Food Safety Flashcards
(127 cards)
1
Q
The first step in investigating an outbreak of disease is to:
a. institute treatment
b. confirm the existence of an outbreak
c. institute controls and prevention
d. search for causes
e. determine the number of cases
A
b. confirm the existence of an outbreak
2
Q
Which of these is commonly known as the beef tapeworm?
a. Taenia pisiformis
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Taenia asiatica
A
c. Taenia saginata
3
Q
On postmortem examination, a well-nourished cow is found to have numerous lesions of tuberculosis of the same size throughout both lungs and in the bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes. A careful search reveals no other lesions elsewhere in the carcass. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most appropriate disposition?
a. pass the carcass without restriction after condemning the lungs
b. pass the carcass for refrigeration, after condemning the lungs
c. condemn the lungs; pass the carcass for cooking
d. condemn the entire carcass
e. pass the rear quarters for cooking; condemn the forequarters
A
d. condemn the entire carcass
Condemn:
1. The carcass of any species (including organs and parts) [Reg. 311.2(a)] is condemned for tuberculosis when any of following conditions occur:
A. TB lesions are generalized (when lesion distribution indicates entry of the organism into the systemic circulation).
B. TB occurs in any muscle, intermuscular tissue, bone, joint, or abdominal organ (excluding the gastrointestinal tract), or in any lymph node as a result of draining a muscle, bone, joint, or abdominal organ (excluding the gastrointestinal tract).
C. TB lesions are extensive in the thoracic or abdominal cavity.
D. Active TB lesions associated with fever on antemortem.
E. TB lesions are associated with cachexia F. TB lesions are multiple, acute, and actively progressive.
G. The character of TB lesions is otherwise not indicative of a localized condition
4
Q
The organism responsible for producing heat labile (LT) and heat stable (ST) enterotoxins is which of the following?
a. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC)
b. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
d. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
A
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
5
Q
The following foodborne pathogen is usually associated with ready-to-eat meats. Other modes of transmission include ingestion of contaminated soft cheeses, vegetables, and milk. Contamination is usually a post-processing problem. Its ability to grow at temperatures as low as 3 C permits multiplication in refrigerated foods.
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Escherichia coli 0157
c. Salmonella sp.
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Yersinia enterocolitica
A
a. Listeria monocytogenes
6
Q
Eggs should be stored at what temperature?
a. 50 F
b. 55 F
c. 60 F
d. 40 F
e. 45 F
A
d. 40 F
7
Q
The agency responsible for the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance regulations:
a. FDA
b. EPA
c. USDA-FSIS
d. USDA-APHIS
A
a. FDA
8
Q
Which of these organisms is a spore former?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Streptococcus A
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Listeria monocytogenes
A
d. Clostridium perfringens
9
Q
The Standard Plate Count (SPC) is used for estimating bacterial populations in milk and milk products. Which of the following best describes the SPC?
a. quantitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
b. qualitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
d. qualitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
A
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
10
Q
Leading cause of illness from contaminated food or water.
a. Norovirus
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Hepatitis A virus
d. Vibrio cholera
A
a. Norovirus
11
Q
What disease is caused by the accumulation of histamine in the flesh of fish?
a. Ciguatera fish poisoning
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
c. Pufferfish poisoning
d. Anisakiasis
A
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
12
Q
Which factor does not affect the growth of microorganisms?
a. Water activity
b. PH
c. Temperature
d. Pathogenicity
A
d. Pathogenicity
13
Q
Standards for raw milk include a somatic cell count less than ________ and an antibiotic test using Bacillus stearothermophilus zone of less than _______mm.
a. 1,000,000 and 16
b. 1,000,000 and 20
c. 750,000 and 16
d. 750,000 and 20
A
c. 750,000 and 16
14
Q
This pathogen is one of the most common causes of foodborne disease and is associated with Gullain-Barre syndrome.
a. Salmonella sp.
b. Campylobacter jejuni
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus sp.
A
b. Campylobacter jejuni
15
Q
Pasteurized milk products cannot exceed __________ bacteria per ml and coliforms not to exceed _____ per ml.
a. 100,000 and 100
b. 100,000 and 10
c. 20,000 and 100
d. 20,000 and 10
A
d. 20,000 and 10
16
Q
Salmonella enteritidis is usually implicated with which type of food?
a. Beef carcasses
b. Shell eggs
c. Ready to eat meat products
d. Green vegetables
A
b. Shell eggs
17
Q
Which of the following are correct for pasteurization of milk?
a. 160 F for 30 minutes
b. 145 F for 30 minutes
c. 161 F for 15 seconds
d. A and B
e. B and C
A
e. B and C
18
Q
Which type of Clostridium botulinum causes human botulism?
a. A, B, E, F
b. C and D
c. All of the above
A
a. A, B, E, F
19
Q
A swine carcass is found on postmortem examination to be affected with cysticercus cellulosae. Only two cysts are found in the heart. A careful search reveals no others. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most acceptable disposition?
a. condemn the entire carcass
b. pass the entire carcass without restriction
c. pass the entire carcass for appropriate refrigeration
d. condemn the heart, pass the carcass without restriction
e. pass the carcass for cooking
A
e. pass the carcass for cooking
20
Q
Which of the following statements concerning RB51 vaccine for brucellosis is FALSE?
a. Currently only approved in cattle
b. Can cause disease in humans if auto-inoculated
c. Results in a measurable titer to B. abortus using standard diagnostic tests
d. Not approved for use in bison
A
c. Results in a measurable titer to B. abortus using standard diagnostic tests
21
Q
The ionizing radiation not used to preserve foods is:
a. electron beams
b. X-rays.
c. gamma rays
d. beta rays
A
d. beta rays
22
Q
Which of the following statements about the activity of water, aw, is correct:
A. Distilled water has an aW of 2
B. E. coli requires a minimum aw of 8.6 to grow in food
C. At an aw < 0.6 all bacterial, yeast and mold growth is inhibited
D. Fungi, in general, require higher aw than bacteria to grow
A
C. At an aw < 0.6 all bacterial, yeast and mold growth is inhibited
23
Q
During pasteurization of milk, HTST processing heats the milk to \_\_\_\_F for a time period of \_\_\_\_per PMO regulations. A. 284 oF, 4 seconds B. 145 oF, 30 minutes C. 161oF, 1 second D. 161oF, 15 seconds
A
D. 161*F, 15 seconds
24
Q
A positive phosphatase test on ice cream could indicate:
A. Improper pasteurization
B. High bacterial count
C. Reactivated phosphatase
D. false-positive test caused by ingredients
E. All of the above
A
E. All of the above
25
Which of the following statements about Scombrotoxin poisoning in fish is incorrect?
