For Checkride Flashcards
1
Q
Required Inspections for your aircraft are
A
A - Airworthiness Directives V - VOR every 30 days (IFR) I - Inspections (Annual and/or 100 hr) A - Altimeter every 24 months (IFR) T - Transponder every 24 months E - ELT every 12 months S - Static system every 24 months (IFR)
2
Q
Aircraft registrations must be renewed every
A
3 years
3
Q
What are the four types of hypoxia?
A
- Hypoxic
- Hypemic
- Histotoxic
- Stagnant
4
Q
Explain second class medical
A
Used for commercial pilots, good for 24 months
5
Q
Explain first class medical
A
Used for ATP’s, good for 6 months if over 40 years old, or 12 months if under age 40
6
Q
Explain third class medical
A
Private Pilot level, 24 calendar months if over 40 years old, or 60 calendar months if under 40 years old
7
Q
Symptoms of hypoxia
A
dizzyness, euphoria, cyanosis, similar to hypoxia
8
Q
What are the types of spatial disorientation?
A
- Leans - correction of bank too slow
- Coriolis illusion - quick head movement during turn
- Graveyard Spin - recover from spin, feels spin another direction
- Graveyard Spiral - Losing altitude, pull tighter turn, spiral down.
- Somotagraphic illusion - rapid acceleration, feels nose up
- Inversion illusion - change from climb to level, tumble backwards
- Elevator illusion - updraft/vertical acceleration feels like climb
- False Horizon - misinterpret the actual horizon
- Autokinesis - Lights appear to move if starring at them
9
Q
Standard Temperature and pressure is?
A
59° F or 15°C and 29.92 in.
10
Q
What are 3 main layers of the atmosphere?
A
- Troposphere
- Tropopause
- Stratosphere
11
Q
All weather is the result of?
A
Heat exchange
12
Q
Wind is the result of?
A
Changes or differences in pressure.
13
Q
What are the 4 main types of fog?
A
- Radiation fog
- Advection fog
- Upslope fog
- Steam fog
14
Q
Describe stable air.
A
Poor visibility, stratiform clouds, continuous precipitation, smooth air.
15
Q
Describe unstable air.
A
Cumulous clouds, showery precipitation, good visibility, strong winds.
16
Q
What are 4 main types of fronts?
A
- Cold - replacing warm air
- Warm - replacing cold air
- Stationary - not moving
- Occluded - cold catches warm
17
Q
Name and explain 3 types of icing.
A
- Clear - hard and glossy, sheet like
- Rime - brittle and frostlike
- Mix - both
18
Q
What 3 ingredients for thunderstorm development?
A
- Sufficient water vapor
- Unstable lapse rate
- Uplifting action
19
Q
What are 3 stages of a thunderstorm?
A
- Cumulous - updrafts
- Mature - falling precipitation
- Dissipating - large downdrafts
20
Q
What are isobars?
A
lines on a weather chart showing areas of like pressure.
21
Q
How long is a METAR valid?
A
Valid hourly, a special METAR can be issued when significant weather issues occur at anytime.
22
Q
When is a METAR issued?
A
55 minutes after the hour
23
Q
What does TAF stand for?
A
Terminal Aerodrome Forcast
24
Q
How long is a TAF valid for?
A
Usually 24 hours, but can change.
25
When are TAF's issued?
4 times a day.
26
When are PIREPS issued?
Issued by pilots as needed or requested.
27
Explain the following abbreviations for a PIREP:
1. UA
2. UUA
3. OV
4. TM
5. FL
6. TP
Answers:
1. UA - Routine
2. UUA - Urgent
3. OV - Location
4. TM - Time received from pilot
5. FL - Altitude or Flight Level
6. TP - Aircraft Type
28
What is UUA on a PIREP?
Uregent PIREP.
29
What is OV on a PIREP?
Location
30
What is a prognostic chart?
Forecast weather chart issues 4 times a day, cover 12 and 24 hour periods, provided for a given region, up to 24,000.
31
What is a surface analysis chart?
a chart that depict weather conditions as they were a few hours earlier. Developed every 3 hours to show patterns.
