Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > FM other > Flashcards

FM other Flashcards

0
Q

What is the most sensitive test for alcohol abuse? Most specific?

A
  • sensitive: GGT

- specific: MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What DM drug is safer to use with a creatinine > 1.5 ?

A

-thiazolidinediones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is HTN in arms, but low bp in the legs a sign of?

A
  • coarctation of the aorta

- more than 50% of the pts w/ coarctation of the aorta also have bicuspid aortic valaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What BMI is extreme obesity (class III obesity)?

A
  • > 40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What BMI is overweight?

A

> 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What percentage of total units should be long acting?

A

-40-50% (ex lantus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tx of choice for premature ejaculation?

A

-SSRIs bc they increase threshold for orgasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mild intermittent asthma sx?

A
  • sx less than 2 times a week

- night time sx less than 2 times a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Loosing weight and HTN?

A

-10 lbs lost usually means 20mmHg decrease in systolic bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anginal equivalent

A

-a pt has no chest pain, but has other sx of cardiac ischemia (ex dyspnea) that is brought on by exertion and relieved by rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Whatis the only tx found to improve the natural history of COPD progression?

A

-supplemental oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the ABCDs of treating HTN?

A
  • A = ACEi –> should be used as first line tx in all pts younger than 55 or are black
  • B = beta blocker –> can be used, but not are not ideal first-line
  • C = CCB –> first line tx for pts older than 55 &/or black
  • D = diuretics –> also can be used as first line tx in pts who are older than 55 &/or black
  • if mono tx is not working add another from a diff category (ex. A or B + C or D)
  • if still need more control add another from a diff category (ex. A (or B) + C + D)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the recommended first line monotx to prevent occurrence of CV morbidity and mortality?

A

-low-dose diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Target LDL for pts w/ known CAD or DM?

A

-less than or equal to 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug has been proven to be the best for advanced Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

-memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What BMI is class II obesity?

A
  • > 35
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the lipid lowering mechanism of fish-oil?

A

-decreases the secretion of TGs by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

First line tx for COPD?

A

-An inhaled anticholinergic = (ipratropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should pap smears be done in HIV positive pts?

A

-every 6 mnths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which 2 cholesterol med increases HDL the most? Rank?

A
  1. Niacin (25-35%)

2. Fenifibrates (15-25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sitagliptin: MOA?

A
  • AKA: januvia
  • dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor = prolongs activity of endogenously released GLP-1 = dtimulates insulin and suppresses glucagon secretion, delays gastric emptying, reduces appetite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 most commonly reported sx of hyperTH?

A
  1. Tachycardia

2. Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hypoesthesia

A

-numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ezetemibe: MOA?

A
  • AKA: Zetia
  • lowers the cholesterol by interfering w/ absorption of cholesterol in the gut
  • good to use in combo with statins to get max decrease in LDL without all the side effects of high doses of statins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Of all the lipid values, which is the best predictor of an adverse outcome? What is the most effective way to improve that number?

A
  • low HDL = worse

- can improve the most w/ exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Paresthesia

A

-pins and needles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MOA of naltrexone with alcohol abuse?

A
  • reduce the reinforcing effects of alcohol

- doesnt allow the pt to become “drunk”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How will smoking cessation effect a pts lipid levels?

A
  • increase HDL by 5-10 mg/dL

- does NOT affect LDL, VLDL, or TGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Complication rate with bariatric surgeries?

A

-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should be done after an HIV positive needle stick?

A
  1. Determine vicitm’s HIV viral load level

2. Start using at least 2 medications for prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which 2 antidepressants should not be used in obese patients?

A
  1. Mirtazapine

2. Tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which antidepressants should not be used in patients with a seizure disorder?

A

-buproprion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gemfibrozole: MOA?

A
  • changes hepatic metabolism of lipoproteins

- can increase HDL and decrease TGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the first lab abnormality seen in chronic renal failure?

A
  • anemia, the kidneys epo production drops when the GFR is below 60
  • other results, such as hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, etc wouldnt be seen until function drops below 30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which 2 antidepressants should not be used in pts with agitation and insomnia?

A
  1. Bupropion

2. Venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are 3 contraindications for a stress EKG? Why? What test should be done in its place?

