options, under emergency conditions, do not attempt to land on
runways that do not meet the assessment criteria, as specified by landing data information.
221
What should be discussed during the approach briefing for landing distance?
During the approach briefing, discuss:
• The outcome on the landing distance during the approach briefing based upon runway
conditions, etc. This detail, together with wind gusts on the surface, affects the landing
distance.
• The airplane status and operational restrictions
• Missed approach options when a failure occurs in the final approach that affects the required
landing distance. Failures that affect the landing distance are commonly associated to brakes,
ground spoilers, and/or thrust reversers.
222
What is the landing category for the crj200
D
223
What are the considerations when selecting an appraoch?
No approach should be initiated, unless the prevailing conditions are understood, briefed, and
a landing is anticipated without undue risk.
Precision approaches are recommended when available.
Constant angle descent is used for all non-precision approaches.
Visual approaches / VFR Arrivals may be flown in VMC, when FOM and Ops Specs requirements
are met, and the PIC determines it is a safe course of action.
224
What are the general approach procedures?
• Half bank (½ BANK) mode will be off during all approaches
• For localizer based approaches, select green needles far enough in advance of the localizer
intercept to allow stable CDI indication and navaid identification
• For CAT I precision and non-precision approaches, set the MDA readout on the PFD using the
MDA / DH knob. When the altitude is not at an even 10-foot increment, round up.
• For CAT II precision approaches, set the DH readout on the PFD using the MDA / DH knob
• Manuevering/straight-in speed will be verbally stated by the appropriate pilot after each flap
selection
225
What type of approach required DH to be set? MDA? DMDA?
DH....CAT II
MDA CATI
DMDA...Non-precision
226
What is the stabilized approach criteria?
At 1,000 ft HAT, the aircraft must be in a stabilized approach condition or a go-around is
mandatory. HAT is determined using charts and barometric altimeter.
A stabilized approach is defined as an aircraft energy state from which no excessive corrections
are required to maintain the following parameters:
• Aircraft established in the final landing configuration
Instrument Approach:
Aircraft must be aligned with the runway centerline, or
– Aircraft must be established on the published final approach course
Visual or VFR Approach
– Aircraft established within 5º of the runway centerline, and
– Aircraft indicated heading within 30º of runway heading
• Proper sink rate for glidepath
• Established on a precision approach glidepath (if applicable)
• Sink rate no greater than 1,000 FPM, unless the approach requires a higher rate due to:
– Glidepath exceeding 3º
– Tailwind condition
– Abnormal aircraft configuration
• Airspeed VREF (-0 + 10)
• Proper and steady state thrust setting (above idle)
227
What are the allowances for fluctuations during an approach?
• VMC < 1,000 ft HAT or IMC between 500 - 1,000 ft HAT: Should a transient unstabilized
condition or an EGPWS warning occur when less than 1,000 ft HAT, the PM states the
deviation. The PF states “CORRECTING” and makes the proper adjustment. If the deviation
is not immediately corrected, a missed approach is mandatory.
• IMC < 500 ft HAT: Should any unstabilized condition or an EGPWS warning occur below
500 ft HAT, a missed approach is mandatory
228
When does the "approach lights, continue" call out occur?
Visual cues may be called as they appear, (e.g., sequenced flashing lights).
The “APPROACH LIGHTS, CONTINUE” callout is not made prior to reaching DH, DMDA, or
MAP, only as a response to the “MINIMUMS” callout
229
When does the runway in sigh call out occur?
When visual contact with the runway can be maintained, call “RUNWAY IN SIGHT” and continue
with visual calls. If the 500 to minimums call has been made, there is no need to make the call
at 500 ft AFE
230
When can you descend below the DH, MDA, or DMDA?
Descending below DH, MDA, or DMDA is authorized, provided one of the following references
is distinctly visible and identifiable:
• Threshold, markings, or lights
• Runway, markings, or edge lights
• Touchdown zone, markings, or lights
• REIL
• Visual approach slope indicator (e.g., VASI, PAPI)
• Approach light system
• When the approach light system is being used as the visual reference, descent below 100
ft above TDZE is authorized only if the red side row bars (ALSF II) or red terminating bars
(ALSF I) are visible
231
What should be done when you are cleared for the approach ILS CAT I
When cleared for the approach, select APPR or NAV. Ensure all fixes are crossed at or above
minimum altitudes.
