For January Mock Exam

Question 1

`Who was William Wundt?

Answer 1

William Wundt was the first person to call himself a psychologist. He caused psychological experimentation under experimental conditions to become the preferred method of studying human behavior. His approach was referred to as structuralism and his technique as introspection. This is because he aimed to study structure of the mind, and he did so by investigating sensation and perception (introspection).

Question 2

What is introspection?

Answer 2

The process and manner by which a person gains knowledge about his or her own mental and emotional states.

Question 3

How did Wundt use introspection?

Answer 3

Wundt would try and figure out mental process by asking an individuals perception on something. For instance

Question 4

describe naturalistic observation

Answer 4

observing a situation without changing the situation at all. An example of this is David Attenborough observations of animals. This approach has high ecological validity.

Question 5

describe controlled observation

Answer 5

The observer/researcher change/controls the situation he is observing. An example of this is Bandura’s bobo doll study, researching social learning theory. However, experiments using this approach can lack internal validity (as in demand characteristics or population validity).

Question 6

describe covert observation

Answer 6

When the participants are unaware that they are being observed. Often reduces demand characteristics. Can cause ethical issues as it could be classed as deception or lack consent. However, according to the BPS code of ethics, they would have to be debriefed of the study, assured of confidentiality and if they were unhappy or upset by the observation, extra procedures would have to take place.

Question 7

describe overt observation

Answer 7

Participants are aware they are being watched. Can cause the hawthorne or the F.U. effect.

Question 8

describe participant observation

Answer 8

When the researcher/observer is part of the group they are observing (overt), or if the observer is a confederate pretending to be a part of the group (covert). Examples of this could be if an observer went to live with a special group of people (e.g. a indigenous tribe) temporarily, and recorded their interactions with them. An example of the covert kind of participant observation would be if, for example, a group of individuals pretended to be ill, so they could be admitted to hospital, so they could observe how doctors interact with patients.

Question 9

describe non-participant observation

Answer 9

If the observer watches from a distance, or observers the actions of other’s interactions with other people. An example of this could be watching people through a one-way mirror or watching how two different people interact as a third party.

Question 10

What does the mnemonic NOIR mean in terms of data?

Answer 10

N- Nominal Data
O - Ordinal Data
I - Interval Data
R - Ratio Data  
These data forms go up in accuracy (ratio data is often more accurate or reliable than nominal data)

Question 11

Describe Nominal Data

Answer 11

Data that relies on named categories e.g. results from a survey asking whether you prefer the sun or the daily telegraph, often presented in bar or pie charts.

Question 12

Describe Ordinal Data

Answer 12

The levels/conditions of a data can be put in an order, e.g. highest to lowest, but are not necessarily numerical. For example what grades people got at GCSE, it goes from order A-F, but it doesn’t really have a numerical value.

Question 13

Describe Interval Data

Answer 13

Data that is measured on a scale, ordered categories that are subdivided, so it is not just numbers, but uses numerical intervals. Examples of this include centimetres or litres ( like how many litres of water different people in a sample drink a day).

Question 14

Describe Ratio Data

Answer 14

Continuous data with no categories. There can be no negative numerical data in ratio data, and though it is similar to interval data, the intervals between readings can be split into ratios, e.g. percentages or degrees celcius.

Question 15

Describe parametric testing

Answer 15

The data in parametric testing must be either interval or ratio data. The sample data must also show normal distribution and must have homogeneity of variance (e.g. it mustn’t have any random spikes or anomylous results).

Question 16

Describe non-parametric testing

Answer 16

Used when the sample data does not fill the conditions for parametric tests. Often regarded as less sensitive and powerful to specifics. This is because, unlike parametric tests, they require transformation of data.

Question 17

What are Heuristics?

Answer 17

Heuristics are how your brain copes with making decisions and avoiding decisions and avoiding decision fatigue by not having to deliberate our choices. It is like a schema we apply instead of deliberating or making a hard decision, e.g. having a staple outfit we repeat instead of choosing one in the morning or ordering something we know we’ve liked before in the at a restaurant rather than having to choose something new from the menu.

Question 18

Describe Availability heuristics

Answer 18

When the brain naturally determines that the likelihood of something is related to its availability. i.e. believing plane crashes are very likely, because we see them a lot on the news and television, when in fact they are incredibly unlikely. This can be used in marketing.

Question 19

Describe representative heuristics

Answer 19

The brain’s tendency to focus on the individual rather than the bigger picture i.e. being afraid f being struck by lightning in a thunderstorm, even though there is only a 1 in 700 000 chance, or buying lottery tickets/ being disappointed by losing the lottery, despite there only being about a 1 in 14 million chance of winning.

Question 20

What is framing?

Answer 20

The way information is presented to determine its effect on whether it is successful or not within consumers, for instance framing it in a positive light so more people are likely to buy it.

Question 21

Describe how the psychological “foot in the door” technique is used in marketing

Answer 21

The target is given “low stakes” or obvious-answer/emotive questions ( such as “You don’t like burning down rainforests” or “Do you care that most rainforests will be depleted in 12 years?”)
They will then be asked to buy the product, and will be more likely to say yes due to coherence heuristics (the idea that once we agree with something once, it’s difficult to change our mind, even if the information changes).

Question 22

How do genetics relate to the biological approach in psychology?

Answer 22

Certain mental disorders can be indicated genetically. This means they are inherited. For example, the COMT and SERT may be indications of an individual having OCD or Anorexia Nervosa disorder.

Question 23

How is IQ related to genetics?

Answer 23

It is believed that 60-80% of an individual’s IQ is inherited.

Question 24

How is Schizophrenia related to genetics?

Answer 24

Schizophrenia is 47% inherited.

Question 25

How has the use of the biological approach presented weakness?

Answer 25

In the 1961 Sandberg misunderstanding of the XYY chromosome.

Question 26

How did Sandberg misunderstand the XYY chromosome?

Answer 26

The Y chromosome is associated with the production of Testosterone. Testosterone is associated with aggressive and competitive behavior. Therefore, when a murderer was found with the extra Y chromosome, it was assumed that those with XYY were more aggressive and dangerous. As of this, many men with the gene were hospitalized or even incarcerated. It was later discovered that people with the gene only had 10% more testosterone and were not more aggressive, but rather taller and more susceptible to acne.

Question 27

Why are genes not always accurate in describing behavior?

Answer 27

As genotype can be affected by environment and other factors, so that the phenotype is not always the same.

Question 28

What are the four different neurotransmitters often used in the biological approach?

Answer 28

Oxytocin, Serotonin, Dopamine and Cortisol

Question 29

What is the function of Oxytocin?

Answer 29

Oxytocin causes us to form bonds and relationships. Often caused by skin on skin contact or interactions with babies/baby animals. The chemical makeup of love can often be decoded by having large amounts of serotonin, dopamine and oxytocin.

Question 30

What is the function of Serotonin?

Answer 30

Serotonin creates relaxation/ satisfaction. People with depression often lack this, as do people with insomnia and people with anxiety disorders. It is often released after we eat, which can also explain why people with binge eating disorder become addicted to eating.

Question 31

What is the function of Dopamine?

Answer 31

Dopamine causes stress, but this is often pleasurable stress, that can be seen as drive or excitement. There is often an excess of Dopamine in people with anxiety disorders, OCD and anorexia nervosa. If we are born with the COMT gene ( a gene that aids the production of catechol-O-methyltransferase, COMT) you could have an excess of dopamine, as COMT regulates dopamine production.

Question 32

What is the function of Cortisol?

Answer 32

Cortisol is the main stress hormone in the body. It enters cells (it can enter every type of cell) nad causes a release of sudden energy. It causes fight or flight, fear and anxiety, but because of its depletion of cell's energy store, it causes aging and stress related illness (can also contribute to alzheimers).

Question 33

What are four important principles of the BPS code of ethics?

Answer 33

Respect, Competence, Responsibility and Integrity.

Question 34

What is the content of the principle of Respect in the BPS code of ethics.

Answer 34

It states that researchers must: Respect the dignity and worth of all participants, which includes standards of privacy, confidentiality and informed consent. Intentional deception (lack of informed consent) is only acceptable when necessary for the integrity of the research and when the deception is revealed at the earliest opportunity. Participants should also be aware of their right to withdraw at any time.

Question 35

What is the content of the principle of Competence in the BPS code of ethics.

Answer 35

Psychologists should maintain high standards in their professional work and the experiment should be designed well enough to have a good chance of wielding accurate or useful results. The experiment should therefore be designed with conduct validity in mind.

Question 36

What is the content of the principle of Responsibility in the BPS code of ethics.

Answer 36

The researchers have a responsibility to their clients, general public and the science of psychology. This includes protecting participants from physical and psychological harm as well as debriefing at the end of their participation. Any harm extending beyond the experiment should be compensated for.

Question 37

What is the content of the principle of Integrity in the BPS code of ethics.

Answer 37

Psychologist should record their findings honestly and accurately. This includes acknowledging any potential limitations. It also also includes bringing instances of misconduct to the attention of the BPS.

Question 38

Name three key feature of the BPS code of conduct.

Answer 38

Informed Consent, Deception and Protection from harm.

Question 39

Describe the key features of a laboratory experiment

Answer 39

- Takes place in highly controlled environments - Researcher controls the independent variable and records/controls the dependant variable - The experiments often have low mundane realism and ecological validity Example = the stanford prison experiment

Question 40

Describe the key features of a field experiment

Answer 40

- These experiments take place in a neutral, everyday setting - Researcher manipulates the Independent variable and records the effect on the dependant variable (if there is any, the DV is not as controlled as in lab experiments) -Often has good mundane realism, population validity and ecological validity as the experiment is usually with the general public or in a public place. Example = That experiment where different races gender and minorities/stereotypes of people were lying in a town square, pretending to be in pain, and they observed how many (unknowing) participants helped the different confederates.

Question 41

Describe the key features of a Quasi experiment

Answer 41

- can be considered not a true experiment - The independent variable is based on an existing difference between the participants (e.g. age/gender), so therefor no one manipulates the independent variable, as having different ages and genders etc. in a sample occurs naturally - Very common, an example would be the numerous studies completed to try and decipher whether men or women are more intelligent.

Question 42

Describe the key features of a natural experiment

Answer 42

- The researcher takes advantage of a pre-existing independent variable - Therefore, the independent variable is not controlled, it occurs naturally - Often used when manipulating the independent variable is unethical

Question 43

Describe or draw the table you use to remember whether the IV and/or DV are controlled in an experiment

Answer 43

IV DV ______________________________________ L ✓ ✓ F ✓ X Q X ✓ N X X

Question 44

describe Pavlov's experimental research

Answer 44

Pavlov is credited with discovering Classical Conditioning. He did this through experimentation involving dogs and their salivary reflex. He discovered how to turn a neutral stimulus into an cs by encouraging an conditioned response that was originally an unconditioned response to a priorly unconditioned response to and unconditioned stimulus. In this case, the neutral stimulus was the ringing of a bell, the unconditioned response was the dog salivating and the unconditioned stimulus being food. The neutral stimulus originally produced no salivation, while the food (UCS) did produce salivation. Pavlov then rung the bell every time he bought the animal food. The dog then began to salivate at the sound of the bell, meaning it became a conditioned stimulus.

Question 45

describe Skinner's experimental research

Answer 45

Skinner tested and theorised operant conditioning, using a lab experiment, testing on rats and using a special apparatus he created called Skinner's box. This box was similar to a normal cage, with the defining factor being that it had a lever that revealed food when pushed. Skinner wanted to test whether or not and animal repeats behavior depending on whether the said behavior is reinforced or not. Skinner found that, once the rat discovered the lever led to food, it pushed it more and more often, until Skinner ran out. This showed how the food, being positive reinforcement, caused the rat to associate the behavior of pushing the lever with the positive sensation of eating (and the serotonin release that came after) so therefore caused the rat to repeat the behavior.