A
  1. Left ventricular hypertrophy with strain
  2. Left bundle branch block
  3. ST-segment baseline abnormaliities in the pre-cordial leads
    - these EKG abnormalities make the stress test EKG hard to read
    - use: thallium exercise test instead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Obesity and osteoporosis?

A
  • obesity is considered to be protective –> bc increased estrogen
  • unless the person is sedentary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Drug if choice to prevent relapse of alcoholism?

A

-Acamprosate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you determine what a low dose of NPH will be?

A

-0.1 U/kg of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Peak flow measurements of what require immediate medical attention?

A
  • < 50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is stage 2 HTN? Tx?

A
  • systolic > 160
  • OR diastolic > 90
  • tx:two-drug combination tx (usually thiazide + ACEi, ARB, Bb, or CCB)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Drug of choice for hyperlipidemia in diabetics?

A

-statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tx for a pt started on an antidepressant that becomes manic?

A
  1. neuroleptic for the acute phase

2. Then a mood stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What dosage of beta blocker should be used for angina?

A
  • dosage should be adjusted so that the heart rate is between 50-60 bpm
  • not all pts will respond to Bbs
  • all Bbs are essentially the same
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bisphosphonates: MOA?

A

-bind to bone surface and inhibit osteoclast activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What antidepressant should not be used in pts w/ HTN?

A

-venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A
  • anterior displacement of vertebrae in relation to the one below
  • most common cause of low back pain in patients younger than age 26
  • especially seen in athletes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the target LDL with a 10 yr coronary disease risk > 20%? 10-20%?

A
  • > 20% = < 100
  • 10-20% = < 130
  • <10% = < 160
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which 2 antidepressants should be avoided in pts with hypersomnia and motor retardation?

A
  1. Nefazodone

2. Mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What 3 tests should be done in a child who is suspected to have ADHD?

A
  1. Blood chemistries
  2. TSH
  3. Lead level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What tx is recommended to prevent recurrent strokes?

A

-ACEi plus diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What BMI is obese?

A
  • > 30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which 2 cholesterol meds decrease the TGs the most? Rank?

A
  1. Fenofibrate

2. Statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

5 absolute contraindications to liver transplant?

A
  1. Portal vein thrombosis
  2. Severe medical illness
  3. Malignancy
  4. Hepatobiloary sepsis
  5. Lack of patient understanding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mild persistent asthma sx?

A
  • sx more than 2x per week, but less than once a day

- night time sx more than 2x per month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulators: MOA? Name 2?

A
  • MOA: block the activity of cytokines
    1. Raloxifene
    2. Evista
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fluoride: MOA

A

-stimulates osteoblasts –> but doesnt result in normal bone to be formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most common cause if death in patients with cirrhosis?

A

-bleeding from varicies secondary to chronic high pressures in portal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hyperesthesia

A

-increased sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Peak flow measurements of what mean the asthma tx should be reevaluated?

A

-50-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What drug can be used for osteoporosis tx and for bone pain?

A

-calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Moderate persistent asthma sx?

A
  • daily sx

- night time sx at least once a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Allodynia

A

-severe pain, usually from innocuous stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What antidepressant should not be used in pts with liver dz?

A

-nefazodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Tx of PTSD? 2 best drugs?

A
  • antidepressants should be used
    1. Sertraline
    2. Paroxetine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Describe the pain associated with esophageal spasm

A

-often referred higher in the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Croup tx?

A
  • uncomplicated = supportive

- more complex, severe = single dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is BI-RADS?

A
  • breast imaging reporting and data system
  • 0 = test incomplete, additional testing should be done
  • 1&2 = mammogram is benign, routine screening can be done at regular intervals
  • 3 = lesion is probably benign
  • 4 = suspicious for cancer, tissue dx is needed
  • 5 = highly suggestive of cancer, tissue dx is needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What 3 ssx should be present to make a dx of otitis media?

A
  1. Opaque TM
  2. Bulging TM
  3. Impaired TM mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Fatigue due to psychologic factors?

A
  • lasts more than 3 mnths
  • causes:
    1. Depresssion
    2. Anxiety
    3. Stress
    4. Adjustment rxns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the 5 Ranson’s criteria that assess the severity and prognosis of pancreatitis?