232
When arming the approach, what caution should you considered ILS CAT I
Arming the approach mode APPR too early may result in a false localizer
capture.
233
In order to maintain currency, how often is it recommended to fly CAT II approaches, how many should be flown?
SkyWest recommends flight deck crews fly three practice approaches every 90 days to
maintain CAT II currency.
234
What type of approaches are considered Non-Precision?
The procedures presented herein are applicable to LOC, VOR, GPS (GNSS), and RNAV
approaches.
235
What is DMDA and how is it derived? How is DMDA utilized? Can you level off at the DMDA?
Non-precision approaches are constant angle descents that maintain a constant vertical speed
throughout the final approach segment. This provides a stabilized descent to the runway
or missed approach.
A descent rate of 700-800 FPM is utilized after passing the FAP, unless briefed differently, (e.g.,
in the case of single engine, strong winds, flap failure).
A conversion table in the block below the profile view of the approach chart provides the rate of
descent based on ground speed.
Once established on the inbound course, deviation from the descent guidance is allowed when it
becomes obvious the aircraft is above or below the descent path, or the actual ground speed
is different from the planned ground speed.
A non-precision missed approach point is derived by adding 50 ft to the MDA and referred to as
the Derived Minimum Descent Altitude (DMDA). The DMDA is utilized like a DA on a precision
approach. When a missed approach is executed at the DMDA, the aircraft does not descend
below the published MDA during the missed approach.
236
At the final segment altitude of a circle to land, what altitude is set in the altitude selector?
MDA
237
What is the minimum MDA that can be flown on a circle to land?
The MDA is 1,000 ft AFE or the published circling minimum, whichever is higher.
238
To begin a circling approach, what are the required weather minimums
Weather minimums to begin the approach are the higher of:
• The published circling landing minimums, or
• 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility
239
What is the fuel burn during a missed approach and what is included in the calculation?
CRJ200....450 pounds
CRJ7/9....600 pounds
Missed approach fuel burn is the approximate fuel used when:
• Executing one missed approach from a point 200' above the runway; and
• Completing a subsequent approach from a 10-mile final
240
What is the procedure when anti-ice is required during an approach?
APU....on
| Bleeds....transfer to APU
241
When would a turn start for a 90 degree intercept?
• Multiply groundspeed by 1%
• Initiate the turn to intercept when reaching this distance in nm
• Example:
Groundspeed = 200 knots
200 X 1% = 2
Initiate turn 2 nm prior to intercepting the DME arc
242
How is the gust factor for approach speed calculated?
The gust factor is the difference between the maximum gust and steady wind velocity.
Approach airspeed should be VREF plus 50% of the gust factor; minimum VREF+5, maximum
VREF+10.
243
What are the considerations and procedure for the flap fail AD?
The intent of this section is to mitigate the risk of a flaps extended diversion with inadequate
fuel to reach a suitable airport. Upon arrival at the destination airport, an approach shall not be
commenced, nor shall the flaps be extended beyond the 0º position, unless one of the following
conditions exists:
• When conducting a precision approach, the reported visibility (or RVR) is confirmed to be at or
above landing minima for the approach in use, and can be reasonably expected to remain at
or above this visibility until after landing; or
• When conducting a non-precision approach, the reported ceiling and visibility (or RVR) are
confirmed to be at or above the ceiling and visibility associated with the landing minima for
the approach in use, and can be reasonably expected to remain at or above this ceiling
and visibility until after landing; or
• An emergency or abnormal situation occurs that requires landing at the nearest suitable
airport; or
• The fuel remaining is sufficient to conduct the approach, execute a missed approach, divert to
a suitable airport with the flaps extended to the landing position, conduct an approach at the
airport, and land with 1,000 lb of fuel remaining
Note 1 - The fuel burn factor (refer to QRH Volume 2 Flap Fail) shall be applied to the normal
fuel consumption for calculation of the flaps extended missed approach, climb, diversion, and
approach fuel consumption.