Question 46

describe Bandura's experimental research

Answer 46

Bandura conducted a lab experiment on children where he observed how social learning theory and imitation effected aggressive behavior. The study involved opportunity sampling and used an independent group design. In the experiment, the children were split into three groups, and every group was shown a video of an adult model behaving aggressively towards a popular kids doll (bobo doll). Each one-third group was either shown the model being rewarded, told off, or just walking away. Bandura then put each child individually in a room with a similar bobo doll and covertly observed which children showed the most aggression to the dool (the group who saw the model being rewarded). This was a follow up study, from when Bandura conducted the same method, but split the sample into two and showed half of the kids a model being-non aggressive and affectionate towards the doll. He then observed that hardly any of the children who saw their model's non aggressive behavior - rather than the children who saw their model being aggressive to the doll- behaved aggressively to the doll.

Question 47

What is an opportunity sample? What are its strengths and weaknesses?

Answer 47

An opportunity sample is a sample using the most convenient or available participant sample, i.e. the nearest group of participants who fit he criteria, or people who walk past you on the street. This is good as it is easy and takes considerably less time than other sampling methods. However, the sample is very susceptible to population bias.

Question 48

What is a Random Sample? What are its strengths and weaknesses?

Answer 48

A sample gathered either through the lottery method (drawing names out of a hat) or random number table (blindly selecting numbered participants from a table) or a random number generator. The positives of this are that it is unbiased, however it takes time as it needs to have a list of the population being tested and the selection methods can also be time consuming.

Question 49

What is a stratified Sample? What are its strengths and weaknesses?

Answer 49

When sampling, you split the population into relevant subgroups (strata) (e.g. boys or girls, or age groups) and participants are obtained from each of the different strata in proportion to their occurrence in the population. Selection from the strata is done using a random technique.

Question 50

What is a Systematic Sample? What are its strengths and weaknesses?

Answer 50

When you use a predetermined system to select participants, such as selecting every nth person from a phonebook (where n = any number). This could be considered unbiased, but also be considered not truly unbiased as it is not truly random unless you use a randomized method to select the starting number/starting participant.

Question 51

What is a Volunteer Sample? What are its strengths and weaknesses?

Answer 51

Usually advertised in a newspaper or on a noticeboard, often advertised in university campus with small compensation. Can cause volunteer bias.

Question 52

Name three types of self report techniques

Answer 52

Questionnaires, A structured interview and an unstructured interview.

Question 53

What is a structured interview?

Answer 53

A structured interview has pre-determined questions, it is essentially a questionnaire that is delivered face to face with no deviation from the original questions.

Question 54

What is an unstructured interview?

Answer 54

Similar to a structured interview, except new questions are developed during the course of the interview, as well as the pre-determined questions. These additional questions are usually developed based on the answers given by the participant.

Question 55

What are the three guiding principals when writing questions for questionnaires?

Answer 55

Clarity, Bias and Analysis (CBA 🤦‍♀️)

Question 56

What does good clarity look like in a question on a questionnaire?

Answer 56

Questions need to be easy to understand. This means not asking questions that could have two meanings, uses of double negatives and double barrelled questions (questions that ask for two separate answer in one sentence).

Question 57

What does Bias mean when referring to a good/bad question in a questionnaire?

Answer 57

A biased question might make the respondent more likely to give a particular answer. An example of specific bias that commonly occurs when answering questionnaires would be social desirability bias. This would involve the respondents giving answers in order to look more attractive, generous or generally nice, rather than being truthful. A well designed question would avoid this.

Question 58

What does analysis mean in the context of creating a good or bad question for a questionnaire?

Answer 58

Questions need to be written so that the answers are easy to analyse. For instance, closed questions can be used to make the questionnaire easier to analyse. These involve only giving a few set answers that the respondent could give to a question, rather than an open question (I.e.what do you like most about your job?), which could give different answers from each participant and therefore give results that are hard to analyse and make inferences from. However, closed questions might give answers that don't truly represent the respondents real thoughts and behavior.

Question 59

What are four important factors for writing a good questionnaire?

Answer 59

Filler questions, Sequence for the questions, Sampling Technique and Pilot Study.

Question 60

Why are filler questions important for writing a good questionnaire?

Answer 60

Filler questions can be used to include irrelevant topics to distract the respondent from the main purpose of the survey, therefore reducing the chances of demand characteristics (the Hawthorne and F.U. effect).

Question 61

Why is the sequence of questions important in making a good survey?

Answer 61

It is best, during the questionnaire, to start with the easiest, saving the questions that are more pressing, so might cause feelings anxiety or a defensive attitude until the respondent has got used to the questioning and feels more comfortable.

Question 62

Why is sampling technique important in creating a good questionnaire?

Answer 62

The sample used to select respondents, as different sub-groups, such as age and gender, could cause different results.

Question 63

How would using a pilot study help in the creation if a good questionnaire?

Answer 63

By first testing a draft questionnaire on a smaller sample group, the questions can later be refined in response to any errors or difficulties observed in the pilot study.

Question 64

What is the ethical issue of informed consent? 4 answers

Answer 64

+ Means the researchers have revealed the true aims of the study and the subject still participates. + Has drawbacks, knowing the hypothesis/aims can change the participants behavior + Considered a basic human right + Also involves researchers revealing any risks or benefits the study might cause (though these can be hard or impossible to predict)

Question 65

What is the ethical issue of deception? 4 answers

Answer 65

+ Deception can be necessary in research studies when the participant knowing all details of the experiment could change their behavior, therefore affecting the results + Considered more reasonable to withhold some of the specifics of the study rather than deliberately giving the participant false information. + Can prevent the participant from giving informed consent. +Could put people off future participation in studies or even psychologists altogether

Question 66

What is the ethical issue involving the right to withdraw? 3 answers

Answer 66

+ Meaning that Participants know they can, and sometimes do, leave the study at any time + Can caused a biased sample for those remaining in the study as they are more likely to be obedient or to conform + can be compromised by paid experiments, as participants feel it is less acceptable to withdraw.

Question 67

What is the ethical issue of protection from harm? 4 answers

Answer 67

+ More important studies tend to have higher risk of distress + Often difficult to predict any harm that may be caused, so protection can not be guaranteed. + Considered acceptable if the risk of harm is no higher than the risk of ordinary life + Also considered acceptable if the individual has been informed and agreed to the risk, or if they leave in roughly the study the same state they came in.

Question 68

What does the ethical issue of confidentiality entail? 4 answers

Answer 68

+ May be compromised if the researcher wishes to publish the findings. + Can be supported by guarantee and use of anonymity, but a smaller target group could mean that the results can still be easily tracked back to individual participants. + The Data Protection Act (DPA) makes confidentiality a legal right + Recording of personal data is only acceptable if the data is not available in a form that could identify participants.

Question 69

What does the ethical issue of privacy involve? 2 answers

Answer 69

+ Can be difficult to not invade privacy when studying participants without their awareness, i.e. in a field experiment +Normal privacy should ideally be withheld (like having privacy in your own home) t maintain mundane realism.

Question 70

How can you help to deal with issues of Informed Consent in an experiment? 3 answers

Answer 70

+Obtaining formal consent to the experiment and conformation of knowing the nature of, purpose of and their role in the experiment. + Could ask presumptive consent + Offering and exposing the right to withdraw

Question 71

What is presumptive consent?

Answer 71

When a researcher asks a group of people who are similar to a participant if they would take part in this study, after revealing the aims and conditions fully. If the answer is yes, it is presumed the participant would give consent. This is useful if the study requires deception to obtain the required results or reduce demand characteristics.

Question 72

How can a researcher deal with the ethical issue of deception in a study? 3 answers

Answer 72

+ The need for deception should be reviewed and approved by an ethics committee + Participants should be fully debriefed after the study, which involves revealing the studies true nature and allowing the participant to discuss any concerns this raises. + Participants should also be offered the option to withhold their data from the study

Question 73

How can a researcher factor in the right to withdraw in their design of a study?

Answer 73

+ Participants should be informed of this right at the start of the study

Question 74

How can researchers improve protection from harm within a study? 2 answers

Answer 74

+ Avoid any risks greater than those experienced in everyday life + Stop the study if harm is suspected

Question 75

How can researchers factor in a participants privacy in an experimental study? name one limitation to this

Answer 75

+ Not studying anyone without their consent unless it is public behavior performed in a public place (i.e. PDA in a park) + However, there is no universal agreement of what makes a public place

Question 76

What is meta-analysis?

Answer 76

A researcher looking at all the findings and results from similar studies investigating similar aims and producing a statistic to represent the overall effect/result (i.e. saying a specific weight-loss programme causes on average 30kg weight loss, based on the effect in multiple individuals)

Question 77

What is one strength of meta-analysis?

Answer 77

Can increase population validity, as the result is from a larger group of participants.

Question 78

What is an unstructured observation like? | Include example

Answer 78

When the researcher records ALL relevant information, without much specification or system. This can be problematic, as it can lead to the researcher only recording easily visible or eye-catching information. These may not be the most necessary or relevant behaviors. An example o this might be recording everything a person with anxiety disorder disorder does in a day, in order to try and analyse anxiety disorders.

Question 79

What is a structured observation like?

Answer 79

It is considered the preferable method of observation, as it uses various systems to organise observations. Two main ways to structure observations are to use Behavioral Categories and Sampling Procedures.

Question 80

What are Behavioral Categories and how are they useful?

Answer 80

helps us to compartmentalise actions into small, specific behaviors. For example, when recording a baby, instead of just observing an entire day with them, observing categories such as smiling, crying, sleeping, making fists, drooling, screaming etc. Behavioral categories should be objective and explicit enough that the observer should not have to make inferences from it, cover all possible behaviors in that situation/action and be mutually exclusive, meaning only one occurs at a time.

Question 81

What are sampling Behaviors? What are 2 examples?

Answer 81

Used in an unstructured observation, when there is too much information to record every piece of continuous data observed. Event sampling- counting the number of times a target action or behavior occurs in an individual or group. Time Sampling- Recording behaviors in a given time frame (i.e. level 2 obvs at Highfield)

Question 82

What is the difference between PET and fMRI scans?

Answer 82

PET scans give more information as it has colours. It involves putting radioactive dyes in the body, that allow different tissues to show up on camera. It costs around £2000 per brain scan. fMRI scans are similar, but only cost £500 per scan , and are less informative.

Question 83

How are Correlations useful in psychology?

Answer 83

Used to analyse two co-variables and their relationship with each other, used when it would be unethical to do an experiment and it wuld be impractical and/or impossible to control the variables.

Question 84

What is the correlation coefficient?

Answer 84

A measurement of the strength and the direction of a correlation.

Question 85

What is the figure for a Perfect negative correlation Coefficient?

Answer 85

-1.0

Question 86

What is the figure for a Negative correlation Coefficient?

Answer 86

-0.5

Question 87

What is the figure for no correlation Coefficient? (no correlation or relation)

Answer 87

0.0

Question 88

What is the figure for a Positive correlation Coefficient?

Answer 88

+0.5

Question 89

What is the figure for a Perfect correlation Coefficient?

Answer 89

+1.0

Question 90

What are two examples of direct investigator effects?

Answer 90

+ when the researcher uses extraneous or confounding variable that change the behaviors/DV of the participants + If, during observation or an interview, an investigator shows enthusiasm for specific enthusiasm or delivers questions with varying enthusiasm

Question 91

What are examples of Indirect Investigator Effects?

Answer 91

+ operationalizing variables in a way that makes the desired result more likely + limiting the duration of the study to make it easier to get the determined result + Keeping the standardised procedure not specific, leaving more room for the investigator to influence the results.

Question 92

Name two ways to reduce investigator effects

Answer 92

+The single blind design- Keeping the participant unaware of research aims + The double blind design- both participant and investigator are kept unaware of aims.

Question 93

What is a schema?

Answer 93

It is part of mediational processing. It helps us make decisions and process our surroundings, it is usually derived from past experiences.

Question 94

Name the three types of experimental design

Answer 94

Repeated measures design, independent group design and matched pairs design

Question 95

Describe independent group design

Answer 95

Participants allocated into two or more groups, one condition/IV tested on each group. Allocation usually done using random technique.

Question 96

Describe matched pairs design

Answer 96

Participants are paired up based on matching or similar key variables. One person from each pair then completes the method with a different IV/condition.

Question 97

Describe Matched Pairs Design

Answer 97

Each participant takes part in each condition sequentially.

Question 98

What are the two features of the central nervous system?