A
  1. Age > 55 yrs
  2. WBC > 16,000
  3. Glucose > 200
  4. LDH > 350
  5. AST > 250
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tx of choice of tinea capitis?

A
  • griseofulvin

- can also use selenium or ketoconozole topically in addition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tx for shoulder dislocation

A
  1. relocation
  2. then immobilization for 7-10 days
  3. then PT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the tx of choice for chronic constipation? What is it?

A
  • psyllium
  • bulk-forming agent
  • can be taken regularly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Physiologic causes of fatigue?

A
  1. Overwork
  2. Lack of sleep
  3. Physical stressor (ex pregnancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Primary monosymptomatic enuresis?

A
  • bed wetting w/ out history of not bed wetting

- no other sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What should be done next when a papsmear reports “atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance, favor low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion”?

A

-do colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Exotropria

A

-eye deviates toward temporal side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Fatigue due to a physical cause?

A
  • lasts less than 1 mnth
  • can be due to:
    1. Infections
    2. Endocrine imbalances
    3. CV dz
    4. Anemia
    5. Meds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What 6 tests should be done in the initial workup for fatigue?

A
  1. CBC
  2. Sed rate
  3. Urinalysis
  4. Chem panel
  5. Thyroid testing
  6. Preg testing
  7. Age/gender appropriate cancer screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

7 Red flags for headaches?

A
  1. Onset after age 50
  2. Very sudden onset
  3. Increased severity or frequency
  4. W/ signs of systemic dz
  5. Focal neurologic sx
  6. Papilledema
  7. Headache after trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Antibiotic tx for lyme dz?

A
  • depends on stage of the dz
  • early localized dz = amoxicillin or doxy for 14-21 days
  • early disseminated dz = IV ceftriaxone or cefotaxime for 2-3 wks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the Dix-Hallpike maneuver? What do the results mean?

A
  • distinguishes central from peripheral vertigo
  • have patient sit on the edge of the examining table and lie down suddenly with the head hanging 45° backward –> turned head to either side
  • Peripheral: latency for onset of sx of nystagmus is 3-10 sec, the sx are severe, and the direction of the nystagmus is fixed, also sx should lessen when the maneuver is repeated
  • Central: no latency to onset of sx, no lessening of sx with repeat of maneuver, the direction of nystagmus will change, sx are of mild intensity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When is rhogam given?

A

-26-28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is cervical dystonia? What is a proven tx?

A

-botox!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which tx for Parkinson’s has been found to delay functional impairment and disease progression?

A

-selegiline = MOA inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the 6 “alarm sx” of constipation?

A
  1. Hematochezia
  2. Family hx of colon cancer
  3. Family hx of IBS
  4. Positive fetal occult blood test
  5. Weight loss
  6. New onset of constipation in pts > 50
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Presentation of ACL tear?

A
  • twisting injury where the pt feels a “pop”, then immediate effusion
  • can still bear weight
  • instability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Tx of cat bite to the hand?

A
  • hospitalization!! Unless it is very superficial and does not appear to be infected
  • outpatient tx: amoxicillian/clavulanic acid, 5 days for prevention & 10 days for tx
  • do not ever close the bite at first!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is he gold standard for dx and tx of choledocholithiasis?

A
  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

- performed when there is cholycystitis w/ increased liver enzymes, amylase, or lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

High AFP?

A

-neural tube defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Bacteria that causes impetigo?

A

-staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is a D-dimer test for?

A
  • determines the risk for a DVT or PE
  • low result = high neg predictive value for the presence of a thrombus
  • high result –> can be confirmed with spiral CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the top 3 causes of pancreatitis (in order)?

A
  1. Gall stones
  2. Alcohol
  3. Idiopathic
94
Q

What drug cant be takem with isotretinoin and why?

A
  • tetracycline

- both cause pseudomotor cerebri

95
Q

Cradle cap, tx?

A
  • seborrhic dermatitis

- tx: diluted selsum blue

96
Q

What are 3 types of drugs that can be used for migraine prophylaxis?

A
  1. beta blockers
  2. CCBs –> only verapamil
  3. Tri-cyclic anti-depressants –> esp amitriptyline
97
Q

Classic pattern of lesions for chigger bites?