Note 2 - Terrain and weather must allow a minimum flight altitude not exceeding 15,000 ft along
the diversion route.
Note 3 - For the purpose of this AD, a “suitable airport” is an airport having at least one usable
runway, served by an instrument approach when operating under Instrument Flight Rules
(IFR) and the airport is equipped as per the applicable regulations and standards for marking
and lighting. The existing and forecasted weather for this airport shall be at or above landing
minima for the approach in use
244
What precautions should be taken if wind shear is suspected during landing?
The most important way to deal with windshear is to avoid areas of a known or potential
occurrence.
Windshear may be defined as a rapid change in wind direction and/or velocity resulting in
airspeed changes greater than 15 kt or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min.
Whenever windshear is suspected during landing, the following precautions must be taken:
• During approach, maintain VREF with the applicable wind additive correction
• Select flaps 45, unless limited by other landing performance consideration
• When possible, plan to land on the longest runway available with the lowest possibility of a
windshear encounter
• Monitor airspeed trends during the approach. When the approach becomes unstabilized,
perform the missed approach procedure
• Develop an awareness of normal airspeed, attitude, and vertical speed. Closely monitor the
vertical flight path instruments and call out any deviations
245
What are the stabilizer trim runaway memory items?
CONTROL WHEEL ............ ASSUME MANUAL CONTROL
AND OVERRIDE RUNAWAY
BOTH STAB TRIM DISC ..............................PRESS, HOLD
AND RELEASE
AIRPLANE CONTROL ... TRANSFER TO PILOT (LH) SIDE
STAB CH 1 AND CH 2 HSTCU
CIRCUIT BREAKERS (2F5 AND 4A1)........................OPEN
246
When should the final landing configuration be established?
1000 feet AFE on visual OR prior to the final approach fix on instrument approach
247
Prior to calling for/selecting the final flap setting what must be checked?
Check spoilers
248
At what speed must the reversers be at 30% N1
At 90 kt, the PM calls “90 KNOTS. "The PF smoothly reduces thrust reversers to idle by 60 kt
(not above 30% N 1).
249
At what speed can the flight controls be exchanged?
Below 60 knots
250
How do you verify that spoilers are set to zero?
Flight spoiler lever
251
What is the purpose of the chime on before landing check?
• Notifies the FA(s) that landing is
imminent
• FA(s) must be seated for landing
252
When is the FO required to maintain lateral control during roll out for xwind landing?
When directed by captain
253
When is idle thrust prohibited? What additional conditions would restrict use of IRTL?
• Wet or contaminated runways or when a runway condition code (RRC) of 5 or less is
being reported
• Overweight landings
• Any tailwind component exists
• Braking action is reported or suspected to be less than GOOD
• Aborted/rejected takeoff
• With a deferral or abnormality that may affect landing distances. (Anti-skid, spoiler caution
message, etc.)
• With a displaced threshold or during construction, when less than 7,500 ft. of runway is
available
• ACARS or dispatch release landing distance data exceeds 7,500 ft. without reverser credit
Additional conditions to be considered when using IRTL; these conditions do not restrict the
use of IRTL:
• When excessive BTMS temperatures may be encountered (e.g. short stage lengths)
• High altitude airports with high ambient temperatures
• Landing traffic close in trail
• LAHSO operations
254
How is the stopping distance minimized?
To minimize stopping distance on a contaminated runway:
• Use Maximum Performance Landing techniques
• Make a firm touchdown
• Apply maximum reverse thrust. Do not use asymmetric reverse thrust on slippery or icy
runways.
• Apply firm and symmetrical brake pedal pressure; do not pump the brakes
• Maintain runway centerline with rudder
255
Who has the final authority to accept of decline a LAHSO clearance When should it be declined?
PIC and when safety might be compromised
256
What is the required weather to accept a lahso clearance?
Weather minimums can be no lower than 1,000 ft and 3 miles (PAPI or VASI available and
working), otherwise 1,500 ft and 5 miles are required.