Answer 98

The brain and the Spinal Chord.

Question 99

What does the Peripheral Nervous System control?

Answer 99

It is responsible for receiving and sending sensory signals. For example emotional responses and unconscious sensory experiences such as sleeping and digestion.

Question 100

What are the two features of the Peripheral Nervous System?

Answer 100

The Somatic Nervous System and the Autonomic Nervous System.

Question 101

What are the two features of the Autonomic Nervous System?

Answer 101

The Sympathetic and the Parasympathetic Nervous System.

Question 102

Name 5 features of the Sympathetic Nervous System

Answer 102

+ Associated with fight or flight + Involves releasing Cortisol, Adrenaline and Noradrenaline + Increases Heart rate + Inhibits saliva Production (dry mouth) + Stimulates glucose production and urination

Question 103

Name 5 features of the Parasympathetic Nervous System

Answer 103

+ Associated with sleep, digestion and unconscious responses + Increases rate of digestion + Increases saliva production + Decreases Heart rate + Antagonistic with the Somatic Nervous System, meaning they can't work at the same time as they can't work at the same time.

Question 104

What is the role of Adrenaline?

Answer 104

Causes the fight or flight response, only affects muscles.

Question 105

What is the role of Noradrenaline?

Answer 105

Causes concentration, also released in fight or flight (like before an exam), main difference from adrenaline being that it affects the brain and not muscles.

Question 106

What is the role of Gaba?

Answer 106

Neurotransmitter responsible for calming brain function and emotion. Does this by cutting of neurons, it is the neurotransmitter that benzodiazepines triggers to relieve stress and anxiety.

Question 107

What is the role of Acetylcholine?

Answer 107

The learning neurotransmitter, it stimulates new growth in the brain. Often too high in people with ADHD.

Question 108

What is the role of Glutamate?

Answer 108

The neurotransmitter responsible for memory. Often released with dopamine to create happy memories.

Question 109

What is the role of Endorphins?

Answer 109

Creates a feeling of euphoria, also reduces perception of pain. Often released during exercise.

Question 110

What are the neurotransmitter imbalances associated with Parkinson's disorder?

Answer 110

Very low dopamine levels.

Question 111

What are the neurotransmitter imbalances associated with Anxiety disorders?

Answer 111

Overly high noradrenaline and dopamine, with uncontrolled or low serotonin. Often similar to the imbalances characterised in major depression.

Question 112

What are the neurotransmitter imbalances associated with Aggression (IED)?

Answer 112

Low serotonin and GABA (characterising a stressed and overactive brain), with high cortisol and dopamine causing a lot of fight or flight and panic. Very similar with the imbalances in those with schizophrenia, often why people with schizophrenia show signs of are more susceptible to, or are associated with aggression.

Question 113

Name 5 hormones released by the pituitary gland and their functions

Answer 113

+ Vasopressin- responsible for water retention, often causes the stimulation of urination during fight or flight response + Gonadotropin- aids the growth of hair and the production of milk in lactating mothers. + Oxytocin- responsible for orgasm, attachment, infatuation and parental bonding. + Melanin- aids tanning and complexion + Cortisol- responsible for stress.

Question 114

What are the two parts of the adrenal gland?

Answer 114

The Adrenal Cortex and the Adrenal Medulla

Question 115

What is the role of the Adrenal Cortex?

Answer 115

It is necessary to live, it triggers the release of cortisol and aldosterone.

Question 116

What is the role of the Adrenal Cortex?

Answer 116

It is necessary to live, it triggers the release of cortisol and aldosterone.

Question 117

What is the role of the Aldosterone?

Answer 117

Regulates sodium absorption, therefore regulating salt and water levels. It is considered a steroid, so therefore can be converted into other steroids, such as Progesterone and Testosterone.

Question 118

What is the role of the Adrenal Medulla?

Answer 118

It is not technically necessary to live. it releases adrenaline and noradrenaline, meaning it controls triggering the fight or flight symptoms.

Question 119

Where is the Adrenal Gland located in the body?

Answer 119

Just above the kidneys.

Question 120

What emotional response is triggered by progesterone?

Answer 120

Causes feelings of stress and feelings of threat ( main cause of Premenstrual stress, as that is when progesterone is at its highest).

Question 121

What emotional response is triggered by Oestrogen?

Answer 121

Causes relaxation and helps production of collagen (often improves complexion).

Question 122

What emotional response is triggered by Testosterone?

Answer 122

Causes male characteristics ( whatever the fuck those are), sex drive, work drive, muscle growth. Can be associated with aggression or pugnaciousness.

Question 123

What are the three most important types of neuron?

Answer 123

Sensory, motor and relay neurons

Question 124

What are 5 features of a Motor Neuron?

Answer 124

- They are part of the Somatic Nervous System (conscious response) - form synapses with muscles - when viewed during a dissection, they are part of the pink tissue in the brain ( part of the grey matter) - Controls muscular contractions (as of the synapses it forms) by releasing certain neuro transmitters (such as nor adrenaline) - Muscle relaxation is cause by the inhibition of this neuron

Question 125

What are 5 main features of Sensory Neurons ?

Answer 125

- carry nerve impulses from sensory receptors (e.g. receptors for vision, taste, touch, smell) - carry impulses from sensory receptors to the brain and spinal chord (the central nervous system) - Sensory receptors are found all over the body, like in eyes, ears, tongue and skin, so sensory neurons travel all round the body - Also found in the grey matter (the tissue that looks pink in a dissected brain)

Question 126

What are 5 features of a Relay Neuron?

Answer 126

* They are mostly found in the spinal chord * they are characterised for transmitting information * They help sensory and motor neuron communicate with each other * They are part of the white, spindly tissue we see in a dissected brain. * they are part of the autonomic (non conscious) nervous system

Question 127

What is action potential and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

Answer 127

Action potential is the electrical signal that moves through nerves. It can be detected in an MRI scan. At the synapse, action potential is transmitted into neurotransmitters.

Question 128

What is a vesicle and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

Answer 128

A vesicle is a bubble like feature carries neurotransmitters and signals through the synapse. Specifically, it encased the neurotransmitters when they are travelling through the postsymaptic cell, but releases the neurotransmitter when it meets the cell membrane before the synaptic gap, as both the vesicles and the membrane are made of similar fats, so they amalgamate and break down the vesicle during contact.

Question 129

What are the Neurotransmitters and what is their role in synaptic transmission?

Answer 129

Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic gap to bind to the receptors and create a response.

Question 130

What is the synaptic gap and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

Answer 130

The synaptic gap is the gap between the pre synaptic cell and the post synaptic cell. It is what neurotransmitters diffuse across. They can release multiple neurotransmitters, and is the feature in synaptic transmission, that turns active potential into neurotransmitters

Question 131

What is a receptor and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

Answer 131

Receptors are found in the post synaptic cell, after the synaptic gap. They are what receptors diffuse to in the reaction. They are where the neurotransmitters are interpreted, and are used to decide how the neurons react (if there is a physical, mental or other response - what neurons are released). They are also important, as they help decide if a excitatory response or inhibitory response is produced via summation. It does this as all receptors are neutral, but will change to have a positive or negative charge, depending on whether they recieve an excitatory or inhibitory response.

Question 132

What are post synaptic potentials and what are the two types?

Answer 132

Like active potential, but occurs after the synapse and causes a response by causing a neuron to send a signal to the brain, which usually creates a response. It can either be excitatory or inhibitory.

Question 133

What are excitatory neurotransmitters?

Answer 133

They cause an active response, or a response that encourages a reaction/behavior, rather than reducing it. Examples would be Noradrenaline, adrenaline and acetylcholine. These trigger learning (via new tissue growth in the brain) and fight-or-flight fear responses.

Question 134

What are inhibitory neurotransmitters (give two examples).

Answer 134

These neurotransmitters decrease the likelihood of electrical impulses (post synaptic responses) firing, so they often calm/slow down brain function. They also often stop a reaction or behavior. Examples of this would be GABA or serotonin (GABA is found in benzodiazepines and slow nearly all brain functions, and serotonin causes us to feel relaxed and happy)

Question 135

How does summation determine whether a post synaptic potential is positive or negative?

Answer 135

Receptors are neutral, but take in a positive or negative charge if they are effected by a excitatory or inhibitory neurotransmitter. The sum of these receptors controls the response , I.e. if there are more positive receptors the post synaptic potential and response will be excitatory and if there are more negative receptors the post synaptic potential will be inhibitory.

Question 136

What is the role of dendrites in a neuron?

Answer 136

They recieve signals from other neurons or sensory receptors and then relay impulses to the rest of the neuron. They are connected to the cell body.

Question 137

What role does the cell body have in a neuron?

Answer 137

The cell body is the control centre of the neuron, it is where the neurons are received before they are projected along the axons.

Question 138

What role does the myelin sheath play in a neuron?

Answer 138

The myelin sheath encases the axons that are carrying the impulses. It insulates the axons as they are made of fats. They are wrapped around the axons in small sections called schwann's cells. The break down of the myelin sheath can cause neurological diseases such as Multiple sclerosis.

Question 139

What role do nodes (of ranviers) play in neurons?

Answer 139

They are the parts of the axons that stick out from between the schwann's cells. These are what new cell bodies in neuron cells are grown from.

Question 140

What are terminals in a neuron?

Answer 140

What the impulses are related to via the axon.

Question 141

What is positive reinforcement?

Answer 141

when the person is presented with a motivating/reinforcing stimulus after the desired behavior is completed. Giving your child £1 if they get a good school report.

Question 142

What is negative reinforcement?

Answer 142

When an unpleasant (aversive) stimulus is removed after a behavior is exhibited, encouraging the person to repeat the behavior. for example, a boy doing the dishes so his mother doesn't shout at him.

Question 143

What is positive punishment?

Answer 143

When an unpleasant/aversive consequence is presented when an undesired consequence is completed. for example, if someone touches a hot stove and feels pain.

Question 144

What is Negative Punishment?

Answer 144

When a certain reinforcing stimulus is removed after an undesired behavior. A child acts out, and their favourite toy is taken away.

Question 145

What are the three types conformity?

Answer 145

conformity, internalisation and identification

Question 146

What are 5 features of Compliance?

Answer 146

* It was identified by Kelman in 1958 * characterised by the individual copying the behavior, despite disagreeing with the basis of said behavior * often seen in cases of peer pressure/totalitarian or dictatorship countries * there is no change in the individual's internal/private attitude or personality, they just imitate the behavior * compliance is only really expressed in public, or while in a group

Question 147

Name 5 features of Identification conformity

Answer 147

* discovered by Kelman in 1958 * the individual does not originally agree with the behavior, but is later convinced/cajoled into agreeing with the basis of the behavior by another person/informant * the person therefore completes their behavior from their own will, but only after being convinced to change their mindset * often the cause if conformity is that the person conforms to feel part of a group, derived by a desire to fit in * An example could be a kid starting smoking to fit in with the smokers, or someone becoming a jehovah's witness after being door-to-door visited.

Question 148

What are 5 features of internalisation?

Answer 148

* discovered by Kelman in 1958 * it involves copying a behavior as it fits your internalised, subconscious or conscientious viewpoint * relies on having matching views as others who express this through certain behaviours, so therefore completing similar behaviours as you have similar views * you usually agree with the behavior (I.e., the behavior does not seem immoral or unjust to you) * an example would be political campaigns, such as the climate strike

Question 149

What is conformity?

Answer 149

Conformity is a type of social influence where beliefs and/or behaviours of an individual change to fit with a group. This is usually down to pressure from the group, though group pressure can be real or imagined.

Question 150

What are the two types of social influence?

Answer 150

Normative social influence and informational social influence.

Question 151

What is normative social influence?

Answer 151

An influence that causes you to conform ad you wish to be more normal/fit in or be correct. It is often driven by a need for social companionship and a fear of rejection. In order for this to occur, the individual must feel like they are being watched or closely surveyed by the group (expressed public behavior). Compliance is usually caused by Normative Social Influence.

Question 152

What is informational social influence?

Answer 152

Causes a person to conform to carrying out a behavior, but only after they have been given informational evidence that this behavior is best. It is often driven by a desire to be validated and have your beliefs be correct. Internalisation is an example of informational social influence, as -even though your beliefs and views are never opposed to the behavior- you have to be convinced to complete the behavior with relevant information.