A. Fish usually smell obviously spoiled before accumulation of toxic levels of scombrotoxin occur.
B. It is due to poor handling and improper (i.e. delayed) chilling of fish after harvest
C. Histamine is produced through bacterial decarboxylation of histidine
D. Toxin production is associated with Lactobacillus, Clostridial and Proteus species of bacteria.
E. Tuna and mackerel are typical fish species implicated in poisonings
A. Fish usually smell obviously spoiled before accumulation of toxic levels of scombrotoxin occur.
26
Symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes infections generally include
A. High fever, severe abdominal pain, urticaria, bloody diarrhea and occasionally hemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Fever, muscles aches, vomiting, and diarrhea, with some cases proceeding to headache, stiff-neck, confusion and convulsions
C. Self-limiting diarrhea and mild abdominal pain
D. Profuse watery diarrhea and vomiting 48 hours after ingestion
E. Death in up to 80 % of perinatal and neonatal cases
F. B. and E.
F. B. and E.
27
```
The microorganism most frequently associated with human foodborne illness that is capable of growth in salt concentrations as high as 10% is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio vulnificus
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Clostridium botulinum
```
A. Staphylococcus aureus
28
Sampling for resistant bacteria conducted by NARMS includes which of the following:
A. Slaughterhouse fecal samples, swabs from county fair livestock facilities, testing conducted at restaurants by local departments of health
B. Testing of cuts/ground product in the local store meat case, fecal samples submitted by physicians treating patients with suspected foodborne illness, slaughterhouse fecal samples
C. Testing of on-farm fecal samples in feedlots and dairy operations, fecal samples submitted by physicians treating patients with suspected foodborne illness
D. Testing of isolates from milk processing plants prior to pasteurization, slaughterhouse fecal samples, testing of cuts/ground product in the local store meat case
B. Testing of cuts/ground product in the local store meat case, fecal samples submitted by physicians treating patients with suspected foodborne illness, slaughterhouse fecal samples
29
```
Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for the following disease in humans:
A. Cholera and typhoid
B. Schistosomiasis and mycoplasmosis
C. Toxoplasmosis and mycoplasmosis
D. Tuberculosis and anthracosis
E. Anthrax and tetanus
```
A. Cholera and typhoid
30
Which of the following statements concerning the irradiation of foods is correct?
A. 10-50 kGy is needed to kill bacterial spores
B. Higher oxygen concentrations in/on foods leads to a more lethal effect of radiation on microorganisms
C. Electron beam radiation penetrates food products up to 12”
D. A and C
E. A and B
F. None of the above
E. A and B
31
```
Which of the following is NOT a factor of the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion?
A. pH
B. fat particle size
C. amount and type of soluble protein
D. amount of emulsion
E. emulsion viscosity
```
D. amount of emulsion
32
```
The toxin of Clostridium botulinum can be removed from most foods by:
A. freezing
B. boiling
C. curing
D. dehydrating
E. emulsifying
```
B. boiling
33
```
Clostridium botulinum Type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with:
A. pork and pork products
B. cooked beef and gravy
C. fish and fish products
D. poultry and poultry products
E. home canned vegetables
```
C. fish and fish products
34
```
Food borne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed:
A. enterotoxins
B. exotoxins
C. aflatoxins
D. endotoxins
E. alphatoxins
```
A. enterotoxins
35
```
Ultraviolet light utilized in food processing plants is most effective against:
A. bacterial spores
B. yeasts
C. sub-surface bacteria
D. surface or airborne bacteria
E. molds
```
D. surface or airborne bacteria
36
```
The pasteurization temperature/times established by the USPHS milk ordinance and code are keyed to the conditions necessary to destroy the organisms of:
A. Coxiella burnetti
B. Foot and Mouth Disease
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Escherichia coli
```
A. Coxiella burnetti
37
What are the time and temperature standards for batch pasteurization of milk?
145*F for 30min
38
What are the time and temperature standards for UHT pasteurization of milk?
275-309*F for 1-8 seconds
39
```
The microorganism most resistant to destruction by ionizing radiation is:
A. PA 3679 spores
B. Clostridium botulinum spores
C. Salmonella spp
D. Clostridium perfringens spores
E. Bacillus anthracis spores
```
B. Clostridium botulinum spores
40
Public health professionals consider the most significant type of bacteria found in drinking water supplies to be:
a. Bacillus sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium sporogenes
e. Escherichia coli
e. Escherichia coli
41
Cell-cultured meat products are food products crated from a small number of cells taken from living animals, which cells are then grown in a controlled environment to produce food. What organizations regulate the collection, differentiations of cells, processing and packaging of the products (choose all that apply)?
a. FDA
b. APHIS
c. ARS
d. FSIS
a. FDA
d. FSIS
42
According to present day standards, the most reliable indication that a pasteurizer is operating efficiently would be to:
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
b. show that the pasteurizer reduces the total plate count of the raw milk 99.44%
c. install U.S. Bureau of Standards certified thermocouples in the pasteurizer and show that a temperature of 145°F is maintained for 30 minutes
d. show that no coliform bacteria are detectable in the pasteurized milk
e. inoculate the raw milk with the tubercle bacilli and show that they cannot be isolated from the pasteurized milk
a. show that only traces of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
43
What percentage of milk tanker loads are tested for antibiotics?
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 100%
d. 10%
c. 100%
44
The pasteurization temperature/times established by the USPHS milk ordinance and code are keyed into the conditions necessary to destroy the organisms of:
a. Coxiella burnetii
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Toxoplasma gondii
e. Escherichia coli
a. Coxiella burnetii
45
6. The ionizing radiation used to preserve food is: (choose all that apply)
a. Electron beam
b. Alpha rays
c. X rays
d. Gamma rays
e. Beta rays
a. Electron beam
c. X rays
d. Gamma rays
46
Which of the following statements concerning the irradiation of foods is correct?
a. 0-50 kGy is needed to kill bacterial spores
b. Higher oxygen concentrations in/on foods leads to a more lethal effect of radiation on microorganisms
c. Electron beam radiation penetrates food products up to 12”
d. A and C
e. A and B
f. None of the above
e. A and B
47
Foodborne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Aflatoxins
d. Endotoxins
e. Alphatoxins
a. Enterotoxins
b. Exotoxins
48
Grayanotoxin poisoning is associated with:
a. Consumption of honey produced from the pollen and nectar of rhododendrons
b. Eating sub-tropical Bar Jack fish
c. Eating improperly chilled Tuna or Mahi Mahi
e. Eating improperly cooked Escolar fish
a. Consumption of honey produced from the pollen and nectar of rhododendrons
49
To guarantee the safety and quality of frozen foods, they may be thawed in any of the following manners EXCEPT:
a. Under refrigeration, at temperatures below 45 degrees Fahrenheit.
b. In a microwave oven, if final cooking occurs immediately after thawing.
c. By immersing in hot water, at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit, overnight.
d. As part of the conventional cooking process.
e. By immersing in cold water, changing water every 30 minutes.
c. By immersing in hot water, at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit, overnight.
50
2. A swine carcass is found on postmortem examination to be affected with Cysticercus cellulose. Only two cysts are found in the heart. A careful search reveals no others. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most acceptable disposition?
a. Condemn the entire carcass
b. Pass the entire carcass without restriction
c. Pass the entire carcass for appropriate refrigeration
d. Condemn the heart, pass the carcass without restriction
e. Pass the carcass for cooking
e. Pass the carcass for cooking
Pass with processing restriction: Any swine carcass affected with Cysticercus cellulosae that is less than excessively infested may be passed for cooking (held at 170 ° F for 30 minutes), after removal and condemnation of all affected areas.
FSIS Directive 6100.6 Post-mortem Dispositions for PHVs page 5: b. Pass for cooking, any swine carcass affected with Cysticercus cellulosae that is less than excessively affected
51
3. A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant 3 hours ago calls to describe experiencing a strange tingling and numbness of the lips, tongue and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiologic agent of:
a. Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin
b. Tetrodotoxin or saxitoxin
c. Mullet toxicosis
d. Clostridium type E toxin
e. Oyster poisoning
a. Scombroid toxin or ciguatoxin
52
4. The first step in investigating an outbreak of disease is to:
a. Institute treatment
b. Confirm the existence of an outbreak
c. Institute controls and prevention
d. Search for causes
e. Determine the number of cases
b. Confirm the existence of an outbreak
53
5. The three genera most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin foodborne illness in the US are:
a. Streptococcus, Bacillus and Salmonella
b. Salmonella, Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus, Campylobacter and Salmonella
d. Shigella, Salmonella and Staphylococcus
e. Staphylococcus, Salmonella and Bacillus
c. Staphylococcus, Campylobacter and Salmonella
54
6. Clostridium botulinum type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with:
a. Pork and pork products
b. Cooked beef and gravy
c. Fish and fish products
d. Poultry and poultry products
e. Home canned vegetables
c. Fish and fish products
55
7. The occurrence of coliform organisms in pasteurized milk indicates:
a. Fecal contamination
b. Product unfit for human consumption
c. Post-pasteurization contamination
d. Likelihood of the product containing other pathogens
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
56
8. During pasteurization of milk, HTST processing heats the milk to ____oF for a time period of _____ , per PMO regulations.
a. 284’F, 4 seconds
b. 145’F, 30 minutes
c. 161’F, 1 second
d. 161’F, 15 seconds
d. 161’F, 15 seconds
57
9. Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source for the following disease in humans:
a. Cholera and typhoid
b. Schistosomiasis and mycoplasmosis
c. Toxoplasmosis and mycoplasmosis
d. Tuberculosis and anthracosis
e. Anthrax and tetanus
a. Cholera and typhoid
Under the NSSP, standards for harvesting shellfish involve monitoring of environmental factors, including coliform counts, marine biotoxins, levels of V. parahaemolyticus in sampled oysters, water salinity levels, and ambient and water temperatures. Fecal coliforms are used as an indicator of bacterial contamination and to classify shellfish harvesting areas as safe or unsafe. While they have been useful as an indicator of the presence of feces-related bacteria in harvest beds, they are less reliable for naturally occurring pathogens (e.g., Vibrio species) and for enteric viruses. Our surveillance data suggest that the greatest current seafood safety risks involve bivalve mollusks contaminated with naturally occurring pathogens. Therefore, prevention of initial contamination at or before the time of harvest is important, and environmental monitoring is critical.