No windshear reported in the last 20 minutes prior to LAHSO clearance being issued.
The tail wind on the LAHSO runway cannot be greater than 3 k
257
What runway conditions prohibit a Lahso?
No windshear reported in the last 20 minutes prior to LAHSO clearance being issued.
The tail wind on the LAHSO runway cannot be greater than 3 kt.
No wet runways
NO MEL that affect stopping
258
What distance is required for a LAHSO
To accept a LAHSO clearance, the available landing distance must be at least the distance
shown on the TLR.
259
What is required for night LAHSO
Night LAHSO is conducted only where an FAA-approved LAHSO night lighting system is
installed and operating.
260
What is the maximum performance landing procedure?
Use full flaps
• Cross the threshold at 50 ft and VREF
• Avoid extended flare
• Apply maximum reverse thrust
• After the main landing gear wheels have touched down, lower nosewheel immediately
• Apply firm and steady maximum brakes, and hold pedal pressure until the airplane decelerates
to a safe taxi speed
261
What factors can increase landing distance?
• Unstabilized approach
• Crossing runway threshold with airspeed above VREF
• Crossing runway threshold above the screen height
• Extended flare, touching down on the runway beyond the touchdown zone
• Improper application of the available deceleration devices (brakes, spoilers, and thrust
reverse)
262
How much would landing distance increase at 10 knots above Vref? at 100ft above threshold? Extending flare by 3 seconds?
When the airplane crosses the threshold at 10 kt above VREF, the landing distance increases
by approximately 20%. Crossing the threshold at 100 ft instead of the normal screen height
increases the landing distance by approximately 35%. E
263
What factors would direct you to consider an overweight landing?
Runway and performance landing weight limits
• Approach weather and runway conditions
• Tire speed limit
• Status of aircraft (e.g., anti-skid, brakes, spoilers)
• Time and altitude needed to burn off fuel versus weather, traffic, and/or need to land
264
At touchdown, what is the maximum rate of descent for an overweight landing?
The maximum rate of descent at touchdown is less than 360 fpm. The captain makes the
landing, and the first officer monitors the rate of descent. Make a smooth landing; do not allow
the aircraft to float. Use maximum reverse thrust down to 60 kt. When the stopping capability is
in doubt, use reverse thrust until certain the aircraft will stop within the runway limits
265
Who performs an overweight landing? What is the FO role?
PIC....FO monitors rate of descent
266
Is it required to declare an emergency for an overweight landing?
No
267
What are the excessive asymmetry or loss of braking memory items?
Release brakes momentarily
Anti-skid OFF
Re-apply brakes
268
When should the captain call for the After Landing Check?
When clear of the runway and safe operation of the aircraft is not compromised, the captain
conducts the flow and calls for the After Landing Check by stating, “AFTER LANDING CHECK.”
The first officer then conducts the flow and silent checklist.
269
Would the probes ever be required to remain selected to on after landing check?
No
270
Is continuous ignition required to be selected or remain on during taxi in?
No
271
Continuous ignition required for landing on contaminated runway?
yes
272
When is cowl anti-ice required for taxi in?
```
When OAT is ≤10° and:
• visible moisture is present, and
• visibility is ≤1 mile, or
• when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where ice, snow, standing water, or slush
is present:
```
273
Is wing anti-ice ever required for taxi in?
NO
274
Engines must be provided a cool down time of how many minutes?
2
275
What are the two scenarios for the shutdown check?
The Shutdown Check is conducted using one of two scenarios:
SIMULTANEOUS TWO-ENGINE SHUTDOWN
This is used when
• Taxi time is less than 2 minutes; or
• Taxi conditions prohibit single engine taxi operations
Both pilots complete flows after the parking brake has been set at the gate. The captain calls for
the Shutdown Check. The first officer then conducts the challenge and response checklist.