A

-bite in a linear pattern over wrists, ankles, and legs

98
Q

“Strawberry cervix”

A

-trichomonas vaginalis

99
Q

4 common sx of acute bacterial cystitis?

A
  1. Frequency
  2. Hematuria
  3. Dysuria
  4. Back pain
100
Q

Tularemia tx?

A

-streptomycin intramuscularly

101
Q

What is primary amenorrhea? What is the most common cause?

A
  • absence of menses @ age 16 in the presence of normal secondary sex characteristics OR absence of menses and secondary sex characteristics @ age 14
  • gonadal dysgenesis is the most common cause (ex . Turner’s syndrome)
102
Q

Presentation of pityriasis rosea? Tx?

A
  • herald patch, followed by a more generalized eruption of a papulosquamous rash in the next 1-2 wks
  • usually resolves in 6-12 wks
  • tx: symptomatic, antihistamines or corticosteroids to relieve itch
103
Q

What should be done next if a pap smear shows “atypical cells of undetermined significance.” And HPV testing was not performed in a post-menopausal woman?

A
  • give 1 week course of vaginal estrogen
  • repeat pap after tx is finished
  • if abnormal again, do colposcopy
104
Q

Describe the pattern of pain in acute pancreatitis

A
  • pain in the midepigastric region that radiates to the back
  • associated with nausea and vomiting
105
Q

Adnexal masses in girls < 15 yrs old

A
  • 80% are malignant!

- evaluate with transvaginal ultrasound

106
Q

What is the test of choice for the dx of Meckle’s diverticulum?

A

-Technetium-99m pertechnetate scintigraphic study

107
Q

Common causes of epididymitis in younger and older men?

A
  • men < 35 yrs who are sexually active = n. gonorrhoeae or chlamydia trachomatis
  • men > 35 who are monogamous = enterobacter
108
Q

What are 4 possible causes of nausea in the morning before eating?

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. Uremia
  3. Alcohol withdrawal
  4. Increased intracranial P
109
Q

How long does fatigue have to last to be dx as a chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

-more than 6 mnths

110
Q

What is the recommended diet for acute viral diarrhea?

A
  • potatoes
  • rice
  • wheat
  • noodles
  • crackers
  • banannas
  • yogurt
  • boiled vegetables
  • soup
111
Q

Glabella tap reflex

A
  • percusssing a pts forehead will cause the obicularis oculi m to contract, both eyes will blink
  • blinking normally stops after 5-10 taps
  • persistence of blinking = myerson sign = common in Parkinson pts
112
Q

Where does pain from kidney stones usually radiate?

A

-to the shoulder

113
Q

Pathogenesis of primary dysmenorrhea? Tx?

A
  • prostaglandin release from endometrium

- tx: NSAIDs started a day before menstruation

114
Q

Describe the pain typical of GERD

A
  • usually midepigastric

- usually does NOT radiate

115
Q

Tx for external otitis?

A

-otic drops that contain antibiotics and corticosteroids

116
Q

Tx of choice for bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • topical or oral metronidazole

- or oral or topical clindamycin as an alternative

117
Q

Tx for acute OM?

A
  1. Amoxicillin –> first line
  2. Amoxicillin-clavulanate –> if severe ear pain or fever >102*
  3. Azithromycin –> should be reserved as second line tx
118
Q

Non-monosymptomatic enuresis

A

-bed wetting associated w/ urinary urgency, frequency, straining, pain,chronic constipation, or encopresis

119
Q

When should an ear effusion be referred to an ENT?

A

-if it hasnt resolved in 3 mnths

120
Q

Iliotibial band syndrome

A
  • most common cause of lateral knee pain in an athlete

- presentation: pain or ache over the lateral aspect of the knee, worsens w/ activity, pain and tightness over IT band

121
Q

Foods that can cause pseudohematuria?

A
  1. Beets
  2. Blackberries
  3. Certain food dyes
122
Q

What are 4 common causes of microcytic anemia?

A
  1. Iron deficiency
  2. Anemia of chronic dz
  3. Thalassemia
  4. Sideroblastic anemia
123
Q

Tx for vaginal candidiasis

A
  1. Topical azole

2. Oral, one-time dose of fluconazole

124
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for recurrent UTIs

A
  • if resistant to other measures:
    1. single dose of postcoital antibiotic
    2. Single daily dose of antibiotics for 3-6 mnths if that doesnt work
    3. If sx reoccur after discontinuation of daily prophylaxis, may need to continue for 1-2 yrs
125
Q

Classical presentation of head lice?