58
Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration?
a. Food Safety Modernization Act
b. Egg Products Inspection Act
c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
d. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
e. Poultry Products Inspection Act
b. Egg Products Inspection Act
c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
e. Poultry Products Inspection Act
59
The Easter Bunny wants to get a head start on planning his Easter deliveries. He remembers that the baby chicks he’ll put in his baskets are inspected by ______, the _____ regulates shell eggs, the ____ regulates egg products, and the _____ regulates chocolate candy eggs.
a. USDA, USDA, FDA, FDA
b. USDA, USDA, USDA, FDA
c. FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA, FDA
d. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA
e. USDA, FDA, FDA, FDA
d. USDA, FDA, USDA, FDA
60
The agency responsible for the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance regulations:
a. FDA
b. EPA
c. USDA-FSIS
d. USDA-APHIS
a. FDA
61
Which one or more of the following food animals is not protected under the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act?
a. Pig
b. Cow
c. Turkey
d. Sheep
e. Horse
f. Salmon
c. Turkey
f. Salmon
§1902. Humane methods
No method of slaughtering or handling in connection with slaughtering shall be deemed to comply with the public policy of the United States unless it is humane. Either of the following two methods of slaughtering and handling are hereby found to be humane:
(a) in the case of cattle, calves, horses, mules, sheep, swine, and other livestock, all animals are rendered insensible to pain by a single blow or gunshot or an electrical, chemical or other means that is rapid and effective, before being shackled, hoisted, thrown, cast, or cut; or
(b) by slaughtering in accordance with the ritual requirements of the Jewish faith or any other religious faith that prescribes a method of slaughter whereby the animal suffers loss of consciousness by anemia of the brain caused by the simultaneous and instantaneous severance of the carotid arteries with a sharp instrument and handling in connection with such slaughtering.
62
Which of the following are considered adulterants by USDA FSIS? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Salmonella spp.
c. STEC
d. Campylobacter jejuni
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Salmonella spp.
c. STEC
The declaration of salmonella as an adulterant in breaded and stuffed chicken products came on August 1, 2022.
https://www.fsis.usda.gov/news-events/news-press-releases/usda-announces-action-declare-salmonella-adulterant-breaded-stuffed
In 1994, the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) declared that E. coli O157:H7 is an adulterant in ground beef and instituted a testing program for the pathogen.
In 1987, FSIS identified Listeria Monocytogenes as an adulterant in cooked and ready to eat meat without challenge. Salmonella is also an adulterant in cooked and ready to eat meat.
63
The microorganism most resistant to ionizing radiation is:
a. STECs
b. Clostridium botulinum spores
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Clostridium botulinum spores
64
Illness due Staphylococcus aureus in food products generally presents with the following symptoms:
a. Self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping, with an onset of 1-7 hours after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin
b. Mild abdominal pain, and watery diarrhea beginning approximately 16 hours after ingestion.
c. Explosive diarrhea, vomiting, and myalgia with low grade fever and chills, 24 to 48 hours after ingestion.
d. Fever, diarrhea (possibly bloody), and abdominal cramps 2-5 days post
a. Self-limiting vomiting, diarrhea and cramping, with an onset of 1-7 hours after ingestion of the heat-stable toxin
65
Food-borne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens is associated with the foodservice industry or events where large quantities of food are prepared.
True
False
True
C. perfringens makes spores, which are inactive forms of the bacterium that help it survive heat, dryness, and other environmental conditions. Under certain conditions, such as when food is kept at an unsafe temperature (between 40°F and 140°F), C. perfringens spores can transform into active bacteria, which multiply in the food. After someone eats food containing C. perfringens, it can produce a toxin (poison) that causes diarrhea.
Foods cooked in large batches and held at unsafe temperatures are typically involved in outbreaks of C. perfringens food poisoning. Specific foods commonly linked to C. perfringens food poisoning include
* Poultry, such as turkey and chicken
* Meat, such as beef and pork
* Gravy
Outbreaks of C. perfringens food poisoning tend to happen in settings where large groups of people are served and keeping food at proper temperatures may be difficult—for example, hospitals, school cafeterias, prisons, nursing homes, and large events with catered food.
66
One of the most common food-borne illnesses from undercooked poultry and eggs is:
a. Trichinella
b. Salmonella
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulinum
One of the most common food-borne illnesses from undercooked poultry and eggs is:
a. Trichinella
b. Salmonella
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulinum
67
The Codex Alimentarius is:
a. A code of nutritional standards for domestic livestock species developed by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, World Health Organization (WHO).
b. An internationally agreed upon set of standards, codes of practice, guidelines, and recommendations for food.
c. A set of standards, code of practice, guidelines, and recommendations developed by the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO) for food.
d. A code of human nutritional standards developed by the UN/WHO/FAO for use in developing nations.
e. A set of animal health regulations developed by the Pan American Health Organization (PAHO)
b. An internationally agreed upon set of standards, codes of practice, guidelines, and recommendations for food.
Codex Alimentarius is about safe, good food for everyone - everywhere. It is international food standards, guidelines and codes of practice which contribute to the safety, quality and fairness of this international food trade. Codex standards are based on sound science provided by independent international risk assessment bodies or ad-hoc consultations organized by FAO and WHO.
68
The FALCPA is the Act that gives the ______ power to require food companies to label products that contain the _____ major types of allergens. In 2021, Congress passed FASTER, which adds _______ to this list of allergen types and will go into effect in 2023.
a. FDA, 5, strawberries
b. USDA, 8, mustard
c. CDC, 7, sunflower seeds
d. FDA, 8, sesame seeds
d. FDA, 8, sesame seeds
Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act (FALCPA) identifies eight foods or food groups as the major food allergens. They are milk, eggs, fish (e.g., bass, flounder, cod), Crustacean shellfish (e.g., crab, lobster, shrimp), tree nuts (e.g., almonds, walnuts, pecans), peanuts, wheat, and soybeans.
69
Revivicor, a company in Virginia, received approval in 2021 from the FDA to start limited production of ________.
a. Milk that has undergone processing to remove lactose.
b. Hypoallergenic catfish
c. Chicken that are resistant to Salmonella infection
d. Pigs genetically modified to not produce alpha-gal
d. Pigs genetically modified to not produce alpha-gal
70
True or False: Infant botulism is caused by the ingestion of Clostridium botulinum spores, and botulism in older children and adults is most commonly caused by the ingestion of food containing the toxins made by Clostridium botulinum.