LEFT ENGINE, THEN RIGHT ENGINE SHUTDOWN
This flow is used when:
• Completion of the FFOD Fuel Feed Check Valve Test is required; or
• Gate facilities require the right engine to remain in operation
During taxi-in at the discretion of the captain:
• The Left Engine Shutdown Flow is accomplished by the first officer without challenge and
response;
or
• At the gate, the Left Engine Shutdown Flow is accomplished by the captain
After AC power has been established, the captain completes the Shutdown Check Flow in its
entirety for the right engine. The captain then calls for the Shutdown Check. The challenge and
response checklist is conducted by the first officer.
276
When is a simultaneous two-engine shutdown accomplished?
SIMULTANEOUS TWO-ENGINE SHUTDOWN
This is used when
• Taxi time is less than 2 minutes; or
• Taxi conditions prohibit single engine taxi operations
Both pilots complete flows after the parking brake has been set at the gate. The captain calls for
the Shutdown Check. The first officer then conducts the challenge and response checklist.
277
When is engine 1 shutdown and then engine 2?
FFOD
LEFT ENGINE, THEN RIGHT ENGINE SHUTDOWN
This flow is used when:
• Completion of the FFOD Fuel Feed Check Valve Test is required; or
• Gate facilities require the right engine to remain in operation
278
Prior to reaching the gate, when would the captain have engine 1 shutdown?
• The Left Engine Shutdown Flow is accomplished by the first officer without challenge and
response;
279
When can the flight deck door be opened on shutdown?
The flight deck door remains locked until the completion of the Shutdown Check unless
operational need dictates otherwise.
280
As the captain, how do you establish AC Power on shutdown check?
Select AC when plugged in or use APU
281
When can the seat belt sign be selected off?
Chock signal
Before selecting the seat belts sign off, verify the “Chocks In” signal has been received.
This signal indicates chocks are in place and the area around the MCD is clear and safe
to open.
In the event no “Chocks In” signal is received, a reasonable effort should be made to
ensure the MCD area is clear before selecting the sign off and allowing the MCD to be
opened.
282
Which 10th stage bleed valves are checked during the bleeds flow item on shutdown?
10th stage L/R closed
283
When can the captain or FO accomplish the engine 1 shutdown flow?
Captain....at gate
| FO...during taxi
284
When will the captain check the oil quantity? What is the procedure?
The captain performs an engine oil quantity check between three minutes and two hours after
every engine shutdown using the following procedures:
285
What is the oil quantity check procedure?
ENGINE OIL LEVEL STOP / START ..................................................................SELECT / START
Check:
• STOP half of START / STOP switch/light remains illuminated indicating a successful test
• Illumination of a FAIL or REFILL light requires coordination to have Maintenance refill
the oil
ENGINE OIL LEVEL STOP / START .................................................. DESELECT / EXTINGUISH
286
When can a single engine turn be conducted?
Unavailable ground support equipment in conjunction with an inoperative APU require continued
operation of the right engine during the entire turn.
287
What must be checked and coordinated for single engine turns greater than 30 minutes?
Turn times expected to exceed 30 minutes require coordination with flight control to ensure
adequate fuel is uploaded to accommodate the additional time the engine is running
288
Can the galley service door be opened with engine 2 running?
Commissary service via the galley service door is permitted with the right engine at idle thrust.
During windy conditions, ramp personnel should be reminded to secure all lightweight items
(cups, boxes, napkins, trash bags, etc.). Station personnel must be advised when a single
engine turn is conducted.
289
Who must be advised of a single engine turn?
Station personnel
290
What is the single engine turn procedure?
sopm
291
Prior to conducting single engine turn fueling, who must be advised?
The captain advises the flight attendant(s), ramp personnel, fuel contractor, and ATC (if
applicable) to ensure all applicable parties are aware of the required procedures and duties.
292
Must the MCD remain open or closed for single engine turn fueling?
The main cabin door must remain open during all fueling operations to facilitate emergency
egress.
293
Who can be on the airplane during a single engine turn fueling process?
Only the flight crew may be onboard during fueling.
294
Which lights are selected off for the lights flow terminating check?
Pass signs, external lights
295
What is the purpose of the external inspection?
The aircraft external inspection is an assessment of the overall condition of the aircraft. The
External Inspection Checklist is a guide to ensuring adequate coverage of the aircraft but is not a
comprehensive list. Due diligence must be given to the aircraft as a whole.