A
  • itching scalp

- erythematous papules on scalp w/ small black bulbs at the bases of several hair follicles

126
Q

First line tx for rosacea?

A
  • oral antibiotics:
    1. Minocycline
    2. Doxycycline
127
Q

Tx of head lice?

A
  1. Permethrin 1%
  2. Permethrin 5% –> second line option
  3. Lindane 1% –> third option
128
Q

Typical location for flea bites?

A

-lower extremities

129
Q

Enuresis

A

-releated, spontaneous nocturnal voiding of urine into the bed or clothes at least 2x a week for 3 consecutive months in a kid that is at least 5 yrs old

130
Q

3 most common cause of jaundice in pts > 60 yrs old?

A
  1. extra-hepatic obstruction: gall stones, strictures, pancreatic cancer
  2. Metastatic dz
  3. CHF
131
Q

Meniscal tear ssx?

A
  • knee pain

- locking, catching, or giving way of the knee

132
Q

Spermatocele: ssx? Dx?

A
  • asymptomatic nodules attached to spermatic cord

- no tests are necessary

133
Q

What can relieve dyspnea in cancer?

A

-opioids

134
Q

2 drugs that can be used for sleep onset problems?

A
  1. Zolpidem = ambien

2. Eszopiclone = lunesta

135
Q

What “5 alarm symptoms” should prompt an endoscopy?

A
  1. upper GI bleeding
  2. an abdominal mass
  3. weight loss
  4. dysphagia
  5. vomiting
    * * especially in the elderly!
136
Q

Lymphadenopathy w/ mono?

A

-posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

137
Q

Scleritis: what is it? Sx? What is its associated with? Vs iritis?

A
  • unilateral diffuse injection of the deep scleral vessels
  • sx: decreased vision, deep “boring” eye pain, headache
  • assoc: w/ systemic autoimmune diseases (ie RA or Wegener’s)
  • iritis = similar sx, but pupil is small!
138
Q

Esotropia

A

-eye deviates toward nose

139
Q

What doe the progestin challenge test do? What do the results mean?

A
  • separates pts w/ estrogen deficiency from those w/ normal or excess androgen
  • bleeding in the week after the test = pt has enough estrogen and amenorrhea is most likely due to anovulation
140
Q

What happens when a pt with Mono is given a penicillin antiboitic?

A

-they can develop a diffuse, symmetrical erythematous maculopapular rash

141
Q

What should be done next when a pap smear has “atypical glandular cells”?

A

-colposcopy

142
Q

What is on thing that is characteristic of viral conjunctivitis?

A

-palapable preauricular lymph node

143
Q

Ssx of acute prostatitis?

A
  1. Frequency
  2. Urgency
  3. Back pain
  4. Pt appears acutely ill
  5. Pyuria
  6. Boggy, warm, tender prostate on exam
144
Q

Secondary monosymptomatic enuresis

A

-bed wetting after the child had previously not had bed wetting for at least 6 mnths

145
Q

What is the first line tx for peripheral vertigo?

A
  • antihistamines

- MOA: suppress vestibular end-organ receptors and inhibit activation of vagal response

146
Q

Pharyngitis with a swollen uvula is caused by? Tx?

A
  • group A beta-hemolytic strep infection

- tx: amoxicillin

147
Q

4 causes of peripheral vertigo?

A
  1. Vestibular neuronitis
  2. Benign positional vertigo
  3. Meinere disease
  4. Acoustic neuroma
148
Q

Tx for scabies?

A

-oral ivermectin

149
Q

Describe gallbladder pain

A

-in epigastric or right upper quadrant and radiates to the scapula

150
Q

Tx of gastroparesis?

A

-metoclopramide = can improve gastric motility

151
Q

Cause of ring worm

A
  • also called: tinea corporis

- caused by: trichopyton rubrum

152
Q

What are the 4 most common causes of chronic cough?

A
  1. Asthma
  2. Post-nasal drip
  3. GERD
  4. Smoking
153
Q

Centor criteria for probability of group A strep infection in adults?