32
What is a weather depiction chart?
visual chart based on METARs. Updated every 3 hours, but is only valid at time it is issued.
33
What is a Convective SIGMET?
Issued for severe thunderstorms (embedded, strong, widespread etc.) that contain convective activity.
34
What is an AIRMET?
Issued for less severe conditions that still may be hazardous to smaller aircraft.
35
What is a SIGMET?
Concern severe and extreme conditions important to all aircraft.
36
What are 3 types of AIRMETs?
1. Tango - Turbulence and surface winds greater than 30 knots
2. Sierra - IFR conditions or mountain obscurations
3. Zulu - icing conditions.
37
What is a Center Weather Advisories (CWA's)?
Issued by a control centers and describe SIGMET and AIRMETs in greater details.
38
What is a ceiling?
Lowest broken or overcast layer of clouds.
39
What factors affect stall speed?
Weight and center of gravity
40
What are two types of drag?
Parasite and induced drag
41
How many types of parasite drag are there and what are they?
3, skin, form and interference drag
42
What is induced drag?
A bi-product of producing lift. (Redirecting air off of wing)
43
What is load factor?
Load the wing is supporting divided by the total weight of the airplane.
44
How does load factor affect stall speed?
The heavier the load, the higher the stall speed.
45
What is the formula to calculate VA?
Max TO weight squared, divided by landing weight squared, multiplied by max VA
46
What is the relationship between VA and weight?
VA increases the heavier the airplane, decreases the lighter.
47
What causes a spin?
an aggravated stall.
48
When are spins most likely to occur?
Any time a stall occurs
49
What is ground effect?
Reduction of induced drag from the interference of the ground.
50
What is adverse yaw?
When the airplane nose tends to turn the opposite of the intended turning direction.
51
What is standard empty weight pertaining to W&B?
Weight of airframe and engine with all standard equipment and unusable fuel and oil.
52
What is optional and extra equipment as pertaining to W&B?
any additional equipment that is not standard.
53
What is basic empty weight pertaining to W&B?
Weight of airplane with all optional equipment included.
54
What is useful load as pertaining to W&B?
Difference between gross TO weight and basic empty weight.
55
What is payload as pertaining to W&B?
The load available as passengers, baggage, freight, etc., after useable fuel and crew are deducted.
56
What is operational weight as pertains to W&B?
Basic empty weight plus weight of pilot.
57
What is usable fuel?
Fuel that is available for flight planning.
58
What is unusable fuel?
Fuel remaining in the tanks after runout test has been completed.
59
What is max gross weight?
Max permissible weight of the airplane.
60
What is max takeoff weight?
Weight approved for start of takeoff run.
61
What is zero fuel weight?
Weight of airplane exclusive of usable fuel.
62
What is indicated altitude?
Altitude read from the altimeter.
63
What is true altitude?
Actual height above sea level.
64
What is absolute altitude?
The actual height above terrain.
65
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude read from the altimeter when set to 29.92 (standard).
66
What is density altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperatue.
67
How is density altitude calculated?
You must first know OAT and Pres. Alt. Then can use the E6B.
68
What factors affect density altitude?
Humidity, high temperature and low pressure.
69
Define VLE
Max landing gear extension speed. Does not apply
70
Define VLO
Max landing gear operating speed. Does not apply
71
Define Vg
Best glide speed, 60 KIAS
72
Define Indicated airpseed
Airspeed read directly from airspeed indicator.
73
Define calibrated airspeed.
Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument error.
74
Define true airspeed.
The actual speed of the aircraft through the air.
75
Do we use cones or rods at night?
Rods at night and cones during the day.
76
When are position lights required during night flight?
At all times during night flight.
77
When are anti-collision lights required at night?
At all times if the aircraft was manufactured after August 11 1971.
78
What color are taxiway lights?
Blue
79
What is REIL?
Runway end identifier lights
80
What color is lighted airport beacon?
White and Green
81
What color is a light seaport beacon?
White and yellow
82
What color is a lighted heliport beacon?
Green, yellow and white.
83
What color is a lighted hospital beacon?
White, green and red.
84
What color is a military airport beacon?
White, White and green.
85
What does the throttle control?
The amount of air into the carb.