296
Are external lights required to be on during post flight?
Not required to be on
297
When is the preflight inspection required?
Each flight
298
Can the pre and post flight external inspections be combined?
A pre- and post-flight external inspection of the aircraft is required for each flight. These
inspections may be combined when on a through flight and the flight crew has remained with
the airplane.
299
When is the post flight external inspection required?
Every flight
300
When can the post flight external inspection be waived?
• The outbound crew must be at the aircraft prior to the inbound crew commencing the
Terminating Checklist
• The aircraft must remain powered
• The outbound crew must perform an external preflight inspection
• The inbound crew is responsible for resolving all known discrepancies prior to leaving the
aircraft
301
When do fan blades need to be reported to mx
The root of the fan blade is the most critical area. Any damage, deformation, or cracking found in
this area must be reported immediately to Maintenance
302
When is tire wear or damage required to be reported to mx
When tire wear or damage meets or exceeds the following AMM criteria, Maintenance must be
contacted:
CRJ 200
• The tire is worn to the bottom of any groove in the tread area to a maximum of 1/8 the
circumference of the tire
• The top (outer) tread fabric reinforcing ply (cord) is exposed for a maximum of 1/8 the
circumference of the tire and the tread reinforcing ply is exposed to a maximum of 1 inch
wide at the fastest wearing location
• The tire is worn through the tread reinforcing plies to the undertread
• There is groove cracking, embedded objects, skid burns, sidewall cuts, cracks, bulges,
blisters, or separation extending to or beyond the reinforcing ply
• The fabric tread reinforcing ply (cord) is exposed for a maximum of 1/8 the circumference of
the tire and the tread reinforcing ply is exposed to a maximum of 1 inch wide at the fastest
wearing location
• The tire is worn through the tread reinforcing plies to the undertread
• There is groove cracking, embedded objects, skid burns, sidewall cuts, cracks, bulges,
blisters, or separation extending to or beyond the reinforcing ply
• Airworthiness and continued operational limitations are determined by Maintenance
303
How is window delamination or crackling identified?
Delamination or crackling of windows can easily be mistaken for cracks. A crack compromises
the integrity of the window or windshield. However, delamination or crackling does not impact
the structural integrity of the windshield. Delamination is the de-bonding of interlayer material
from a glass ply which can either be transparent (clear) or translucent (milky white) when
moisture ingress has occurred. The appearance may be similar to that of dried mud, hence
the term ‘crackling.’
Delamination and/or crackling is allowed two inches from the edge of the windshield around the
entire periphery with four inches of penetration in the corners.
304
When should external AC be used? What what point should it be removed?
Use external AC power at the gate unless ground AC power services are unavailable or
environmental conditions require use of the APU.
Unless otherwise required, external AC power is used until approximately 10 minutes prior to
pushback.
305
A powered airplane should not be left unattended for how long?
A powered aircraft is not left unattended by a flight deck crew member for more than five minutes.
306
What is the procedure for establishing AC power on an unpowered airplane?
Batt Master On
| AC select
307
When should the APU be started on the ground? After landing?
The APU start is delayed until 10 minutes prior to pushback, unless required for AC power
or for passenger comfort.
The APU is not started after landing unless:
• Time remaining until departure is less than 30 minutes
• Environmental conditions require APU bleed air
• External AC power is unavailable at the gate
308
How long should you wait before establishing APU bleed air on the ground?
2 minutes
309
What APU starting procedure is used under extremely cold temperatures?
To ensure a successful APU start when ground temperatures are extremely cold (typically well
below freezing), consider using the alternate start procedure.
310
What is the bleed config for FFOD takeoffs?
Bleeds closed CRJ200
311
When would you use the APU in flight?
Circumstances requiring the operation of the APU in flight may include:
• Passenger comfort
• CRJ 200: Missed approach performance with wing/cowl anti-ice on
• Abnormal or emergency procedures
312
When APU is shutdown, when can the APU Gen remain in the ON position?
When engines are running.