Question 153

How did Sherif study conformity? (Give method)

Answer 153

* (in a small sample) Sherif told the participants he was testing on that he was studying auto kinetic effect *the idea that if you stare at something for long enough, it will appear to be moving* * participants were told a light would travel and that they should guess how far it travelled * They were then placed in a dark room and observed the said light * they then stated their estimates in groups of 3. Sherif found that the third participant always estimated the distance between the first and third participants.

Question 154

What was the purpose of Asch's experiment?

Answer 154

Designed to show that people do not make their own decisions (debunking the idea of free will).

Question 155

Give a basic outline of the method in Asch's experiment.

Answer 155

* (of a sample) participants all sit together in one room * each participant reports, in turn, out of three different length lines, which is closest in length to another line given, that they call the standard line. * only one of the men was a real participant, the rest were confederates * the confederates all deliberately gave wrong/verifying answers. * Asch then recorded how many participants changed their answer in order to conform.

Question 156

Give a basic outline of the results in Asch's experiment.

Answer 156

After all his fellow "participants" gave their false answers, 75% of participants gave the wrong answer to conform at least once, and a third of people gave the wrong answer/copied the confederates' answers for the entire experiment. Asch believed that this was an example of if compliance due to normative social influence.

Question 157

How big was the sample used in Asch's experiment?

Answer 157

The sample consisted of 123 Male US undergraduates, which were split into smaller groups for testing.

Question 158

What is autonomous state in relation to Situational expectations of obedience?

Answer 158

The state you are in when your actions are under your own control, you are in this state in normal everyday freedom.

Question 159

What is agentic state in relation to Situational expectations of obedience?

Answer 159

The state you are in when you have deferred responsibility to someone else (i.e. following orders)

Question 160

What is agentic shift in relation to Situational expectations of obedience?

Answer 160

The point at which you lose sense of responsibility (i.e. the point at which you submit to following orders).

Question 161

What is legitimacy of Authority in relation to Situational expectations of obedience?

Answer 161

Whether or not a person giving orders has features associated with authority that make us obey them.

Question 162

What was the hypothesis of Milgram's experiment?

Answer 162

Good natured, everyday civilians are just as likely as anyone else to perform harmful acts, as long as they are told to by a position of authority (when they are in an Agentic State)

Question 163

What was the operationalised hypothesis of Milgram's experiment?

Answer 163

Whether or not people will deliver harmful or even lethal electric shocks to another person, if they are told to do so by a person in a position of authority

Question 164

How many participants were there in Milgram's first experiment?

Answer 164

40 participants

Question 165

How many confederates were there in each participant's individual test in the Milgram experiment?

Answer 165

There were 2 confederates in every condition- an "experimenter" ( a person in a white coat who ordered the participant to administer the electric shocks) and the "participant" who was assigned the role of learner, so therefore answered questions and pretended to receive painful shocks over loudspeaker through vocal acting.

Question 166

In Milgram's experiment, what was the ACTUAL participant asked to do?

Answer 166

The participant was asked to ask a fellow participant (who was actually a confederate) a series of questioned over a telephone line, and to shock them if they got the answer wrong. The number of volts increased as the participant continued to ask questions, until the participant was being asked to deliver a lethal dose (and by 300 volts, the confederate would usually verbally object and request for the participant to cease the shocks.)

Question 167

What were Milgram's findings?

Answer 167

65% of the 40 participants (26) continued to deliver shocks to the "learner" until they reached the maximum voltage, 450 volts. Only 5 participants stopped at 300 volts, when the confederate would have pretended to object and request the participant to stop the shocks.

Question 168

What 3 situational factors did Milgram find to affect obedience?

Answer 168

Proximity, Location and The power of uniform

Question 169

How did Milgram modify his original study to observe the effects of proximity on the results?

Answer 169

The study was repeated with a similar manner, but the learner and the teacher were in the same room. Obedience levels were 30% less than the study before (now only 35% obeyed)

Question 170

How did Milgram FURTHER modify his original study to observe the effects of proximity on the results, to this time involve direct contact?

Answer 170

The study was repeated, but this time the participant had to hold the confederate's hand to a "shock plate", and obedience therefore dropped to only 30% of people obeying.

Question 171

How did Milgram EVEN FURTHER modify his original study to observe the effects of proximity on the results, to this time involve authority absence?

Answer 171

The study was repeated, but the experimenter confederate giving the order to shock the learner over the phone. This study resulted in the majority defying obedience, with only 21% of participants delivering the maximum shock.

Question 172

How did Milgram reshape his study to target the limiting factor of location?

Answer 172

The study was originally located in Yale University, which apparently gave participants the idea that the shocks couldn't be real and/or harmful, or that the study must have been legitimate, which would have increased levels of obedience. Milgram therefore repeated the experiment in a less trusted/prestiegeous location (a ran down office far away from the university). Though obedience levels dropped slightly, 48% of participants still administered the maximum 450 v shock.

Question 173

How does uniform affect obedience to orders? Briefly outline one study that proves this

Answer 173

Uniforms have been shown to associated with power and authority, so a person wearing a uniform may see to have more legitimacy of authority, so a uniform could increase the chances of obedience. An example of this would be Bushman's study in 1988, when a confederate dressed in many different uniforms stopped random stranger on the street and asked them for change. When the confederate was in uniform, 72% obeyed, when dressed as a beggar 52% obeyed, and when dressed as a business executive, 48% obeyed.

Question 174

What historical event inspired Mirams study into situational explanations of Obedience?

Answer 174

Milgram was inspired by the media's televising of the trials of some German Leaders involved in WW2, specifically a man named Eichman, who was partly responsible for the idea/use of death camps for jews in Auschwitz and Birkenau. Eichman, claimed that the soldiers were "Just following orders" and "didn't understand what they were doing". Many of the British public believed that Germans were evil, but Milgram believed they were just subject to unfortunate circumstance and situational pressure, hence the study.

Question 175

What did Adorno's study into Authoritarian personality entail?

Answer 175

In 1950, adorno created a questionnaire known as the F scale, which he used to measure whether you likely have an authoritarian personality. Adorno believed authoritarian personality was a result of learned behavior and imitating strict parents, so many of the questions focused on this.

Question 176

What did Altemeyer's study into Authoritarian personality entail?

Answer 176

In 1981, Altmeyer reduced personality traits to 3 "clusters" : Conventionalism, Authoritarian Aggression and Authoritarian Submission. He also repeated Milgrams experiment, but asked the participant to shock themselves at the end of the experiment, and found that 80% obeyed.

Question 177

What does a personality showing conventionalism suggest?

Answer 177

It suggests a fear of change, a belief in a rigid status quo, and a dislike of divergence

Question 178

What does a personality showing Authoritarian Aggression suggest?

Answer 178

Authoritarian aggression would suggest a fear of outsiders, foreign things or unfamiliarity. For example, Donald Trump shows an Authoritarian Aggression.

Question 179

What does a personality showing Authoritarian Submission suggest?

Answer 179

Authoritarian Submission suggests a fear of punishment, so would cause a person to obey orders just to avoid repercussions.

Question 180

What was the hypothesis of the KEY study by Elms and Milgram in 1966?

Answer 180

They tried to decipher whether participants high in authoritarianism were more likely to obey an authority figure. It also wanted to test how much of obedience was situational or dispositional.

Question 181

Why was Milgram's 1963 study imperative to the design of Elms and Milgram's 1966 experiment?

Answer 181

The 1966 study used people who had participated in Milgram's first study, using twenty who had obeyed twenty participants who had defied the "orders".

Question 182

What criticism of Milgram's 1963 experiment inspired the Elms and Milgram experiment of 1966?

Answer 182

Many people believed that obedience was not just down to situational influence, as the first study had suggested, but was also influenced by dispositional factors, such as psychopathy, or an authoritarian personality.

Question 183

Describe the method of the Elms and Milgram experiment in 1966

Answer 183

After 20 obedient and 20 defiant participant from Milgram's previous study were selected, each participant was tested for authoritarianism, using the MMPI scale and Adorno's F scale, as well as an open-questioned questionnaire.

Question 184

Briefly describe the findings of the Elms and Milgram experiment in 1966

Answer 184

higher levels of authoritarianism were found in participant who had obeyed in the 1963 study. The recurring differences found between obedient and defiant participants (as shown through the questionnaire, F scale and MMPI scale) was that obedient participants (participants who delivered maximum shock) found the "researcher "more admirable than the "learner", as they had higher authority, while the defiant participants found the learner to be more admirable.

Question 185

What sort of information is stored in the Short Term Memory and how does it get logged there?

Answer 185

Short Term Memory stores memories that we recall straight away (or within a minute- 18 seconds usually). We process it through rehearsal (repeating the thought over and over).

Question 186

What is acoustic coding?

Answer 186

when, during rehearsal, inputs are associated with each other through repeated sounds, rhythms and sounds i.e. we associate the memories with sound sequences and repetition/similar sizes, but the associations don't tend to have meanings. For instance, if you remember a sequence of words (CAD,CAM,MAC,MAM) because they look the same or are the same size.

Question 187

Name a study that makes the link between Acoustic Coding and Short Term Memory.

Answer 187

Baddeley's Study

Question 188

Describe the method of Baddeley's experiment

Answer 188

Baddeley used memorising word lists to test how different codings are used in short and long term memory. The word lists either had the word associated via acoustic coding or semantic coding (i.e. just sounding the same or having similar meanings).

Question 189

Describe the findings of Baddeley's study

Answer 189

That STM is largely coded acoustically, while LTM is largely coded semantically.

Question 190

How does long term memory relate to short term memory?

Answer 190

Information is only stored in short term memory after it is stored in long term memory. The memory is rehearsed through elaborative rehearsal, so it can be semantically coded and retained permanently.

Question 191

What sort of Coding is used in long term memory?

Answer 191

The coding in long term memory must be semantic, meaning it has to be converted from the acoustic coding in short term memory through specific types of rehearsal.

Question 192

What was Miller's 1956 theory linking memory and numbers?

Answer 192

Miller wrote the theory of the magic number. This could be formulated as 7+/- 2. He concluded that immediate memory could remember only 5 to 9 items (7+ or 7- 2). This theory is now used a lot, for instance in the days of the week and the number of notes in musical scales.

Question 193

What is one other approach/theory of Millers?

Answer 193

the theory of chunking. Tis suggests that we can remember more if we break information down into 5-9. This relates to Miller's 1956 number theory. In this way, we can remember 5-9 words just as easily as remembering 5-9 letters.

Question 194

Describe the method of one study related to the Capacity of Short term memory

Answer 194

Jacob's Digit Span Test (1887)- The researcher recited a number of digits and participants had to recall the digits in the same order. The researcher would then increase the sequence by one digit and the participant had to recall the numbers again. The participant kept doing this until until the participant recalled the digits incorrectly.

Question 195

What were the findings of Jacob's study and how does this relate to the capacity of Short term memory?

Answer 195

- Eight year old children could recall on average 6.6 digits - 19 year olds could recall on average 8.6 digits The mean in all participants for recalling items is 9.3, whereas the mean for recalling numbers is 7.3. Not only did this support Miller's number theory, but it showed that short term memory is very limited, and that it's capacity can increase with age.

Question 196

Describe the method of one study related to the Duration of Short term memory

Answer 196

Peterson and Peterson (1959) measured the duration of 24 student's short term memory. Each participant was tested over eight trials. In each trial, the the participant was given a consonant syllable and a 3 digit number to remember Participants were then asked to recall the figure either after 3,6,9,12,15 or 18 seconds.

Question 197

What were the findings of Peterson and Peterson's 1959 study?