True
Make sure you know all three forms of botulism:
Foodborne botulism is a severe type of food poisoning caused by ingestion of foods containing the toxin produced by C. botulinum. This type of botulism most often develops after consumption of improperly processed and inadequately cooked home preserved foods. Home-canned or, occasionally, commercially produced foods have been involved in botulism outbreaks in the United States. Although the incidence of the disease is low, the disease is of considerable concern because of its high mortality rate if not treated immediately and properly.
Infant botulism is a serious illness caused by ingestion of C. botulinum spores that colonize and produce toxin in the intestinal tracts of infants (i.e., intestinal toxemia botulism).
Wound botulism is the rarest form of botulism and is discussed only briefly here, because it does not involve food. It results when C. botulinum colonizes in a wound and produces toxins, which reach other parts of the body via the bloodstream. Whereas foodborne botulism is limited to the amount of toxin ingested, C. botulinum in wounds produce toxin in situ (gas gangrene) until the pathogen is gone.
71
Make sure you know all three forms of botulism:
Foodborne botulism is a severe type of food poisoning caused by ingestion of foods containing the toxin produced by C. botulinum. This type of botulism most often develops after consumption of improperly processed and inadequately cooked home preserved foods. Home-canned or, occasionally, commercially produced foods have been involved in botulism outbreaks in the United States. Although the incidence of the disease is low, the disease is of considerable concern because of its high mortality rate if not treated immediately and properly.
Infant botulism is a serious illness caused by ingestion of C. botulinum spores that colonize and produce toxin in the intestinal tracts of infants (i.e., intestinal toxemia botulism).
Wound botulism is the rarest form of botulism and is discussed only briefly here, because it does not involve food. It results when C. botulinum colonizes in a wound and produces toxins, which reach other parts of the body via the bloodstream. Whereas foodborne botulism is limited to the amount of toxin ingested, C. botulinum in wounds produce toxin in situ (gas gangrene) until the pathogen is gone.
72
What toxin was responsible for the large pet food recall in 2020-2021 involving Midwestern Pet Foods?
a. Ricin
b. Slaframine
c. Melamine
d. Aflatoxin
e. Fumonisin
f. Deoxynivalenol
d. Aflatoxin
73
Which factor does not affect the growth of microorganisms?
a. Water activity
b. PH
c. Temperature
d. Pathogenicity
d. Pathogenicity
74
In 1993, an outbreak of __________ poisoning from undercooked hamburger meat resulted in many cases of illness and some deaths in the Washington state area.
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Salmonella
c. E coli 0157:H7
d. Listeria monocytogenes
c. E coli 0157:H7
75
Which of these organisms is a spore former?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Mycobacterium bovis
c. Streptococcus A
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Clostridium perfringens
76
The following foodborne pathogen is usually associated with ready-to-eat meats. Other modes of transmission include ingestion of contaminated soft cheeses, vegetables, and milk. Contamination is usually a post-processing problem. Its ability to grow at temperatures as low as 3 C permits multiplication in refrigerated foods.
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Escherichia coli 0157
c. Salmonella sp.
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Yersinia enterocolitica
a. Listeria monocytogenes
77
The organism responsible for producing heat labile (LT) and heat stable (ST) enterotoxins is which of the following?
a. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC)
b. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
d. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
78
What is the "danger zone" range of temperature in food handling"
a. 50 - 100 deg F
b. 80 - 120 deg F
c. 40 - 140 deg F
d. 100 - 212 deg F
c. 40 - 140 deg F
79
Which of the following groups has the lowest risk for food-borne illness:
a. Young adults
b. The elderly
c. Infants
d. Individuals with AIDS
a. Young adults
80
True or False: Symptoms of Salmonella poisoning occur within 2-6 hours of food ingestion.
False
Onset: 6 to 72 hours after exposure.
81
Symptoms of Staphylococcus aureus poisoning occur within ______hours of food ingestion.
a. 1-7
b. 10-15
c. 12-36
d. 24-72
a. 1-7
82
A person with a food-borne illness should contact a physician if:
a. blood is present in the stool
b. fever is 102 deg F or greater
c. symptoms persist for more than 2-3 days
d. all of the above
A person with a food-borne illness should contact a physician if:
a. blood is present in the stool
b. fever is 102 deg F or greater
c. symptoms persist for more than 2-3 days
d. all of the above
83
True or False: You can usually tell from a food's taste, odor, or appearance if that food poses a risk for food-borne illness.
False
Most people would not choose to eat spoiled, smelly food. However, if they did, they would not necessarily get sick. This is because there are different types of bacteria – some cause illness in people and others don't. The types of bacteria that do cause illness don't affect the taste, smell, or appearance of food. This is why it's important to freeze or toss refrigerated leftovers within 3-4 days. If you are unsure of how long your leftovers have been sitting in the refrigerator, don't take the risk – when in doubt, throw it out!
84
True or False: A harmful parasite found in raw fish is Anisakis.
True
85
True or False: Separate cooking boards should be used for cutting raw meat, poultry, fish vs raw vegetables and fruits.
True
86
Which of the following raw food items has the highest safe minimum cooking temperature?
a. Ground poultry- 165 deg F
b. Ground beef- 160 deg F
c. Pork chop- 145 deg F
d. Pot roast (beef)- 145 deg F
e. Fish filet- 145 deg F
a. Ground poultry- 165 deg F
87
Which of the following are correct for pasteurization of milk (choose all that apply)?
a. 160 F for 30 minutes
b. 145 F for 30 minutes
c. 161 F for 15 seconds
d. 212 F for 1 second
b. 145 F for 30 minutes
c. 161 F for 15 seconds
88
Salmonella enteritidis is usually implicated with which type of food?
a. Beef carcasses
b. Shell eggs
c. Ready to eat meat products
d. Green vegetables
b. Shell eggs
89
Pasteurized milk products cannot exceed __________ bacteria per ml and coliforms not to exceed _____ per ml.