A
  • one point for each characteristics:
    1. Tonsillar exudates
    2. Tender anterior cervical adenopathy
    3. Fever
    4. Lack of cough
  • all 4 –> tx w/ antibiotics w/out performing a lab test
  • only 3 –> chance of strep drops to 40-60%
  • only 1 –> chance of strep drops to 1-5%
154
Q

Risks of bladder carcinoma

A
  1. Males
  2. Smoking
  3. Working with aromatic amines = used in dye, paint, aluminum, textile, and rubber industries
155
Q

What is the dose of Folic acid is appropriate during pregnancy?

A

-400mcg

156
Q

Tx for mild acne?

A
  • use combination tx w/:
    1. Topical antibiotics
    2. Benzoyl peroxide gels
    3. Topical retinoids
  • can take 2-5 mnths to see improvement
157
Q

Tx for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A
  • chloramphenicol

- continue for 2-3 days after the pt is afebrile

158
Q

Prophylaxis for cluster headaches

A
  1. Nifedipine
  2. Prednisone
  3. Indomethacin
  4. Lithium
159
Q

What is the most common cause of jaundice in pts < 30 yrs old?

A

-viral hepatitis

160
Q

The functions of which organs should be tested to work up gynecomastia?

A
  1. Liver
  2. Kidneys
  3. Thyroid
    * *sex hormones should only be tested if progressive enlargement is noticed
161
Q

Antibiotic of choice for traveler’s diarrhea?

A

-a fluroquinolone = ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, or norfloxacin

162
Q

Classic presentation of scabies?

A

-pruritic erythematous papules in between fingers, on wrists, and around waist –> areas where clothing is tight next to skin

163
Q

4 factors that decrease the likelihood of UTI?

A
  1. Absent dysuria
  2. Absent back pain
  3. Hx of vaginal discharge
  4. Hx of vaginal irritation
164
Q

What is one major difference between keratoacanthoma and basal cell carcinoma?

A

-keratoacanthoma grows very rapidly, can become 2.5 cm in only a few weeks!

165
Q

What is the first line antibiotic tx for pertussis?

A
  1. Erythromycin for 14 days

2. Or Azithromycin for 5 days

166
Q

What drug can be used for sleep maintenance problems?

A
  1. Zaleplon = sonata
167
Q

5 common medications that can cause discoloration of urine?

A
  1. Chloroquine
  2. Metronidazole
  3. Phenytonin
  4. Rifampin
  5. Sulfasalazine
168
Q

What live vaccine should be offered preconception?

A

-rubella

169
Q

Classical presentation for peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • gnawing abdominal pain in the center of upper abdomen associated with a sensation of hunger
  • darker stool
170
Q

Murphy’s sign

A
  • sudden cessation of inspiratory effort during deep palpitation of the right upper quadrant
  • seen in acute cholecystitis
171
Q

Most common presentation of bladder carcinoma?

A

-painless hematuria without other sx

172
Q

Low AFP?

A

Down syndrom

173
Q

Typical location for bedbug bites?

A

-unclothed skin (neck, face, hands)

174
Q

What does LEARN stand for and what does it mean in regards to treating a patient from a cultural background different than yours?

A
  • Listen to your pts perspective
  • Explain your plan
  • Acknowledge similarities and differences
  • Recommend an action
  • Negotiate a plan
175
Q

Hetero-sexual v. Homo-sexual females and risk for STDs

A

-SAME risk in both groups!

176
Q

What are the most important symptoms to monitor depression in a terminally ill patient?

A
  1. Anhedonia
  2. Hopelessness
  3. Guilt
  4. Wish to die
177
Q

What 3 classes of drugs can be given to relieve the burning/itching pain seen with shingles?

A
  1. Tricyclic antidepressants
  2. Anticonvulsants
  3. Anti-histamines
178
Q

What has garlic been shown to do?

A

-help prevent heart disease

179
Q

An increase in which cancer is seen in homo-sexual males?

A

-anal cancer

180
Q

What 2 treatments can be used to increase energy and improve mood in a terminally ill patient?

A
  1. Short course of steroids

2. Psychostimulant

181
Q

What has Gingko biloba been found to help?

A

-dementia

182
Q

What is bee pollen used for?