86
What does the mixture control?
The amount of fuel available to the engine.
87
What is the purpose of the voltage regulator?
Provides continuous overvoltage protection.
88
Which instruments operate on a gyroscope?
Heading indicator, attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
89
What are the two main fundamentals of a gyroscope?
Rigidity in space and precession.
90
What are the limitations of heading indicator?
1. Precession or drift
91
What would the turn coordinator indicate in a slipping turn?
Ball to inside of turn.
92
What would the turn coordinator indicate in a skidding turn?
Ball to outside of turn.
93
Name the compass errors.
UNOS - Turning Errors
ANDS - Dipping Errors
U - Undershoot
N - North
O - Overshoot
S - South
A - Accelerate
N - North
D - Decelerate
S - South
94
Name the errors affecting attitude indicator.
1. Turn error
2. Acceleration error
3. Deceleration error
95
If the altimeter pressure is increased, what will the change be?
The altitude will appear to increase.
96
How does the pitot static system work?
Comparing static pressure to dynamic pressure, either by reference pressure or controlled leak.
97
What instruments operate on a pitot static system?
Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator and altimeter.
98
What pressures are compared on the altimeter
Static pressure compared to reference pressure.
99
What pressures are compared in the vertical speed indicator?
Static pressure to calibrated leak.
100
What pressures are compared in the airspeed indicator?
Dynamic pressure to static pressure.
101
What is first indication of carb ice?
Normally a reduction of RPM.
102
What is detonation?
Uncontrolled firing in cylinder, usually called by excessive temps or lower grade fuel.
103
What is pre-ignition?
Occurs when fuel/air mixture ignites prematurely.
104
What steps need to be taken if detonation or preignition is detected?
Discontinue flight as soon as possible.
105
What should you do with low oil pressure?
Land as soon as practical.
106
What procedures should you take with a partial loss of power?
Should be treated as a complete loss of power.
107
What are the ABC's of an engine failure?
A - Airspeed (glide speed)
B - Best landing Area
C - Checklist
108
What procedures to conduct with engine fire in flight?
```
Mixture - Idle cutoff
Fuel shutoff valve - off
Master switch - off
Cabin vents / air - off
Airspeed - 85 KIAS
```
109
What procedures engine fire on ground during start?
Continue cranking to suck the flames back into the engine. If it starts, run for a few minutes and shut down. If it doesn't start, secure engine.
110
What is minimum altitude you can descend to when conducting a simulated emergency approach?
Over non congested area is 500 feet AGL.
111
In the event of an alternator failure, how long will the battery last?
Not much longer than 30 minutes.
112
If the vacuum system failed, which instruments would you lose?
Heading indicator and the attitude indicator.
113
What are procedures for electrical fire in flight?
Master switch - Off
All other switches (except ignition) - Off
Vents - closed
Activate extinguisher if available
114
What are class A VFR requirements?
Class A is IFR only
115
What are class A VFR visibility requirements?
Class A is IFR only.
116
What altitude does Class A start at?
18,000 feet MSL.
117
How is Class A depicted on a sectional chart?
It is not.
118
What are class B VFR visibility requirements?
3 statue miles of visibility and clear of clouds.
119
What altitude does Class B airspace usually extend to?
Typically 10,000 feet MSL.
120
How is Class B airspace depicted on a sectional chart?
Series of solid blue lines.
121
What are class C VFR visibility requirements?
3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.
122
How is Class C airspace depicted on a sectional chart?
A series of solid magenta lines.
123
What airspace is a Mode C transponder required?
Class B and within a 30nm Class B veil, and Class C (except for below a shelf).
124
What are class D VFR visibility requirements?
3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.
125
What are class E VFR requirements?
Below 10,000 MSL: 3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.
Above 10,000 ft MSL: 5 statue miles of visibility, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below and 1 mile horizontally from clouds.
126
How is Class D airspace depicted on a sectional chart?
Blue airport surrounded by blue dashed lines.
127
What are Class G VFR visibility requirements?
Daytime: 1 statue mile visibility, clear of clouds.
Nighttime: 3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.
128
What are the different types of Class E airspace?