Answer 197

``` On average: After 3 seconds: 90% were correct After 9 seconds: 20% were correct After 18 seconds: 2% were correct this suggests that Short Term memory has a very short duration (18 seconds), especially if verbal rehearsal is prevented. ```

Question 198

What is the method of one study related to the Duration of Long term memory

Answer 198

Barhick's 1975 study tested 400 people ages 17-74 on their memories of their university classmates. He used two tests: A photo recognition test of 50 photos and a free recall test. In the photo test, participants were shown 50 photos of their classmates and asked to identify the people in the photos. In the free recall test, participants were asked to remember and recite any names they could remember from their graduating class

Question 199

What were the findings of Peterson and Peterson's 1959 study and what did they show about the duration of Long Term Memory?

Answer 199

Participants tested within 15 years of graduating identified 90% of the people in the photos accurately, whereas people who graduated up to 48 years ago, only identified 70% of the photos accurately. In the free recall test, those who had graduated within 15 years were 60% accurate, whereas those who had graduated within 48 years were 30% accurate.

Question 200

Describe the Multi Store Model in a flow chart

Answer 200

Environmental stimuli →→→→Sensory Memory/Immediate Memory →→→→attention must then be focused on the specific memory in order for it to be put into the... →→→→ Short Term Memory →→→→ this must then be processed using Maintenance Rehearsal to make sure it doesn't become displaced or forgotten →→→→This must then be processed using elaborative rehearsal in order for it to be semantically coded to fit in the... →→→→Long Term Memory. This can then be retrieved, but every time the memory is retrieved and then sent back to the LTM using elaborative rehearsal, it brings new information with it and distorts/changes the memory.

Question 201

How can Decay occur during Sensory Memory?

Answer 201

We experience a ton of environmental stimuli everyday, but if you pay attention to a stimuli/ memory in the sensory memory it can then be processed into the Short Term Memory and retained. If it is not focused on, or given attention, it can decay and not be registered (like how you probably don't remember what colour the first car you saw today was)

Question 202

How can someone forget something due to the Short term Memory?

Answer 202

In the short term memory, a memory needs to be rehearsed in order to be stored. If the memory is not rehearsed or repeated, it will be forgotten.

Question 203

How can a memory be displaced?

Answer 203

if too much information is given, to the point that you forget older memories to make space for new ones, this is called displacement.

Question 204

Describe the findings of Sperling's 1960 study

Answer 204

Sensory Memory can not hold information for very long as information decays rapidly in the energy store without attention.

Question 205

What is the Serial Position Effect comprised of?

Answer 205

The primary effect and the recency effect

Question 206

What is the primary effect?

Answer 206

The tendency for people to remember something at the beginning of a list or experience.This could be because of these items being rehearsed more.

Question 207

What is the Recency effect?

Answer 207

The tendency for people to remember the last five items in a list or experience. This is because these items and memories have been inputted too recently for them to have decayed yet.

Question 208

How does Serial Position effect explain displacement?

Answer 208

Items in the middle of a list/experience are more likely to be displaced than at the start or the end of the list/experience.

Question 209

What is one study that showed Serial Position effect? (briefly outline the method)

Answer 209

Glanzer and Canitz (1966) Participants were shown 20 words, one word at a time, and were then asked to recall any words they remembered after the short duration while shown the words. The most commonly remembered words were at the start and the end of the list.

Question 210

Why was Scoville an idiot?

Answer 210

He did not realise that the hippocampus controlled memory and not epilepsy.

Question 211

What are the three types of long term memory that people inferred from Henry Molaison's case?

Answer 211

Episodic, Semantic and Procedural.

Question 212

What are Episodic memories?

Answer 212

It stores narrative consciousness, i.e. the memory can be told in a story/narrative. These memories are controlled by the hippocampus.

Question 213

What are Semantic memories?

Answer 213

These are factual memories, e.g. memories that memories that everyone experiences similarly, for example place names.

Question 214

What are Procedral memories?

Answer 214

These are unconscious physical memories (i.e. writing or cycling). They are controlled by the cerebellum.

Question 215

Who was Henry Molaison (HM)?

Answer 215

He was a famous case study in the history of memory, as he had an unusual and tragic life. He was in a car accident when he was younger, and later discovered that he had contracted epilepsy. He was neglected by his family because of this, so tried to get an experimental surgery to remove his hippocampus in an attempt to help the epilepsy. However, he seemed to lose his short term memory, but not his long term memory, and could still recall things we assume we would not be able to remember without our short term memory. Therefore, he helped to debunk the Multi-Store Model.

Question 216

What was the aim of the Baddely and Hitch study (1974)?

Answer 216

To prove the memory that memory is formed not just in one store, but in a number of different stores.

Question 217

What were the findings of Baddely and Hitch's 1974 study?

Answer 217

the researchers found that do two similar memory tasks (i.e. two visual tasks) at the same time, you do not perform as well as if you do them separately. However, if you do the visual memory task whilst doing a verbal task, there is no interference, and the results are just as good as if you did them separately. This proves that short term memory is made up of more than one component.

Question 218

How does the Working Memory model differ to the multi-store model?

Answer 218

The main components (sensory memory traveling to the STM through attention, being rehearsed and then being stored in the Long term memory), The Short Term memory is stored in 4 different sections.

Question 219

What are the four different subdivisions of the Short Term memory in the working memory model?

Answer 219

The central executive, the phonological loop, the episodic buffer, the visuo-spatial sketchpad.

Question 220

What is the function of the Central Executive?

Answer 220

The CE reviews data from the senses, but it can't hold it for long, as it has a limited capacity. It determines how how resources/information from the slave systems (all the other subdivisions). It coordinates all of these elements into your memories, like an executive producer of a film.

Question 221

What is the function of the Phonological Loop? | What are it's two subsections job?

Answer 221

It deals with auditory information and remembers word order- it is often called the inner ear. It can be divided into the phonological store and the auditory process. The phonological store holds the words we hear whereas the articulatory process is used for words that are heard or seen, and silently rehearsing them within our mind so they can be processed as memories.

Question 222

What is the function of the visuo-spatial sketchpad?

Answer 222

It is were visual and spatial information is stored. it is used when you have to carry out a spatial task (i.e. traveling from one room to another, or counting the windows in a building),as it stores visual info (what things look like) and spatial info (the relationship between things).

Question 223

Describe some findings of Logle's 1995 study that determined that the visuo-spatial sketchpad has two sections

Answer 223

Logle found that VSS can be divided into: A visual cache which stores information about visual information e.g. shape and colour and an inner scribe, which the arrangements of objects in your vision and the relationship between objects.

Question 224

What is the function of the Episodic Buffer?

Answer 224

The general store of the model, where the information is collected before it gets stored in the LTM. It holds information relating to both visual and auditory information. The Episodic Buffer records information from the other three regions of the STM, as well as recording a sense of time sequencing , basically recording events in a story-like episodic manner. However, it has a limited capacity.

Question 225

What is word length effect?

Answer 225

The phonological store can only hold the amount of information that you can say in 1.5-2 seconds. However, this disappears if a person is given an articulatory suppression task (E.g. repeatedly saying a word like "bill, bill, bill" while reading the list).

Question 226

How does Word Length Effect support the theory of the Working Memory Model?

Answer 226

The fact that word length effect does not apply when accompanied by an articulatory suppression task shows that there are at least two separate processes in remembering words

Question 227

What are the two opposing views relating to anxiety effecting memory, and what studies correspond to these views.

Answer 227

The view that Anxiety helps create strong memories (supported by Christian and Hubinette 1993), and the view that anxiety makes memory formation worse (Johnson and Scott 1976).

Question 228

What was the aim of Christianson and Hubinettes' 1993 study?

Answer 228

To investigate the effects of anxiety on eyewitness recall.

Question 229

``` Describe the method of Christianson and Hubinettes' 1993 study, include: Participants Duration/timing of experiment Independant variables Dependant Variables ```

Answer 229

Asked 58 eyewitnesses to recall their memory of a real bank robbery 4-15 months after the incident. in the first independent variable, participants had the role of the victim (the bank teller) and the second independent variable had the participants who were customer bystanders. The dependant variable was to what extent the details given by the eye witness testimony matched the CCTV footage of the event.

Question 230

What were the findings from Christianson and Hubinettes' 1993 study?

Answer 230

All of the eyewitness victims (bank tellers) had above 75% average accuracy in their testimony (while under the anxiety of being robbed). Therefore, participants reporting more anxiety had overall better recall.

Question 231

What was the conclusion of Christianson and Hubinettes' 1993 study?

Answer 231

That Semantic and Episodic Memory is better wen anxious.

Question 232

What was the aim of Johnson and Scott's 1976 experiment?

Answer 232

To investigate the effect of anxiety on eyewitness recall.

Question 233

What were the independent variable and dependent variable of Johnson and Scott's 1976 experiment?

Answer 233

Both conditions witnessed a public argument between two confederates, but in the first independent variable, the witnesses saw the confederates holding a greasy pen, whereas in the other variable, the confederates were holding a bloody knife. The dependant variable was how accurately the witness identified the person holding the instrument (aggressor) some time after the argument.

Question 234

What were the findings of Johnson and Scott's 1976 experiment?

Answer 234

People who witnessed the confederate holding a pen had 49% accuracy when identifying the aggressor, while those who witnessed the aggressor holding the bloody knife had 33% accuracy identifying them.

Question 235

What was the conclusion of Johnson and Scott's 1976 experiment?

Answer 235

Though it was expected that the heightened of witnessing the aggressor holding a bloody knife would better memory cognition, weapon focus effect caused these participants to have lower accuracy in their identification.

Question 236

According to the Yerkes-Dodson curve, how are anxiety levels and quality of performance related?

Answer 236

They are proportional in a curve- meaning that quality of performance increases with stress up to a certain point, ater which quality of performance decreases with stress.

Question 237

According to the Yerkes-Dodson curve, what are the different levels of anxiety?

Answer 237

(from low to high) Sleep, Boredom, mild alertness, optimal level, stress, anxiety, panic.

Question 238

What is the mnemonic you use for the the levels of anxiety in the Yerkes-Dodson curve?

Answer 238

Slippery Barnacles Make Awesome Octopus Lozenges, Soothes Agitated Parts.

Question 239

How does the Yerkes-Dodson curve differ from the Catastrophe Theory of anxiety?

Answer 239

In catastrophe theory, after a certain point of anxiety are performance level plateaus and we are unable to function, rather than having a gradual, curved decline.

Question 240

What is one reason why post-event recall and discussion might not be completely accurate?

Answer 240

When asked to recall the memory, the questionee will have to reconstruct the memory in their mind. However, each recall will involve the memory being processed between long term memory and short term memory, and each recall will distort the original memory because of new information/environment being involved during rehearsal.

Question 241

What was the aim of Loftus and Palmer (1974)?

Answer 241

To test if the language used (in the leading questions) during eyewitness testimony can alter the memory of an event.

Question 242

What was the specifics in the method of Loftus and Palmer (1974)? (Experimental type, Experimental design, Independent Variable and Dependant Variable)

Answer 242

The study was a laboratory experiment, using independent group design. In the two conditions they used different versions of the independent variable, which was what verb was used to describe a car crash (e.g. hit, collided, bumped, smashed) when questioning participants on the event. The dependant variable was what speed the participants estimated the car to have been travelling in hindsight.

Question 243

What was the procedure used for Loftus and Palmer (1974)?

Answer 243

The experiment involved 45 students. They all watched 7 film clips of car accidents. These students were then asked questions about these videos after being split into 5 groups of 9 students. Each group was asked a question testing different IVs (e.g. "how fast were the cars travelling when they HIT each other?" for one group, and "how fast were the cars travelling when they BUMPED each other?" for another group.

Question 244

What were the results for Loftus and Palmer (1974)?

Answer 244

Verb Mean Speed Estimated Contracted 31.8mph Hit 34.0mph Bumped 38.1mph Collided 39.3mph Smashed 40.8mph

Question 245

Name a study that demonstrates how environmental, cultural or circumstantial factors can affect eyewitness testimony.

Answer 245

Allport and Postman 1947. After reading a report of a mugging on a local subway, participants were asked to identify the criminal described in the report. Most participants reported the participant to be black, despite no specification of race. This was due to 1940s conventions in culture and racism.

Question 246

What part of the brain processes threat?

Answer 246

The amygdala- It uses sensory stimulus to trigger fear and/or anger.

Question 247

How does the amygdala trigger fight or flight response (mention the receptor centre used and the nervous system used).

Answer 247

The amygdala, when we are under threat, will send a distress signal to the hypothalamus. This will then communicate with the rest of the body and cause physical responses using the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 248

What are the two forms of stressors?