A
  • to increase energy

- studies do not clearly show a benefit

183
Q

What can be used to relieve breathlessness associated with advanced cancer?

A
  • opioids

- unknown mechanism

184
Q

What has Saw palmetto been shown to do?

A

-tx of benign prostatic hypertrophy

185
Q

What 4 conditions tend to be higher in Native Americans?

A
  1. DM
  2. Obesity
  3. Alcoholism
  4. Suicide
186
Q

What are the recommendations for hyperlipidemia screening in males? Females?

A
  • men should be screened at age 35, even in the absence of other risks –> should be screened earlier if the pt has DM, or a family hx of heart dz by age 50, or other risk factors
  • women: age 45 “ “
187
Q

What should be done with a pt on OCP who has HTN becuase of it?

A
  • discontinue the OCP
  • both estrogen and progestin can cause high bp
  • the bp should normalize after 3 mnths of discontinuing the OCP
188
Q

What are the recommendations for self breast exams?

A

-for patients with normal risk, BSE are recommended against at any age!

189
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of death while traveling? Rank?

A
  1. Heart disease

2. Accidents

190
Q

Progestin-only OCPs and ectopic pregnancies

A
  • in general they lower the chance of ectopic pregs by decreasing chance of conception
  • but if a pt on them do get pregnant, the chances of ectopic preg does increase!
191
Q

What are the recommendations for genetic testing for breast cancer for ashkenazi jews?

A
  • ashkenazi jewish women should be offered testing if ANY first-degree relative has bc
  • or if 2 second-degree relatives on the same side are diagnosed with bc or ovarian ca
192
Q

What is the minimum age for the live attenuated influenza vaccine?

A

-2 years

193
Q

Who are pulmonary complications of surgery are most common in?

A
  • obese pts

- kids

194
Q

What and how should a child less than 2 years old be given for a flu shot?

A
  • the trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine

- given as 2 doses separated by at least 4 weeks in kids aged 6mnths-8 years

195
Q

What should be done when a baby is born to a Hep B positive mom?

A

-tx infant w/ Hep B immunoglobulin w/ in 12 hrs of birth

196
Q

What are high risk surgeries? Why?

A
  • aortic or peripheral vascular surgery

- risk of cardiac death > than 5%

197
Q

What are the recommendations for colorectal cancer screening?

A
  • should begin at age 50 and continue every 10 yrs to age 75
  • if there is a family hx of colon cancer, it is recommended to start screening 10 years before the youngest age of onset in the family, or start at 50 if that comes first
198
Q

What are 4 low risk surgeries? Why? Pre-op teting?

A
  • have only 1-5% risk of cardiac death
    1. Breast surgery
    2. Cataract surgery
    3. Superficial dermatologic surgery
    4. Endoscopy
  • generally do not require additional cardiac testing
199
Q

What should be done if a pt misses an OCP pill?

A
  • if there has been no intercourse in 5 days, take two pills immediately and use backup for 7 days
  • if there has been intercourse in last 5 days, take emergency contraception and restart pills the next day, use backup for 5 days
200
Q

How and when should an adult receive their tetanus booster?

A
  • every 10 years after age 12 (btwn ages 19 & 64)
  • should be given Tdap –> for tetanus, diphtheria, & pertussis –> there has been increased cases of pertussis in adults in the US
201
Q

What vaccine is given to adults in need of their tetanus shot?

A
  • Tdap

- includes diphtheria and pertussis!

202
Q

Who is considered immune and therefore do not need an MMR vaccine?

A

-pts born before 1957

203
Q

What are the recommendations for mammograms?

A

-should begin at age 50 and be done every 2 years until age 74

204
Q

Patients born when are considered to be immune to varicella?

A

-1980

205
Q

When a pregnant woman is found to not be immune to rubella what should be done?

A
  • vaccinate ASAP POSTpartum!

- vaccination during the pregnancy can cause abortion of fetus

206
Q

Which pts is gaurdacil contraindicted in?

A

-pregnant!

207
Q

What are the recommendations for prostate cancer screening?