a. 100,000 and 100
b. 100,000 and 10
c. 20,000 and 100
d. 20,000 and 10
d. 20,000 and 10
90
Standards for raw milk include a somatic cell count less than ________ and milk should be cooled to ___ deg F within ____ of milking.
a. 1,000,000, 60, 30 min
b. 1,000,000, 45, 2 hours
c. 750,000, 60, 30 min
d. 750,000, 45, 2 hours
d. 750,000, 45, 2 hours
91
The Standard Plate Count (SPC) is used for estimating bacterial populations in milk and milk products. Which of the following best describes the SPC?
a. quantitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
b. qualitative and can differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
d. qualitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
c. quantitative and cannot differentiate pathogens from non-pathogens
92
What disease is caused by the accumulation of histamine in the flesh of fish?
a. Ciguatera fish poisoning
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
c. Pufferfish poisoning
d. Anisakiasis
b. Scombrotoxin poisoning
Scombrotoxin fish poisoning is caused by eating fish that has high levels of histamine, which is the result of not being properly refrigerated or preserved.
Symptoms typically develop within a few minutes to an hour after eating mishandled and decomposed fish. They usually resemble an allergic reaction and can include flushing of the face, headache, heart palpitations, itching, blurred vision, cramps, and diarrhea. Symptoms can be treated with antihistamines, but even without treatment, people usually get better within 12 hours.
93
Eggs should be stored at what temperature?
a. 50 F
b. 55 F
c. 60 F
d. 40 F
e. 45 F
d. 40 F
94
The most important single protective measure for food handlers to follow is:
a. Keep the hands scrupulously clean during food preparation
b. Have a semiannual nose, dental and throat examination
c. Have a complete medical examination every three months
d. Wear caps while preparing food
e. Refuse to touch food while their hands are cut or scratched
a. Keep the hands scrupulously clean during food preparation
95
Which of the following statements about Scombrotoxin poisoning in fish is incorrect?
a. Fish usually smell obviously spoiled before accumulation of toxic levels of scombrotoxin occur.
b. It is due to poor handling and improper (i.e. delayed) chilling of fish after harvest
c. Histamine is produced through bacterial decarboxylation of histidine
d. Toxin production is associated with Lactobacillus, Clostridial and Proteus species of bacteria.
e. Tuna and Mackerel are typical fish species implicated in poisonings
a. Fish usually smell obviously spoiled before accumulation of toxic levels of scombrotoxin occur.
96
The microorganism most frequently associated with human foodborne illness that is capable of growth in salt concentrations as high as 10% is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Vibrio vulnificus
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Clostridium botulinum
a. Staphylococcus aureus
S. aureus is one of the most resistant non-spore forming human pathogens and can survive for extended periods in a dry state. Staphylococci are mesophilic. S. aureus growth, in general, ranges from 7°C to 47.8°C, with 35°C being the optimum temperature for growth. The growth pH range is between 4.5 and 9.3, with an optimum between 7.0 and 7.5. Staphylococci are atypical, in that they are able to grow at low levels of water activity, with growth demonstrated at aw as low as 0.83, under ideal conditions. Optimum growth of S. aureus occurs at aw of >0.99. For the most part, strains of S. aureus are highly tolerant to salts and sugars.
97
The correct disposition of a bovine tuberculosis reactor without visible lesions of tuberculosis is to:
a. Pass for cooking
b. Pass without restriction
c. Condemn the carcass and viscera
d. Condemn the viscera only
e. Allow for pet food only
a. Pass for cooking
Cattle—only nonreactors, TB suspects, or TB-exposed cattle that do not have tuberculosis lesions can be passed for human food without restriction [Reg. 311.2 (c)].
TB Reactors (even those having no lesions) cannot be passed for human food without the “U. S. Passed for Cooking” processing restriction [Reg. 311.2 (d)(1)].
98
The symptoms of Bacillus cereus “diarrhea” type of illness resembles while the “emetic” type resembles __________.
a. Streptococcus, Staphylococcus
b. Campylobacter, Cholera
c. Staphylococcus, Yersinia
d. Clostridium perfringens, Staphylococcus aureus
e. Staphylococcus, Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium perfringens, Staphylococcus aureus
99
Perishable foods should not be allowed to stand at room temperature for more than:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 8 hours
b. 2 hours
Bacteria grow most rapidly in the range of temperatures between 40 ° and 140 °F, doubling in number in as little as 20 minutes. This range of temperatures is often called the "Danger Zone." That's why the Meat and Poultry Hotline advises consumers to never leave food out of refrigeration over 2 hours.
100
Perishable foods should not be left out in warm temperatures (85 deg F or greater) for more than:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. 4 hours
a. 1 hour
If the temperature is above 90 °F, food should not be left out more than 1 hour. [same website as questions 14]
101
A deadly food-borne illness from improperly canned foods is caused by:
a. Trichinella
b. Salmonella
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium botulinum
General info: The types of foods involved in botulism vary according to food preservation and cooking practices. Any food conducive to outgrowth and toxin production can be associated with botulism. This can occur when food processing allows spore survival and the food is not subsequently heated before consumption, to eliminate any live cells.
A variety of foods, such as canned corn, peppers, green beans, soups, beets, asparagus, mushrooms, ripe olives, spinach, tuna fish, chicken and chicken livers, liver pate, luncheon meats, ham, sausage, stuffed eggplant, lobster, and smoked and salted fish have been associated with botulinum toxin.
102
The parasite that can be present in undercooked pork is:
a. Anisakis
b. Scrombroid
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Listeria
c. Trichinella spiralis
Infective Trichinella larvae occur in undercooked meats from carnivorous and omnivorous mammals, reptiles, and birds. The most important source worldwide is the domestic pig; however, in the U.S. and other developed countries, the risk of infection from domestic pigs has been dramatically reduced. Pork now causes less than half of U.S. Trichinella infections, while meats other than pork, particularly from game animals, cause the most illness. More than 150 mammalian species are known to harbor Trichinella larvae, including horses, boars, bears, cattle, walruses, seals, cougars, deer, badgers, beavers, raccoons, foxes, dogs, skunks, squirrels, cats, and rats. Undercooked bear meat has caused several illnesses in North America.