Answer 248

Acute stressors- sudden and not long-lasting, such as a robbery or violent attacker Chronic Stressors- ongoing stress, like financial issues, or a stressful profession

Question 249

What are three features of a response to an acute stressor? (two nervous systems and one neurotransmitter)

Answer 249

The Sympathetic Nervous system- signals for the releasing of...... Adrenaline- causes the heart to beat faster, blood pressure to increase, more rapid breathing, release of glucose. The Parasympathetic nervous system- Part of the Autonomic nervous system. Placates the previous response. Causes heart rate to slow back to normal, reduce blood pressure back to normal and restart digestion.

Question 250

What are the three types of long-term memory?

Answer 250

episodic, Semantic and Procedural.

Question 251

What is an episodic memory?

Answer 251

A memory that entails the specific details of an event, teh context of the event and the emotion in the event. The event is usually remembered as occuring as part of a larger sequence, i.e. your first day in school.

Question 252

What is a semantic memory?

Answer 252

Semantic memories are memories that are shared by everyone who experiences an event (e.g. not a memory only one person would experience), for example, what the capital of England.

Question 253

What is a procedural memory? | And how is it different to semantic and episodic memory

Answer 253

Memories relating to life skills, such as knowing how to tie your shoelaces, or ride a bike. These skills/memories are typically acquired using skills and practice. These are implicit memories, so we are less aware of them as they have become automatic (unlike semantic and episodic memories). When we try and focus on a procedural task, we often can't complete, as it stops the automatic process.

Question 254

What region of the brain is Episodic memory associated with?

Answer 254

The Hippocampus and the temporal lobe.

Question 255

What region of the brain is Semantic memory associated with?

Answer 255

The Temporal lobe

Question 256

What region of the brain is Procedural memory associated with?

Answer 256

The cerebellum, the Basal Ganglia and the limbic system.

Question 257

What is Interference (forgetting) ?

Answer 257

An explanation for forgetting in terms of one memory disrupting the ability to recall another. This is most likely to occur when the two memories have some similarity.

Question 258

What is Proactive Interference?

Answer 258

A type of interference used in the explanation for forgetting. It is when past learning interferes with current attempts to learn something (i.e. trying to learn flashcards after you've already learned 150).

Question 259

What is Retroactive Interference?

Answer 259

A type of interference used in the explanation for forgetting. It is when current attempts to learn something interfere with past learnings (I.e. memorizing a song, and then someone plays a different song immediately after you have learnt the original song).

Question 260

Name one study that proved/Supported Retroactive Interference theory

Answer 260

Muller and Pilzecker, 1900.

Question 261

Briefly outline The case study of Muller and Pilzecker (1900)

Answer 261

They gave participants a list of nonsense syllables to learn for 6 minutes and then, after a retention interval, asked participants to recall the list. They also repeated this, but gave the second group of participants a separate task during the retention interval between initial learning and recall (they were shown and asked to describe paintings). These participants (the second group), did not recall the syllables as well.

Question 262

Name one study that proved/Supported Proactive Interference theory

Answer 262

Benton Underwood (1957)

Question 263

Briefly outline the findings of The case study of Benton Underwood (1957)

Answer 263

He analysed findings from a number of studies and concluded that when participants have to learn a series of words from a word list, they do not learn the later words in the sequence as well as the earlier words in the sequence. For example, if the participant mastered 10 or more lists, after 24 hours, they would remember only 20% of what they learned. However, if they only memorised one list, they could remember 70% of the words.

Question 264

How does similarity of test materials relate to interference?

Answer 264

Interference is strongest the more similar that the the items are.

Question 265

Name a study that shows the impact of similar test materials on interference

Answer 265

McGeoch and McDonald (1931)- Gave participants a list of 10 adjectives (list A). Once learned, participants had a resting interval of 10 minutes, where they learned list B, after which they recalled list A. If list B was a list of synonyms of list A, recall was poor (12%), if list B was nonsense syllables this had less affect (26%) and if list B was numbers there was 37% (the highest) recall.

Question 266

What is Retrieval Failure?

Answer 266

Occurs due to the absence of cues. It is an explanation for forgetting based on the the idea that the memory does exist, but you can't retrieve it. As retrieval depends on cues, a lack of cues would cause a lack of retrieval.

Question 267

What are cues?

Answer 267

cues are things that serve as a reminder. They can be meaningfully linked, environmental cues (a specific room) or cues related to your mental state (like being drunk).

Question 268

What is the encoding specificity principle?

Answer 268

The idea that recall is most effective if a cue/information present when encoding the memory is also present when retrieving the memory.

Question 269

What is one case study that supports the encoding specificity principle?

Answer 269

Endel Tulving and Donald Thomson (1973)

Question 270

What was the method of Endel Tulving and Donald Thomson's study?

Answer 270

Participants were told to learn 48 words belonging to 12 categories. Each word was presented as the category and the word (e.g. the participant would memorize fruit-apple). The participants were split into two conditions. Participants either had to use free recall or were given cues in the form of the category name, in cued recall (e.g. fruit would be the cue for apple).

Question 271

What were the findings of Endel Tulving and Donald Thomson's study?

Answer 271

In the free recall condition, average 40% of words were recalled. In the cued recall, 60% of words were recalled.

Question 272

What is context-dependent forgetting?

Answer 272

Recall can be more successful when the context it was encoded in is matched during recall. If the memory is attempted to be recalled in a different context, this could cause retrieval failure.

Question 273

Name two studies that prove/support Context dependent forgetting

Answer 273

One example would be a study by Ethel Abernethy (1940) and another would be Godden and Baddeley (1975).

Question 274

VERY BRIEFLY outline Ethel Abernethy's study

Answer 274

Basically, she tested a bunch of her students regularly, but with the students in 4 conditions. Some were always in the same room they were taught in with the same teacher, others were always in the same classroom with a different teacher, some with the same teacher, but in a different classroom and some in a different room with a different teacher. Those who stayed in the same room with the same teacher performed the best (assumedly due to the presence of familiar memory cues).

Question 275

VERY BRIEFLY outline Godden and Baddeley study

Answer 275

They investigated contextual cues. The participants were scuba divers. Four conditions. They were asked to learn a series of words either on land or underwater. They were then tested either on land or underwater. The highest test results were in the condition were the initial context matched the recall environment (i.e. learnt on land and tested on land.)

Question 276

what is State-dependant forgetting?

Answer 276

What state you are when you learn/encode a memory can also be a code. Therefore, if you are in the same state during recall of a memory as you were when you encoded the memory, successful recall is more likely (and vice versa).

Question 277

What is one study that helps prove/support the theory of state-dependent forgetting?

Answer 277

Goodwin Et Al (1969)

Question 278

VERY BRIEFLY outline the Goodwin Et Al (1969) study

Answer 278

There were four conditions. The participants were all men. Some were asked to remember a list of words while drunk, while others were asked to remember a list of words while sober. After 24 hours, the men were tested again. Some were sober during testing and some were drunk (again) during testing. Information was best recalled when tested in the same state.

Question 279

Name two types of Post-Event discussion that could possibly affect Eyewitness Testimony?

Answer 279

Conformity Effect and Repeat Interviewing

Question 280

Describe Conformity Effect | Give Case study precident

Answer 280

If a lot of people witness an event, they might each have their own perception. If they discuss their perceptions with each other, they could reach a consensus view of what happened, to please everyone, that might not be as accurate. This can be seen in the investigation of Fiona gabbert, where, after discussing the witness of an event, 71% of people investigated recalled incorrect information on the incident when questioned.

Question 281

Describe Repeat Intervieewing

Answer 281

The more a person is interviewed, the higher the chance that the cues/questions from the last interview will be incorporated into the current interview's testimony (like Chinese whispers). Leading questions in an interview can also alter a person's testimony.

Question 282

What are four features of The Cognitive Interview?

Answer 282

Changing the order, Changing the perspective, mental reinstatement and reporting everything.

Question 283

Who was Stefan Kiszco and why was he one of the reasons for creating the cognitive interview?

Answer 283

Stefan was convicted for the murder of an 11 year old girl in 1976. He "confessed" this after two days of police questioning. However, Stefan had very high anxiety and a low IQ, so deliberately falsely confessed to the crime, as the intensive questioning and repeated interviews severely affected him. He was incarcerated fr 16 years before his innocence was discovered.

Question 284

What are 3 strengths of the cognitive interview?

Answer 284

It is cleverly structured, it gives up to 50% more recalled information than standard interview techniques (though this is not necessarily accurate information) and it has open questions that allow the witnesses to report the memory in their own words.

Question 285

What are 4 risks of the Cognitive Interview?

Answer 285

It is very time consuming, the careful and specific measures that must be taken are very intensive for the interviewer, the interview is only effective if the interviewee is co-operative with the questions and there is still a risk of the interviewing using leading questions.

Question 286

What is Mental Reinstatement in a cognitive interview?

Answer 286

The interviewer will ask the interviewee to describe teir surroundings during the event. This reinstates the context of the event for the interviewee, which could improve recall (by reducing context-dependent forgetting) and allows the interviewer to obtain specifics without the use of leading questions.

Question 287

What is Report Everything in a cognitive interview?

Answer 287

The interviewer, instead of asking about specific details, will ask the witness to "report everything" they witnessed occuring. This helps the interviewer avoid leading questions as well as not causing the witness to reconstruct the memory due to focussing on certain specifics in the event.

Question 288

What is Changing the Order in a cognitive interview?

Answer 288

When the interviewer asks about the event in a different order than chronological (i.e., in a car crash, from the crash backwards). This changes the schema in recalling the information, so could reveal new information (therefore avoiding schema interference), reduces repetition affecting the memory and it is less episodic/story-like, so will reduce exaggeration.

Question 289

What is Changing the perspective in a cognitive interview?

Answer 289

When the interviewer asks the witness to recount the event from someone else's perspective. This could reduce the effect of anxiety on eyewitness testimony, as different perspectives would experience different stress levels, and an analytical approach could reduce stress.

Question 290

What is the mnemonic you use to remember the fight or flight response to an acute stressor?

Answer 290

AHAA---- Ⓐmygdala→→→ Ⓗypothalamus→**triggers the SNS**→ Ⓐdrenal Gland →(triggers release of)→ Ⓐdrenaline →→→ ** response dulled by PNS**

Question 291

What is the mnemonic you use to remember the fight or flight response to chronic stressor?

Answer 291

Ah! Clingy Penguins Acquire Attentiative Care! Amygdala →→→ Hypothalamus →→→ CRH →*triggers the SNS*→ Pituitary Gland →→→ Adrenal Medulla→→→ Adrenaline→→→ Cortisol

Question 292

What is the definition of an infant?

Answer 292

a child below the age of 2, derivative from the latin word “infans”, meaning “unable to speak”.

Question 293

How do caregiver-infant interactions affect social development?

Answer 293

If an individual lacks caregiver-infant interactions, this can lead to poor social skills, poor academia and intellect and stunted brain development.

Question 294

What is the Caregiver-Infant interaction of reciprocity?

Answer 294

A reciprocal interaction between caregiver ad baby, in which each party’s behavior elicits a response from the other (i.e. a baby pointing and a caregiver laughing)

Question 295

How can interactional reciprocity reflect sociability in later life?

Answer 295

It can often be the gateway to learning how to engage in conversation (especially the meaningless ones-- e.g. "How are you?"- "I'm fine how are you"). These interactions are reciprocal as both parties engage and both parties warrant a response from the other.

Question 296

What is the Caregiver-Infant interaction of Synchrony?

Answer 296

When a caregiver and infant reflect the actions of the other in unity (e.g. mirroring each others facial and body movements).

Question 297

How does Interactional Synchrony differ from interactional reciprocity?

Answer 297

Synchrony is different to reciprocity as, in synchrony, the actions have to be the same (i.e . both the caregiver and infant laughing/clapping), whereas the behaviors in reciprocity do not have to be the same, but do have to elicit more response.

Question 298

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Answer 298

Meltzoff proposed that infants associate their actions/expressions with their own mental states, so the infant would project their mental state (and therefore mood/emotion) onto the caregiver performing the same acts. This would help the infant begin to understand what the caregiver is thinking/feeling, resulting in the pair being more accustomed to each others needs and therefore forming a more secure attachment (this could also lead to development of social skills due to receptiveness/sensitivity).

Question 299

What is one study that investigated Interactional Synchrony?

Answer 299

Meltzoff and Moore

Question 300

What was the aim of Meltzoff and Moore's study?

Answer 300

To investigate interactional synchrony by testin how infants copy an adult’s facial expressions.

Question 301

What was the independent variable in Meltzoff and Moore's study?

Answer 301

The expression the adult used when interacting with the baby ( i.e. if the adult opened their mouth, if they stuck out their tongue etc.)

Question 302

What was the dependent variable of Meltzoff and Moore's study?

Answer 302

Whether or not the baby copied the expression (to ensure accurate results, the babies' responses were taped and the adult participant was kept oblivious of their exact aim)

Question 303

What was the aim of Schaffer and Emerson's study?

Answer 303

To investigate attachment formation, particularly the age when attachment occurs, the emotional intensity of the attachment and the target of the attachment.

Question 304

Briefly outline the method of Schaffer and Emerson's study

Answer 304

``` during the 1960s, Schaffer tested on 60 babies and their mothers from Glasgow- all from skilled working class families. They tested: Separation Anxiety by asking parents what protest behaviors their child showed when they left and Stranger Anxiety observing how a baby responds to unfamiliar adults trying to cuddle/interact with the infants ```

Question 305

What were the findings of Schaffer and Emerson's study?

Answer 305

between 25 and 32 weeks of age, average 50% of babies showed separation anxiety from their primary caregivers, meaning they made a specific attachment. By 40 weeks, 80% of the infants had specific attachments, while 30% of them had multiple attachments.

Question 306

What are the 4 stages of Attachment (according to Schaffer and Emerson)?

Answer 306

Indiscriminate Attachment, Beginnings of Attachment, Discriminate Attachments and Multiple Attachments.

Question 307

How would an infant seem during Indiscriminate Attachment?

Answer 307

The child would show no preference for any objects/people, they would not have any preferred people or objects, but may show response to social stimuli (i.e. faces or teddies), though this does not indicate attachment, just stimulation.

Question 308

How would an infant seem during Beginnings of Attachment?

Answer 308

The infant would be able to distinguish familiar people from strangers, but there would be no stranger anxiety yet, and their may still be no primary attachment.

Question 309

How would an infant seem during Discriminate Attachment?

Answer 309

At this stage, separation anxiety and preference for the primary caregiver would have become present, and the infant would be reliant on the emotional attention and support of their primary caregiver (if neglected, this could lead to stunted brain development and pathological issues in later life).

Question 310

How would an infant seem during Multiple Attachments?

Answer 310

At this stage, discriminate attachments would be formed with secondary figures (often showcasing separation anxiety from these attachment figures).

Question 311

``` Why might the four stages of attachment not be universally applicable? Clues- Culture Autism Downs Syndrome ```

Answer 311

US and UK cultures tend to focus more on their close family’s needs, whereas other cultures use shared childcare, and this could discourage primary attachment. Sagi et al, who compared attachments in infants raised communally and in families, found small families formed more close attachments). Children with autism and down syndrome may also struggle with attachment, as children with autism may form attachments much later on, or only form a primary attachment, and then stop. People with downs may skip the stage of indiscriminate attachment and move to multiple attachment, meaning they form attachments easily, and want to become close with strangers (seemingly friendly)(This is individual/dispositional as downs is a chromosomal disorder).

Question 312

How could the self-report methodology in Schaffer and Emerson's study be considered unreliable?

Answer 312

The use of open questions to the mothers, questioning their motherhood, could have caused demand characteristics such as the desirability effect. Some mothers were also probably more perceptive to their child than others. Also, as of the time of the study, many of these mothers would have been stay-at-home mothers, which could have made their attitudes to childcare vary from contemporary ones.

Question 313

What is imprinting?

Answer 313

An infant's readiness to make a bond with the mother which takes place during a specific time period, usually the first few hours after birth. If it doesn’t happen in this period, it isn’t likely to happen at all.

Question 314

What is Sexual Imprinting?

Answer 314

the idea that imprinting will affect adult mate preferences, meaning that animals will mate with the same sort of object as they imprinted on.

Question 315

Name one study that investigated imprinting

Answer 315

Lorenz (1959)

Question 316

Briefly outline the method of Lorenz's (1959) study

Answer 316

Lorenz collected gosling eggs and tested them while they hatched. He divided them into two groups, one hatched naturally, so first saw the mother, and the other hatched in an incubator, so the first thing they saw was Lorenz. He marked each gosling and mixed the groups, so they all spent time with both him and the mother in a group, after first contact. The goslings who first saw Lorenz imprinted on him and followed him round.

Question 317

What were the findings of Lorenz's (1959) study?

Answer 317

He discovered the Critical period- a period of time in which the animal must be exposed to a moving object. If the animal does not imprint during this critical period, it will not imprint at all (this is usually within the first two days).

Question 318

What was one study that investigated contact comfort in attachment?

Answer 318

Harlow (1959)

Question 319

Briefly outline the method of Harlow (1959)

Answer 319

Harlow tested on 8 infant monkeys. He created two wire monkey “mother” sculptures, one with a wire head, one with a cloth head, each holding a bottle. He measured how much time the infants spent with each mother, and if the monkeys sought comfort from either when exposed to a threat (a mechanical teddy bear)

Question 320

How does Bowlby's monotropic theory contrast that of the Learning Theory of Attachment?

Answer 320

It suggests attachment is innate rather than learned.

Question 321

How did Bowlby think attachment was an evolutionary adaptation?

Answer 321

Bowlby believed attachment was due to survival instinct, as infants need protection and adults must pass down genes. He believed humans developed this due to our extended childhood (18+ years reliance).

Question 322

What are social releasers?

Answer 322

Assets that babies are born with that trigger the Innate Adult Attachment System. These can be: Physical: big eyes, small chin, small, chubby- or Behavioral: e.g. crying, cooing, gripping fingers etc.

Question 323

What is Innate Adult Attachment System?

Answer 323

attachment was reciprocal, so both baby and mother had instincts to attach. Social releasers trigger this system, and it causes us to attach to the infant based on these.

Question 324

What does monotropy mean?

Answer 324

The theory that an infant’s Primary attachment Figure influenced social development more than others, so was the most important attachment. Bowlby believed our instincts were to attach to mothers.

Question 325

What is the Inner Working Model?

Answer 325

The idea that our primary attachment created an inner working model (like a schema) that we use as a template for future relationships and expectations of love.

Question 326

What is The Continuity Hypothesis?

Answer 326

It theorised that people securely attached in infancy had more secure adult relationships. It was later proven by Bowlby's theory of Maternal Deprivation.

Question 327

What were the specifics of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 327

It was a laboratory study, where a controlled situation was contrived in order to test the security of attachment between 100 middle class mothers and their babies.

Question 328

How many situations were created in Ainsworth's study?

Answer 328

8 situations, some involving confederates

Question 329

What was the first contrived situation (stage 1) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 329

The mother and infant go into a new room, the mother sits down and the baby is left to explore ( tests secure base attachment and desire for proximity)

Question 330

What was the second contrived situation (stage 2) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 330

A confederate "stranger" enters the room and interacts with mother. This would therefore distract the mother from the baby and move focus to the stranger, which tests stranger anxiety.

Question 331

What was the third contrived situation (stage 3) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 331

The confederate stranger tries to play with the baby. This tests separation anxiety.

Question 332

What was the fourth contrived situation (stage 4) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 332

The mother leaves the room and the stranger attempts to comfort the baby ( testing separation and stranger anxiety)

Question 333

What was the fifth contrived situation (stage 5) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 333

The mother returns and tries to mollify baby (testing secure base attachment).

Question 334

What was the sixth contrived situation (stage 6) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 334

The mother leaves the room and leaves the infant alone. This tests seeking proximity, secure base attachment and separation anxiety.

Question 335

What was the seventh contrived situation (stage 7) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 335

When mother is absent, the stranger returns and attempts to comfort the baby ( tests stranger anxiety).

Question 336

What was the seventh contrived situation (stage 8) of Ainsworth's strange situation study?

Answer 336

Mother returns to mollify baby. Tests secure base attachment.

Question 337

What were the two attachment types found by Ainsworth's study?

Answer 337

Insecure avoidant attachment, Insecure Resistant attachment and Secure attachment .

Question 338

What is Insecure avoidant attachment? | How many participants in Ainsworth's study?

Answer 338

The child shows little to no anxiety, doesn’t seek proximity and doesn’t require mollification from mother. Type in 22% of infants in the study.

Question 339

What is secure attachment? | How many participants in Ainsworth's study?

Answer 339

The child explores happily, but still seeks proximity to mother. The child will still show mild anxiety and require mother’s mollification. This is the attachment type seen in 66% of the participants.

Question 340

What is insecure resistant attachment? | How many participants in Ainsworth's study?

Answer 340

The child shows high anxiety (separation and stranger) but rejects the mother’s mollification.

Question 341

Briefly outline Bowlby's theory of maternal deprivation

Answer 341

Bowlby theorised that infants deprived of maternal care in a critical period would have long term consequences, such as emotional underdevelopment and mental illness.

Question 342

How do critical periods apply to Bowlby's theory of maternal deprivation?

Answer 342

0-2.5 years. If the child was continually/repeatedly separated from the mother or deprived from emotional attachment/care to this mother, the child might have developmental issues. This risk continued to the age of 5. However, after this time, temporary separation from the mother will not cause lasting damage.

Question 343

What was the procedure taken in Bowlby's 44 Juvenile Thieves Study?

Answer 343

Bowlby took a sample of 88 children from the orphanage he worked at (for orphans and kids with incarcerated parents), all showing emotional maladjustment. 44 of these kids had been caught stealing. He thought 32 of these “thieves” were affectionless psychopaths. Bowlby then delved into the children’s records and investigated their upbringing.

Question 344

How did the findings from Bowlby's 44 Juvenile Thieves Study support his theory of maternal deprivation?

Answer 344

Bowlby found 86% of the thieving children with affectionless psychopathy experienced frequent separations from their mother during infancy. The control participants (the 44 non thieving participants) had almost no accounts of early maternal deprivation, whereas 39% of the thieves did

Question 345

What category of study was Rutter et. Al?

Answer 345

A longitudinal study

Question 346

What concept of attachment did Rutter's study's findings inspire?

Answer 346

Institutionalism

Question 347

What is institutionalism?

Answer 347

Institutionalism refers to the effect of living in an institutional setting (i.e. outside the family or family home). This is usually due to the child having a lack of primary care and can cause emotional, social and pathological complications.

Question 348

What was the type of study used in Rutter et al?

Answer 348

It was a natural experiment, as the independent variable (the neglect of the orphans and the age of adoption for each orphan) was predetermined, so didn't need to be changed.

Question 349

What tragic event inspired Rutter et al 2010?

Answer 349

After Romanian leader Ceausescu tried to improve the economy by increasing the population, he started encouraging more women to give birth by offering more, benefits, lower taxes and public recognition whilst also banning abortion. However, many romanian families could not afford these children. Later, orphanages were discovered with terrible conditions: no washing conditions, basic furniture, cramped living space, inadequate food and most crucially- with no care for the children, just a living space.

Question 350

What was the sample size in Rutter et al's study?

Answer 350

165 of the romanian orphans were observed

Question 351

What were the different conditions of the sample tested in Rutter et Al (2010)?

Answer 351

111 of the orphans were adopted before the age of 2 | 54 of the orphans were adopted before the age of 4

Question 352

How were the participants tested in Rutter et Al (2010)?

Answer 352

They were assessed at different ages in life: 4,6,11, and 15

Question 353

How did Rutter ensure validity in the construction of his study?

Answer 353

He used a control group of 52 British-born orphans, adopted before the age of 6 months and compared the developmental levels of the romanian orphans to the development of this control group.

Question 354

How did the Romanian orphans in Rutter et Al's study appear to have adapted when first tested?

Answer 354

They initially lagged behind the control group in terms of size, growth, strength and mental capacity (many showed retardation).