S - Surface (starting at surface)
E - Extension
T - Transition (starting at 700 ft AGL)
V - Victor Airways
O - Offshore (identified w/ blue zipper line)
D - Domestic Enroute
A - Above 14,500 MSL.
129
Name and define different types of special use airspace
M - MOA
C - Controlled firing area (not depicted on sectional)
```
P - Prohibited Area
R - Restricted Area
A - Alert Area
W - Warning Area
N - National Security Area (TFR)
```
130
Which airspace falls under "other" airspace category?
1. TRSA - Terminal Radar Service Area
2. Military Training Routes (IR/VR)
3. Wildlife Refuge Areas
131
Define an aircraft accident:
Occurrence associated with an operation of an aircraft with intention of flight, where death or serious injury occur.
132
What is an aircraft incident?
An occurrence other than an accident which effects or could effect the safety of operations.
133
When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?
1. When an accident occurs
2. When a flight control failure or malfunction occurs
3. When a member of flight crew is unable to perform duties due to injury or illness.
4. In flight fire
5. Aircraft collision in flight
6. Property damage estimated to exceed $25,000.
134
Define serious injury:
Injury which requires:
1. Hospitalization of more than 48 hours.
2. Results in a fracture of bones (excluding simple)
3. Causes severe nerve or muscle damage or involves an internal organ
4. Involves 2nd or 3rd degree burns or burns covering more than 5% of the body.
135
If requested, how long do you have to file a report with the NTSB.
Within 10 days.
136
How long do you have to wait to operate or crew an aircraft after consumption of alcohol?
8 hours.
137
What preflight action is required before flight not in the vicinity of an airport (cross country)?
N - NOTAMs
W - Weather
```
K - Known ATC delays
R - Runway lengths
A - Alternate
F - Fuel required
T - Takeoff and Landing distances
```
138
When must seatbelts be worn and by whom?
All crew and passengers while movement on the ground.
139
When converging on another aircraft, who has the right of way?
The aircraft to the others right.
140
What aircraft has the right of way over ALL others?
An aircraft in distress, (then a balloon, glider, airship, powered parachute, weight shift control, airplane, rotorcraft.)
141
When two aircraft are approaching airport for landing, who has the right of way?
The aircraft that is at the lower altitude.
142
When over a heavily congested/densely populated area, what are the min. safe altitudes to operate?
1000 feet above the highest obstacle and within 2000 feet horizontally.
143
When over an "other than congested" area, what are the min. safe altitudes to operate?
A min of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated area, then not within 500 feet of person, vehicle or structure.
144
What does steady green light gun signal on the ground mean?
Cleared for takeoff.
145
What does steady green light gun signal in the air mean?
Cleared to land.
146
What does a flashing green light gun signal on the ground mean?
Cleared to taxi
147
What does a flashing green light gun signal in the air mean?
Return to land.
148
What does a steady red light gun signal on the ground mean?
STOP
149
What does a steady red light gun signal in the air mean?
Give way to other aircraft.
150
What does a flashing red light gun signal on the ground mean?
Taxi clear of runway.
151
What does a flashing red light gun signal in the air mean?
Airport is unsafe, do not land.
152
What does a flashing white light gun signal mean?
Only applies to ground, means return to starting point.
153
What does alternating red and green light gun signals mean?
Proceed with caution.
154
What is squak code 7600 mean?
Lost comms
155
What is squak code 7500 mean?
Hijacked
156
What is squak code 7700 mean?
General Emergency
157
What are VFR reserve fuel requirements for day?
30 minutes of reserves
158
What are VFR reserve fuel requirements for night?
45 minutes of reserves
159
What instruments are required for VFR day and night?
A - Airspeed indicator
T - Tach for each engine
O - Oil pressure gauge each engine
M - Manifold pressure gauge for each eng.
A - Altimeter
T - Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine
O - Oil temp gauge
```
F - Fuel gauge
L - Landing gear pos indicator
A - Anti-collision lights (After 1996)
M - Magnetic compass
E - ELT
S - Safety belts
```
```
F - Fuses (unless circuit breakers)
L - Landing light (for hire only)
A - Anti collision lights
P - Position lights (After 1971)
S - Source of electricity
```
160
When is an ELT not required?
Scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers, or for training operations are conducted with 50nm of airport it began at, agricultural aircraft, or aircraft not equipped to carry more than 1 person.
161
At what altitudes is oxygen required for crew members if above what duration of time?
12,500 ft MSL to 14,000 MSL, if longer than 30 minutes.
162
At what altitudes are crew members required to use supplemental oxygen?
14,000 ft MSL to 15,000 ft MSL.
163
At what altitudes must oxygen be provided to passengers?
15,000 ft MSL and above.
164
What is a VASI?
Visual Approach Slope Indicator.
165
What is a PAPI?
Precision Approach Path Indicator
166
What is ZULU time?
This is world time, or UTC (Universal time coordinated).
167
In eastern time zone, during DST, how is ZULU time converted?
Subtract 4 hours.
168
In eastern time zone, during EST, how is ZULU time converted?
Subtract 5 hours.
169
Before departure, what should passengers be briefed on?
No smoking, use of safety belts, locations of exits and survival equipment, emergency procedures.
170
What are two most common ways to navigate?
Pilotage and dead wreckoning.
171
What is pilotage?
Navigating using landmarks.
172
What is dead reckoning?
Taking a known position and using math and other calculations to determine position and locations, such as using a compass and clock.
173
What types of charts are used for VFR navigation?
A sectional and terminal area chart.
174
What is an isogonic line?
A line of magnetic variation.
175
What is magnetic variation?
Difference between magnetic and true north.
176
How do you calculate magnetic variation?
Subtract east and add west
177
What is a VOR?
Very high frequency omnidirectional range. 360° of radials.
178
What is an NDB?
A non-directional beacon, which is a radio transmission from a non location.
179
What is RNAV?
Short for area navigation, such as VOR, etc. Navigational aids.
180
How many satellites typically are required for operation of a GPS?
Typically 3 - 4. 3 to triangulate and one additional to confirm or verify.
181
What is the allowed deviation of a VOR on a ground check?
± 4 degrees.
182
What is the allowed deviation of a VOR airborne check?
± 6 degrees
183
What is DME?
Distance measuring equipment. Equipment installed in an aircraft that determines distance away from a VOR.
184
What are the four C's of lost procedures?
1. Confess that you're lost
2. Communicate
3. Climb
4. Conserve fuel
185
How do you activate a VFR flight plan?
By calling the FSS over radio while airborne.
186
When is a VFR flight plan REQUIRED?
When flying across the Air Defense Identification Zone (you must fly a DVFR plan)
187
What is CRM?
Crew Resource Management. Using all resources with crew members, etc.
188
What are the four left turning tendencies?
1. P-factor or asymmetrical thrust
2. Torque
3. Gyroscopic precession
4. Spiraling slip stream
189
What are the five types of altitude?
1. Indicated
2. Absolute (height above terrain)
3. True - Height above sea level
4. Pressure Altitude
5. Density Altitude
190
What is the lapse rate?
2°C per 1000 feet
191
When does "night time" begin?
1 hour after sunset
192
What altitude does class D airspace extend to (AGL)?
2500 feet AGL
193
What altitude does Class E airspace extend to (AGL)?
4000 feet AGL
194
What is the lowest altitude you should be at after completing a stall or steep turn?
1500 feet AGL
195
What is ARTTC
Air Route Traffic Control Centers - AKA "Center"
196
Ground reference maneuvers are conducted at what altitude?
600 - 1000 feet AGL
197
What is the lowest altitude an emergency decent should be flown to?
1500 feet AGL unless a real emergency.
198
What does the IMSAFE checklist stand for?
```
I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Emotions
```
199
What does the PAVE checklist stand for?
P - Personal/Pilot which uses IMSAFE
A - Aircraft
V - enVirontment
E - External Pressures
200
What are the 3 P's in risk management?
P - Perceive the situation
P - Process the best course of action
P - Perform that action
201
What are examples of a category?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.
202
What are examples of class?
SEL, MEL, SES, MES
203
What is the squawk code for lost comms?
7600
204
What is the squawk code for general emergency?
7700
205
What is the squawk code for unlawful interference?
7500