103
Pork should be cooked to a minimum internal temperature of:
a. 145 deg F
b. 160 deg F
c. 180 deg F
d. 200 deg F
a. 145 deg F
104
Which of the following is NOT a good food safety practice:
a. Keeping ground beef refrigerated for no more than 1-2 days before cooking
b. When in doubt, throw it out
c. Keeping hot foods hot; cold foods cold
d. Using the same knife to cut raw meat and vegetables
d. Using the same knife to cut raw meat and vegetables
105
FDA and USDA approved irradiation for meat products. The approved and/or proposed dosage ranges for red meat and poultry for the purposes of reducing bacterial pathogens is in the dosage range of:
a. 0.005-0.03 kGy
b. 0.15-0.65 kGy
c. 1.5-4.5 kGy
d. 5.5-9.0 kGy
e. 25-35 kGy
c. 1.5-4.5 kGy radurization (destroys spoilage organisms)
106
Define: Food Defense
Food defense is protection of food from intentional adulteration that causes public health harm, economic harm, or induces terror. This adulteration is done by terrorists or criminals. Food defense encompasses prevention, protection, mitigation, response, and recovery from intentional adulteration acts.
107
Define: Food Protection
Food protection is the science and practice of preventing harm to consumers. Food protection is composed of both food safety and food defense.
108
Define: Food Security
Food security is defined as availability, access, utilization, and stability of safe and nutritious foods. This includes the physical and economic means to either grow or purchase food. Food security is the foundation of the disciplines of food protection, food safety, and food defense.
109
Define: Food Safety
Food safety helps prevent unintentional adulteration of food by vehicles which can cause food-borne illness
110
What are the seven principles of HACCP: Choose one and give a short description of the principle and its requirements
Principle 1: Conduct a Hazard Analysis
The application of this principle involves listing the steps in the process and identifying where significant hazards are likely to occur. The HACCP team will focus on hazards that can be prevented, eliminated or controlled by the HACCP plan. A justification for including or excluding the hazard is reported and possible control measures are identified.
Principle 2: Determine Critical Control Points (CCPs)
A critical control point (CCP) is a point, step or procedure at which control can be applied and a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated or reduced to acceptable levels. The HACCP team will use a CCP decision tree to help identify the critical control points in the process. A critical control point may control more that one food safety hazard or in some cases more than one CCP is needed to control a single hazard. The number of CCP's needed depends on the processing steps and the control needed to assure food safety.
Principle 3: Establish Critical Limits
A critical limit (CL) is the maximum and/or minimum value to which a biological, chemical, or physical parameter must be controlled at a CCP to prevent, eliminate, or reduce to an acceptable level the occurrence of a food safety hazard. The critical limit is usually a measure such as time, temperature, water activity (aw), pH, weight, or some other measure that is based on scientific literature and/or regulatory standards.
Principle 4: Establish Monitoring Procedures
The HACCP team will describe monitoring procedures for the measurement of the critical limit at each critical control point. Monitoring procedures should describe how the measurement will be taken, when the measurement is taken, who is responsible for the measurement and how frequently the measurement is taken during production.
Principle 5: Establish Corrective Actions
Corrective actions are the procedures that are followed when a deviation in a critical limit occurs. The HACCP team will identify the steps that will be taken to prevent potentially hazardous food from entering the food chain and the steps that are needed to correct the process. This usually includes identification of the problems and the steps taken to assure that the problem will not occur again.
Principle 6: Establish Verification Procedures
Those activities, other than monitoring, that determine the validity of the HACCP plan and that the system is operating according to the plan. The HACCP team may identify activities such as auditing of CCP's, record review, prior shipment review, instrument calibration and product testing as part of the verification activities.
Principle 7: Establish Record-keeping and Documentation Procedures
A key component of the HACCP plan is recording information that can be used to prove that the food was produced safely. The records also need to include information about the HACCP plan. Record should include information on the HACCP Team, product description, flow diagrams, the hazard analysis, the CCP's identified, Critical Limits, Monitoring System, Corrective Actions, Recordkeeping Procedures, and Verification Procedures.
111
What are the three types of hazards that a HACCP system seeks to identify and prevent? Give an example of each
1. Biological hazards- bacteria, yeasts, molds, viruses
2. Chemical hazards- cleaning agents, pesticides, antibiotic residues, food additives, food additives/sanitizers (correct ppm)
3. Physical hazards- glass, packaging, metal, wood, foreign objects
112
What is the difference between verification and validation? What are the two parts of validation?
Verification is asking the question, “Are you following the plan the way it is written?” Validation is asking the question, “Did you write the plan accurately to achieve the intended effect?” Verification is focused on the implementation of the plan and validation is focused on its accuracy
The two parts of validation is (1) scientific/technical support and (2) in-plant data
113
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Food Safety Modernization Act (FMSA) of 2011 transformed the nation’s food safety system by shifting the focus from responding to foodborne illness to preventing it.
a. Name and describe the 7 foundational rules of the Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA)
1. Preventive Controls for Human Food: Requires that food facilities have safety plans that set forth how they will identify and minimize hazards. Original rule proposed January 2013; supplemental rule to add specific language for important provisions proposed September 2014. Final rule issued: Sept. 10, 2015.
2. Preventive Controls for Animal Food: Establishes Current Good Manufacturing Practices and preventive controls for food for animals. Original rule proposed October 2013; supplemental rule to add provisions geared specifically to animal foods proposed September 2014. Final rule issued: Sept. 10, 2015.
3. Produce Safety: Establishes science-based standards for growing, harvesting, packing and holding produce on domestic and foreign farms. Original rule proposed January 2013; supplemental rule to amend key areas proposed September 2014. Final rule issued: Nov. 13, 2015.
4. Foreign Supplier Verification Program: Importers will be required to verify that food imported into the United States has been produced in a manner that provides the same level of public health protection as that required of U.S. food producers. Original rule proposed July 2013; supplemental rule to provide, among other provisions, more flexibility in determining appropriate verification measures proposed September 2014. Final rule issued: Nov. 13, 2015.
5. Third Party Certification: Establishes a program for the accreditation of third-party auditors to conduct food safety audits and issue certifications of foreign facilities producing food for humans or animals. Proposed July 2013. Final rule issued: Nov. 13, 2015.
6. Sanitary Transportation: Requires those who transport food to use sanitary practices to ensure the safety of food. Proposed January 2014. Final rule issued: Apr. 5, 2016.
7. Intentional Adulteration: Requires domestic and foreign facilities to address vulnerable processes in their operations to prevent acts intended to cause large-scale public harm. Proposed December 2013. Final rule deadline: May 31, 2016.
114
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Food Safety Modernization Act (FMSA) of 2011 transformed the nation’s food safety system by shifting the focus from responding to foodborne illness to preventing it.
b. How do the Preventive Controls for human food instituted under FSMA compare to USDA's HACCP rules (9 CFR Part 417)? What additional features are included in the Preventive Controls?
The Preventive Controls for human food align well with the Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point rules with both requiring a plan that includes a hazard analysis be performed, establishment of critical control points, and institute procedures to reduce or eliminate the hazard. The Preventive Controls also includes hazard identification in ingredients received for use in manufacturing, reduction of allergen cross-contamination, and requires a written plan for recalling product.
115
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Food Safety Modernization Act (FMSA) of 2011 transformed the nation’s food safety system by shifting the focus from responding to foodborne illness to preventing it.
c. What are three FDA regulated products that require HACCP plans?
HACCP systems have been mandated by U.S. Federal regulations issued by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for seafood and juice and by the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) for meat, poultry, and egg products.
116
Sampling programs that are pertinent to Food Protection.
a. The Foodborne Disease Active Surveillance Network (FoodNet) is a collaborative program between the CDC, 10 state health departments, USDA-FSIS, and FDA. For what organisms does it conduct surveillance? Why is called an ‘active’ surveillance program?
FoodNet has conducted population-based surveillance for laboratory-diagnosed infections caused by Campylobacter, Listeria, Salmonella, Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) O157, Shigella, Vibrio, and Yersinia since 1996; Cyclospora since 1997; and STEC non-O157 since 2000. FoodNet also conducted surveillance for Cryptosporidium from 1997 through 2017. FoodNet began to collect information on infections identified by culture-independent methods in 2009 for STEC and Campylobacter and in 2011 for Listeria, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Vibrio.
FoodNet is an active surveillance system, meaning that public health officials routinely communicate with more than 700 clinical laboratories serving the surveillance area to identify new infections and conduct periodic audits to ensure that all infections are reported.
117
PulseNet is made up of federal, regional, state, and local laboratories to identify bacteria to detect outbreaks. What laboratory methods do they use?
The current gold-standard method for PulseNet is whole genome sequencing (WGS) to generate DNA fingerprints. PulseNet uses WGS to subtype E. coli (O157 and other Shiga toxin-producing E. coli), Campylobacter, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio cholerae, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, and Cronobacter isolates. In the past, PulseNet used pulse-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) and mulitple locus variable number tandem repeat analysis (MLVA) for DNA fingerprinting.
118
Describe the objectives of the National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System (NARMS), including which agencies are involved and where sampling for antimicrobial resistance takes place for each agency.
The National Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring System for Enteric Bacteria (NARMS) was established in 1996. NARMS is a collaboration among state and local public health departments, CDC, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
This national public health surveillance system tracks changes in the antimicrobial susceptibility of certain enteric (intestinal) bacteria found in ill people (CDC), retail meats (FDA), and food animals (USDA) in the United States. The NARMS program at CDC helps protect public health by providing information about emerging bacterial resistance, the ways in which resistance is spread, and how resistant infections differ from susceptible infections.
119
What are the FDA recall types and briefly describe each one. (Hint there are three)
Class I recall: a situation in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.
Class II recall: a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote.
Class III recall: a situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences.
120
1. What farmed animals are most impacted by SARS-CoV-2? Select all that apply.
A. Pigs
B. Beef cattle
C. Mink
D. Poultry
E. Catfish
A, C, D
121
What are 3 factors that make food processing facility workers potentially more susceptible to potential exposures to COVID-19?
Work close to each other on lines, congregate spaces in locker rooms/break rooms/time clocks, long shifts, language barriers, vulnerable populations, lack of incentive to stay home when sick
122
True or False? Meat processing facility workers infected with COVID-19 can potentially expose people who consume the meat they processed.
False
123
What are main adverse effects associated with raw pet food?
nutritional deficiencies, foodborne bacterial illness, and antimicrobial resistant bacterial colonization
124
What are the main bacterial pathogens associated with raw pet food?
E. coli, Salmonella and Campylobacter
125
In what ways is raw pet food regulated, if at all?
There is no overarching regulation of raw pet food
126
What is the incubation period for Salmonella, what are the symptoms, and for how long do people tend to show symptoms?
a. Incubation period: 6 hours – 6 days
b. Symptoms: diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps
c. Most people recover without treatment after 4 – 7 days. Some people – especially children younger than 5 years, adults 65 years and older, and people with weakened immune systems – may experience more severe illnesses that require medical treatment or hospitalization.
127
What is PulseNet?
a. PulseNet is the national subtyping network of public health and food regulatory agency laboratories coordinated by CDC. DNA fingerprinting is performed on Salmonella bacteria isolated from ill people by using a standardized laboratory and data analysis method called whole genome sequencing (WGS). CDC PulseNet manages a national database of these sequences that are used to identify possible outbreaks. WGS gives investigators detailed information about the bacteria causing illness.