A
  • there is insufficient evidence for or against DREs and PSAs
  • patients who request screening, you should discuss benefits and harms with them
208
Q

What are the recommendations for genetic testing for breast cancer in non-ashkenazi jews

A
  1. 2 first-degree relatives with bc, one dx before age 50
  2. 3 or more first-degree relatives dx with bc, regardless of age
  3. Combo of bc and ovarian cancer among first and second degree relatives
  4. First-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer
  5. Combo of 2 or more first or second degree relatives with both breast or ovarian ca at any age
  6. Male relative with bc
209
Q

What is the only legally required vaccination for travel?

A

-yellow fever

210
Q

How long after an MI is it safe to do elective surgeries?

A

-after 6 mnths

211
Q

What is the most lethal complication of surgery in general?

A

-cardiac complications

212
Q

What are the recommendations for cervical cancer screening?

A
  • pap smears should be done every 3 years starting at age 21 until age 65
  • after age 65, screening can stop as long as prior screening was adequate and patient not at high risk
213
Q

What is the typical schedule for the 7-v pneumococcal vaccine?

A
  • should be given at ages 2,4,6, & 12-15mnths
  • if a child missed some of their doses, the immunization should still be given, but on a modified schedule with each given at least 8 wks appart
214
Q

Hib vaccine

A
  • 95-100% effective
  • does not vv number of OM cases
  • very few sfx
  • dont give before 6 wks of age
215
Q

Who is recommended to get the flu shot?

A
  • ALL pts over 6mnths old!

- must be > 2yrs to get live attenuated

216
Q

Progestin-only OCPs

A
  • no hormone-free period, should be taken every day
  • do not have an increased risk of thromboembolism
  • safer for women with risks of DVTs, PEs, DM, Obesity, or HTN
217
Q

What can be found in the urine of a pt on cough syrup with codeine?

A

-morphine, which is a metabolite of codeine

218
Q

Sx of Meniere’s disease, are they episodic or constant?

A

-episodic

219
Q

What kind of hearing loss is a noise induced hearing loss?

A

-sensorineural

220
Q

Viral v. Bacterial pharyngitis?

A
  • bacterial: first and continuing dominant sx is sore throat + sx are worse at the end of the day + coryza and cough are absent
  • viral: sire throat is worse in the morning
221
Q

Peripheral v. Central vertigo sx?

A
  • peripheral = violent sx after a latent period of 15-60 sec after motion of the head that affects the semicircular canals = Hallpike maneuver
  • central = sx immediately upon motion of the head affecting the semicircular canals
222
Q

When should children be taken to the dentist?

A

-by 1 yr of age

223
Q

What type of headaches can be seen with MS? What is the most common pathology of these headaches?

A
  • can see trigeminal neuralgia in MS

- the most common cause of trigeminal neuralgia is demyelination of the nerve root near the gasserian ganglion

224
Q

How long does OM need to go on for before it is diagnosed as failing to respond to tx?

A

-16 wks!

225
Q

What can be a consequence of fluoride toxicity?

A

-hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany, ventricular dysrhythmias, &/or convulsions

226
Q

Besides a color change of the TM, what also must be present for the dx of otitis media?

A

-conductive hearing loss

227
Q

During what age range does the first attack of rheumatic fever usually occur with nontreated group A strep?

A
  • ages 5-15

- but subsequent attacks can occur up to the age of 30

228
Q

Expiratory rales or “crackles” heard in a child are unique to what dz?

A

-bronchiolitis

229
Q

Dentigerous cysts: what are they? When can they be seen?

A
  • what: expansions of the original cocoon of the molar roots, grow slowly over time, act like benign tumors and dislodge other teeth
  • when: can be seen with partially or totally unerupted wisdom teeth
230
Q

What is virtually the only cause of bacterial phsryngitis?

A
  • beta-hemolytic strep pyogenes

- other causes are relatively rare

231
Q

What must be present in malignant otitis externae?

A

-osteomyelitis of the bony canal or mastoid

232
Q

What does the physical exam look like for otosclerois?

A
  • normal PE

- can have some color change on the TM = “red hering”

233
Q

Otosclerosis: what is it? Genetics? Who is it more common in? Tx?

A
  • conductive hearing loss that is the result of adhesion of the bones of the inner ear
  • autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
  • more common in whites, progress is accelerated by pregnancy
  • tx: can be cured with surgery that frees the adhesive new bone formation that prevents the vibration of the stapes footplate and oval window

From Flashcardlet (79 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions