Food Safety Cards Flashcards
(95 cards)
1
Q
NARMS
A
National Antimicrobial Resistance Management System
2
Q
What year was NARMS established?
A
1996; was originally supposed to function as post-approval safety monitoring system
3
Q
NARMS Objectives
A
Monitor trends in antimicrobial resistance;
disseminate timely information on antimicrobial resistance;
research;
inform FDA
4
Q
What is integrated surveillance of antimicrobial resistance in foodborne bacteria?
A
The coordinated sampling and testing of bacteria from food animals, foods, and clinically ill humans; and the subsequent evaluation of antimicrobial resistance trends throughout the food production and supply chain using harmonized methods.
5
Q
NARMS reports
A
Released annually, however, has a two to three year lag time.
6
Q
NARMS components
A
USDA - animals
FDA - consumer exposure
CDC - public health/humans
7
Q
HACCP
A
Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point
8
Q
Whole genome sequencing is useful in identifying antimicrobial resistance because…
A
It allows for detection of resistance genes within the bacterial genome without culture and MIC.
9
Q
PFGE
A
Pulsed Field Gel Electrophoresis;
DNA segments separated on gel based on size
10
Q
PulseNet, USA
A
A national database for foodborne outbreaks.
11
Q
PFGE DNA fingerprint
A
DNA fragment pattern on the gel that signifies a specific isolate of bacterial origin
12
Q
NPIS
A
New Poultry Inspection System; Modernization of poultry slaughter inspection; applies to young chickens and turkeys, does not replace other inspection systems, voluntary program.
13
Q
FSIS
A
Food Safety and Inspection Service; Public Health Agency in USDA that is responsible for ensuring meat, poultry, and processed egg products are safe, wholesome, and accurately labeled.
14
Q
What is NARMS used for?
A
NARMS can be used to identify emerging patterns of resistance. Working on timely identification of resistance.
15
Q
FSIS Authority
A
Federal Meat Inspection Act 1906 Agriculture Marketing Act 1946 Poultry Products Inspection Act 1957 Humane Methods of Slaughter Act 1958 Egg Products Inspection Act 1970
16
Q
HAB
A
Harmful Algal Bloom
17
Q
HAB Toxins
A
Brevetoxins, saxitoxins, ciguatoxins, cyanotoxins
18
Q
Red Tide
A
General term pertaining to harmful algal blooms. Species differs based on geographical location.
19
Q
Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning
A
Karenia brevis
Red Tide
Brevetoxins
20
Q
Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning
A
Pyrodinium bahamense
Saxitoxin
Associated with puffer fish in a specific area of Florida (not confused with tetroditoxin of Fugu in Japan) otherwise mussels and other bivalves
21
Q
Ciguitera Fish Poinsoning
A
Gamberdiscus Toxicus
Most commonly reported food illness worldwide; hispanics have highest incidence of toxicosis
Associated with Barricuda (Florida)
Ciguatoxin
22
Q
Cyanobacteria
A
Cyanotoxins:
- microcystins,
- cylindrospermosins,
- anatoxins, etc.
Freshwater
Microcystis, Anabaena, Cylindrospermopsis, Oscillatoria, Aphanizomenon
23
Q
Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning
A
Domoic acid made by spp. of red algae.
Associated with shellfish, sardines, and anchovies.
24
Q
Diarrheic Shellfish Poisoning
A
Okadaic Acid
Associated with marine sponges and shellfish
Hepatopancreatic toxin
25
Outbreak
Two or more people with similar illness contact with a common exposure and epidemiologic analysis implicates the exposure as the source of the illness.
26
Outbreak Investigation Steps
1. Detect a possible outbreak.
2. Find cases in an outbreak.
3. Generate hypothesis through interviews.
4. Test hypotheses through analytic studies and laboratory testing.
5. Solve point of contamination and original source of outbreak vehicle.
6. Control outbreak through recalls, facility improvements, and industry collaboration.
7. Decide an outbreak is over.
27
Three legs of evidence
Epidemiology
Traceback
Laboratory testing
28
Current picture of foodborne illness outbreaks
Fewer, but larger producers with wide distribution. Food generally comes from farther away. Many ready-to-eat items. New techniques for producing, processing, and preparing foods.
29
FDA foods not covered by USDA-FSIS
Produce, cheese, processed foods, animal feed.
30
FDAs Judicious Use Strategy
Guidance #209
Limit use of medically important antimicrobial drugs in food-producing animals to those uses:
1. considered necessary for assuring animal health (therapeutic uses).
2. that include veterinary oversight or consultation.
31
Rx requirement
Water soluble products such as medicated drinking water.
32
VFD
Veterinary Feed Directive
| Products used in or on feed such as medicated feed.
33
Drugs affected in VFD
Guidance #213
| medically important antimicrobials listed in Appendix A of FDAs Guidance #152.
34
Maximum time of VFD
6 months
35
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for... Beef, Pork, Veal, and Lamb
Steaks, chops, roasts
145 *F and allow to rest for at least 3 min
36
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Ground meats
160 *F
37
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Ham, fresh or smoked (uncooked)
145 *F and allow to rest for at least 3 min
38
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Fully cooked ham (to reheat)
Reheat cooked hams packaged in USDA-inspected plants to 140 F and all others to 165 F.
39
```
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
All poultry (breasts, whole bird, legs, thighs, and wings, ground poultry, and stuffing)
```
165 *F
40
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Eggs
160 *F
41
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Fish and shellfish
145 *F
42
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Leftovers
165 *F
43
What is the minimum internal temperature and rest time for...
Casseroles
165 *F
44
What is a pre-requisite program? Examples?
A program that provides a foundation for HACCP accomplished through current GMPs and the FDAs Food Code. Ex: Facilities, supplier control, production equipment, sanitation, training, receiving program, traceability and recalls, pest control.
45
What is a Class I Recall?
A situation in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. (botulinum toxin, undeclared allergen)
46
What is a Class II Recall?
A situation in which use of or exposure to a violative product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote. (foreign materials)
47
What is a Class III Recall?
A situation in which the use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences. (Minor container defect, lack of english labeling)
48
Food Safety Modernization Act was established in what year?
2010
49
What are the 7 major Provisions of FMSA?
1. Preventive controls for human food.
2. Preventive controls for animal food.
3. Produce safety standards.
4. Foreign supplier verfication program.
5. Intentional adulteration standards.
6. Transportation.
7. Third party accreditation.
50
PCQI
Preventive control qualified individual
Oversees the Food Safety Plan development and implementation.
Must complete training by FDA or equivalent.
51
What are prerequisite programs?
| .
Practices and conditions needed prior to and during the implementation of HACCP and which are essential for food safety
52
Prerequisite program vs CCP
A CCP is designed to control a food safety hazard that has been determined to be reasonably likely to occur.
A prerequisite program may prevent a food safety hazard from occurring.
53
What are some examples of prerequisite programs?
GMPs, Sanitation and Maintenance, Production controls, Raw material controls (Allergen program), Pest control.
54
Who regulates GMO food (plants and animals) products?
FDA under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act where the genomic material is considered a "drug" within the meaning of the act.
55
What are the major food allergens?
```
• Milk
• Eggs
• Peanuts
• Tree nuts such as almonds,
walnuts, and pecans
• Soybeans
• Wheat
• Fish
• Shellfish such as crab, lobster, and
shrimp
```
56
What is a food allergy?
```
A food allergy is a specific type of adverse food reaction involving the immune system. The body produces what is called an allergic, or
immunoglobulin E (IgE), antibody to a food. Once a specific food is ingested and binds with the IgE antibody, an allergic reaction ensues.
```
57
Common Pork Pathogens
```
Triple T SMYLE BC
Trichinella spiralis (nematode/roundworm)
Taenia solium (cestode/tapeworm)
Toxoplasma gondii (protozoan)
Salmonella (Gram -)
MRSA (Gram +)
Yersinia enterocolitica (Gram - )
Listeria monocytogenes (Gram +)
Hepatitis E (virus)
Brucella suis (Gram -)
Campylobacter (Gram -)
```
58
Common cattle pathogens
```
Salmonella spp.
Shiga toxinproducing
E. coli
Campylobacter spp.
Listeria
monocytogenes
```
59
Common poultry pathogens
Salmonella spp.
| Campylobacter spp.
60
Strategies for combatting common pathogens within food production animals?
```
Vaccination in poultry
against Salmonella
CE for Salmonella in poultry
Vaccination in swine against Salmonella
Probiotics in cattle for E. coli O157
```
61
What is food defense?
* Intentional Contamination of the Food Supply
* Accidental Contamination of the Food Supply
* Prevention of Food Fraud
62
What is food security?
the condition in which all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient safe and nutritious food that meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.
63
What is food safety?
a scientific discipline describing handling, preparation, and storage of food in ways that prevent foodborne illness. This includes a number of routines that should be followed to avoid potential health hazards.
64
What pathogens are commonly found in raw milk?
```
Entoerotoxigenic Staphylococcus aureus
*Campylobacter jejuni
*Salmonella spp.
E. coli (O157:H7, EHEC, ETEC)
Listeria monocytogenes
M. tuberculosis
M. bovis
Brucella
Coxiella burnetii
Yersinia enterocolitica
*Cryptosporidium
MERS CoV (camel)
Tickborne Encephailitis virus
Toxoplasma
```
65
What is RB51?
Brucella abortus vaccine to assist with eradication programs. The B. abortus RB51 strain developed specifically to differentiate between vaccinated and unvaccinated animals.
66
Can RB51 be found in milk?
Yes. B. abortus RB51 is transmitted with ingestion of raw or undercooked dairy products or meat. RB51 is shed in milk most commonly.
67
What are some food safety pathogens primarily transmitted by people?
```
Salmonella Typhi
Shigella
Enteroinvasive E. coli
+/- Staphylococcus aureus
Enamoeba histolytica aka "amebiasis"
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichuris trichiura
Norovirus
Hepatitis A Virus
+/- Hepatitis E virus
Rotavirus
Astrovirus, Sapovirus, Enteric adenovirus, Bocavirus, Aichivirus
```
68
What toxin is produced as a result of time and temperature abuse in fish?
Scrombrotoxin
69
What toxin is produced by Rhododendron spp plants and where do they enter the food chain?
Grayanotoxins
| They are sometimes contaminants of honey.
70
Where would someone accidentally ingest Aflatoxins?
Cows milk mostly; can come from corn, rice, or peanuts.
71
What foodborne pathogens can cause bloody diarrhea?
```
Shigella
Vibrio cholera
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Entoerinvasive E. coli (+/-)
Entamoeba histolytica aka "amebiasis"
Trichuris trichiura
```
72
What toxins are produced by Shigella?
Enterotoxins and Shiga toxin
73
What toxins are produced by Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
Thermostable direct and thermostable related hemolysins (TDH and TRH)
74
What toxins are produced by Vibrio cholera O1 and O139?
```
Cholera toxin (CT) and toxin co-regulated pilus (TCP)
Other V. cholera = Repeats in toxin (RPX)
```
75
What toxins are produced by Aeromonas hydrophila?
Aerolysin
76
What toxins are produced by ETEC?
Heat-labile toxin (LT) and heat-stable toxin (ST)
77
What toxins are produced by EPEC?
Locus for enterocyte effacement (LEE)
78
What toxins are produced by EHEC?
Shiga toxin
79
What toxins are produced by Clostridium perfringens?
Alpha, beta, epsilon, iota
80
What are the most common types of Clostridium perfringens in animals?
B and C
| D causes enterotoxemia in sheep
81
What toxins are produced by Staphylococcus aureus?
Heat-stable enterotoxins (SEA, SEB) - exhibit emetic activity
82
What toxins are produced by Bacillus cereus?
Cerulide (diarrheal enterotoxin)
83
What toxins are produced by Streptococcus (Group A)?
C5a peptidase and streptolysin
84
What toxins are produced by Clostridium botulinum?
Botulinum toxin
85
What are the common types of Clostridium botulinum in people? Animals? Birds?
A, B, E, F = people
C and D = animals
C and E = birds
86
What toxins are produced by Enterococcus?
Cytolysin plus many others
87
What is the toxin ingested in "Pufferfish poisoning"?
Tetrodotoxin
88
What is the toxin, Amatoxin or Amantin, produced by?
Mushroom; the Death Cap or Destroying Angel
89
What toxin causes SLUD when eating toxic mushrooms?
Muscarine
| SLUD = Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation
90
What toxins cause the psychotropic effects of ingesting 'shrooms?
Psilocybin/psilocin
91
FSIS Authority
```
Federal Meat Inspection Act
Poultry Products Inspection Act
Egg Products Inspection Act
*Humane Methods of Slaughter Act
Code of Federal Regulations (9CFR)
```
92
Class I Recall Goals
Class II Recall Goals
Class III Recall Goals
Class I Recall Goals
Remove all product from stores and peoples homes.
Class II Recall Goals
Remove products from the market, inform consumer.
Class III Recall Goals
Remove products from the market.
93
Antibiotic
An ANTIBIOTIC is a low molecular substance produced by a microorganism that at a low concentration inhibits or kills other microorganisms.
All antibiotics are antimicrobials, but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics.
94
Antimicrobial
An ANTIMICROBIAL is any substance of natural, semisynthetic or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms but causes little or no damage to the host.
All antibiotics are antimicrobials, but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics.
95
What are the four phases of rigor mortis?
Delay phase — while there is plenty of ATP in the muscle (complexed with Mg++), the muscle will remain in the relaxed state and no crossbridges between the thick and thin myofilaments will occur.
Onset phase — As stores of ATP and Creatine Phosphate (CP is used to rephosphoryate ADP to ATP) are used up, rigor bonds between the thick and thin myofilaments are formed. As more bonds are formed, the muscle loses extensibility.
Completion — When all of the CP is gone, the muscle has no way of regenerating ATP. Thus, full rigor mortis will set in.
Resolution — The action of proteolytic enzymes will cause the muscle to soften through protein degradation during postmortem aging.