Question 355

How did age of adoption affect the development of the orphans in Rutter et al?

Answer 355

Those who were adopted at a younger age (6 months and younger) tended to recover from the symptoms of institutionalisation better. For example, those adopted younger than six months tended to have much higher IQs than the other orphans, sometimes even displaying above average IQs.

Question 356

How did age of adoption affect the attachment type of the orphans in Rutter et al?

Answer 356

Children adopted after the age of six months often showed disinhibited attachment. Those adopted when six months old or younger rarely showed this.

Question 357

How can institutionalisation affect physicality?

Answer 357

A child who suffers adverse effects from institutionalisation can display signs of physical underdevelopment or restricted growth. Rutter called this Developmental dwarfism.

Question 358

How can institutionalisation affect behavior (in terms of dispositional abnormality)?

Answer 358

Institutionalised children can develop quasi-autism (displaying symptoms of autism) repeating rituals or twitches obsessively, or example twitching, tapping tables, spinning in circles.

Question 359

How can institutionalisation affect adult attachment/parenthood?

Answer 359

Institutionalisation can cause poor parenting in later life- often being more likely to be neglectful or abusive.

Question 360

How does institutionalisation relate to Bowlby's theory of the inner working model?

Answer 360

Institutionalisation can cause a lack of internal working model, often with children raised in institutionalised settings having difficulty interacting with peers and forming close relationships.

Question 361

How can institutionalisation affect intellect?

Answer 361

Severe institutionalisation or lack of are in infancy can cause intellectual underfunctioning (low IQ), often being in the bottom 30% of IQ in the population, sometimes eve in the bottom 10-15%. Some institutionalised children need extra help with academic schooling because of this.

Question 362

What was the general conclusions from Rutter et Al.?

Answer 362

If children deprived of attachment when young from healthy and supportive attachments in later life, they can recover from the negative effects of this deprivation. He suggested that deprivation did not cause irreversible damage, but rather slower development.

Question 363

Give 4 example of deviating from social norms

Answer 363

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Question 364

What is the issue for using deviation from social norms to identify mental disorders?

Answer 364

Social norms are not constant, for example, homosexuality was considered a disorder until 1977.

Question 365

What does W.E.I.R.D. stand for?

Answer 365

Western, Educated, Industrialised, Rich, Democratic (used to refer to the typical person who creates new policies and blanket theories in the psychological field, often creating bias and invalidities)

Question 366

How does cultural bias affect how social norms are ised to diagnose mental illness?

Answer 366

Different cultures veiw different behaviors as normal (e.g. Indonesian people often exhume their dead and spend time with them, but this would be seen as behavior that could make you seem certifiable in Britain). Cultural bias is therefore an issue, as what social-norm deviations stipulate specific mental disorders is often decided by W.E.I.R.D. psychologists, who would base it on their culture.

Question 367

How can a statistical infrequency be seen as a deviation from social norms?

Answer 367

If a specific trait or behavior is measured, and the measurement falls outside the normal distribution (by 1 or norr standard deviations). For example, and IQ test result would be seen as abnormal if it was 15 or more above or below 100 (15 is the standard distribution and 100 is the average)

Question 368

What is the DSM V?

Answer 368

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (the fiftu edition)

Question 369

What is one diffixulty of the DSM V being used to diagnose mental illness?

Answer 369

It is written by american psychologists, so would be subject to cultural bias, as all the social deviations would be based on the behaviors of Western, American culture.

Question 370

What does cultural relativism mean?

Answer 370

How relative a social norm is to different cultures. For example, if certain behaviors are considered socially abnormal in different cultures.

Question 371

Give an example of cultural relativism

Answer 371

If someone claimed to be "hearing angels voices" in some cultures, it could stipulate a symptom of schizophrenia, while some superstitious or highly religious cultures who believe in internalized divinity would consider this to be normal.

Question 372

What type of mental disorder are phobias?

Answer 372

Anxiety disorders

Question 373

What are phobias?

Answer 373

Irrational fears of on an object or situation, which interferes with the sufferer's normal living.

Question 374

Name 4 emotional symptoms of Phobias

Answer 374

High anxiety, irrational or extreme fear (both from being around stimulus and when discussing stimulus), anger and relief at removal of stimulus.

Question 375

Name 3 cognitive symptoms of Phobias

Answer 375

Obsessing about the stimulus, catastrophiseing the stimulus, overthinking (rumination)

Question 376

Name 3 behavioral symptoms of Phobias

Answer 376

Avoidance of the stimulus, panic or anxiety attacks (when threatened with or suring contact with the stimulus) and angry outbursts when others threaten the sufferer with the stimulus.

Question 377

What is the two process model?

Answer 377

A method for explaining the formation of phobias through learning theory. it combines classical conditioning and operant conditioning

Question 378

How does the two process model suggest Phobias are formed?

Answer 378

The two process model suggests phobias are created through association of negative emotion with a stimulus via classical/operant conditioning. It states that a negative event (an event that causes anxiety) involving the stimulus, which then causes this anxiety to become a conditioned stimulus and cause the same anxiety as was experienced in the event. This is then perpetuated (via operant conditioning) as the avoidance of the stimulus mollifies this anxiety, therefore perpetuating the avoidance via negative reinforcement. (Positive punishment when in contact with the stimulus also contributes to this).

Question 379

How can Social Learning Theory contribute to the formation of phobias?

Answer 379

Social learning theory is a more modern learning theory than classical and operant. It suggests phobias can be learned through: - Observational learning- after observing the actions of a person, and relating to/identifying with their actions, they become a role model to which we learn behaviors from (these behaviors can include avoidance of phobic stimulus) - Modelling- Imitating phobic behaviors from a role model (e.g. your parents) - Vicarious reinforcement- person observes an indirect reward given to a role model through avoiding the phobic stimulus, so the person learns this avoidance to be a positive behavior.

Question 380

Who carried out the "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 380

Watson and Rayner (1920)

Question 381

What was the aim of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 381

To provide evidence that human emotional responses can be learned through classical conditioning.

Question 382

What type of study was Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment? What type of observation was use?

Answer 382

A contrived laboratory study, using overt participant observation.

Question 383

What was the sample like in Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 383

The sample was one 11-month-old infant, Albert, who was volunteered by his mother, who was a nurse living in a hospital (volunteer sample)

Question 384

How did the researchers practice classical conditioning in Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 384

The researchers created a fear response by striking metal bars and making loud crashing around behind little Albert's head, and repeated this with different stimulus, in order fro Albert to associate the fear created by the response with each stimulus. The stimuli included things like a white rat, that Albert was not originally scared of.

Question 385

What were the findings of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 385

After Albert experienced the classical conditioning process, Albert showed great distress at the sight of the rat (and other stimulus). He even showed fear to similar animals, such as white rabbits and the fur on Santa's coat. This showed the phobia and association became applicable to other, similar stimuli.

Question 386

What did Ohman and Seligman discover about phobias and how does this invalidate the two process model?

Answer 386

They discovered that fears and phobias can become apparent without the need for associating with a traumatic experience. They suggested that some fears are innate or may be genetically inherited (e.g. snakes and heights). This shows a lack of construct validity in the two process model as it does not generalise to other phobias with alternate causes (meaning it is environmentally reductionist)

Question 387

What is one ethical issue in Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 387

Albert was not protected from harm. The methodology caused infantile anxiety and separation from his mother, which could have caused developmental issues later on. Furthermore, Albert grew up to have severe anxiety, be very small and underdeveloped and died very young (7 or 8)

Question 388

What is one issue in the testing of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 388

Testing on infants can be inaccurate, due to them having different brain capacities and reactions than adults.

Question 389

What is one issue in the sample of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 389

The sample was of only one individual- albert. This meant the results could easily be invalidated or effected by extraneous variables in this one participant, as there would be no context or comparison to show if this reflect the aim or not (e.g. if albert had the COMT gene, he would be more susceptible to anxiety). The use of only one participant also results in population bias, culture bias, volunteer bias and gender bias.

Question 390

What is one issue in the design of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 390

The repeated method design, used on only one participant , could result in the methodology being less effective on albert over time, as the method was repeated on him many times over multiple months. For example, Albert could become desensitized/resilient to the stimulus, or the heightened levels of anxiety Albert developed from previous conditions could affect the findings.

Question 391

What is one issue in the lack of focus on biology of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 391

the extraneous variable of genetic factors, (i.e. the SERT or COMT) could have created a greater alacrity to form phobias and panic responses, which could make the findings less applicable to those who do not have these genetic factors that heighten anxiety.

Question 392

What is one issue in the Investigator's involvement on biology of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 392

Watson's behavior in the study showed investigator effect. He was very rough with albert, pushing for a response. This could have created the confounding variable of Albert associating fear with Watson, rather than the intended stimulus (e.g. the rat).

Question 393

What is one issue in the construction of Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 393

The contrived, unrealistic laboratory study type resulted in very low mundane realism, reducing applicability.

Question 394

What is one issue in the disregard of attachment in Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" experiment?

Answer 394

Factors such as attachment were not considered, but Albert's absence from has mother could have affected the finings. The mother's absence could have caused maladjustment later on, but Albert could have experienced maternal deprivation before the study ( as his mother was a full time nurse and single mother, who agreed to the study for the sake of the compensation) which could have affected the anxiety shown in the study.

Question 395

What is one issue in the of the reductionism of the Two Process Model?

Answer 395

The two process model doesn't consider dispositional or predetermined factors such as genetics. As phobias are anxiety disorders, the presence of the COMT or SERT genes could affect this. This makes it environmentally reductionist.

Question 396

What is one issue in the determinism of the Two Process Model?

Answer 396

The assumption of a direct cause and response relationship between traumatic experience and phobia could be considered determinist.

Question 397

What is one issue in the generalisability of the Two Process Model?

Answer 397

The theory can not be applied to phobias that are prevalent without previous traumatic experience (i.e. small spaces or bright colours).

Question 398

What is one positive in the application of the Two Process Model?

Answer 398

The idea of operant conditioning in the formation of phobias helped to create treatment such as systematic desensitisation and flooding, as well as showing how CBT can help us treat phobia. This shows good Ecological validity

Question 399

What is flooding?

Answer 399

A form of behavioral therapy used to treat phobias and other anxiety disorders. It involves the patient being immediately exposed to the phobic stimulus, causing high or extreme anxiety, whilst practicing relaxation techniques experienced previous to exposure.

Question 400

How is anxiety duration used in flooding?

Answer 400

Flooding focuses on the idea that, after anxiety increases dramatically for a period of time, it will reach a climax/plateau at some point and will then begin to decrease, simply due to the limited amount of energy that can be expended at one time. Flooding focuses on the fact that, when the anxiety subsides, the patient will still be in the presence of the stimulus, so may re-associate the phobic stimulus with this relaxation, rather than anxiety, or at least remove the negative reinforcement of avoidance.

Question 401

What is counterconditioning and how is t used in Flooding?

Answer 401

Counterconditioning is often used in flooding and SD. It is when relaxation is practiced around the stimulus to inhibit the anxiety.

Question 402

What is Reciprocal Inhibition and how is it used in Flooding?

Answer 402

Anxiety and relaxation can not occur at the same time, they inhibit one another. therefore, if we feel relaxation around the stimulus, we can not feel anxiety around the stimulus, so if relaxation is used around the stimulus in flooding, we can not feel anxiety or fear responses.

Question 403

Why can you not remove the stimulus in flooding?

Answer 403

As the patient must be pushed right up to before the plateau (panic attack level), otherwise backing out can perpetuate avoidance. The patient can only form reassociation if the panic subsides in the presence of the stimulus.

Question 404

What is systematic Desensitisation?

Answer 404

It is another treatment of phobia, very similar to flooding, but with the phobic stimulus being introduced gradually. therefore, the patient experiences several small plateaus rather than one large plateau.

Question 405

What are three positives of SD?

Answer 405

It can be seen as more ethical, as it is less likely to cause harm if it fails. It can be considered a more attractive and gentler approach. The increased exposure to the stimulus may be more effective at decreasing avoidance, as avoidance must be defied repeatedly.

Question 406

What is one other treatment for phobias?

Answer 406

ANti-anxiety medication

Question 407

What are two anti-anxiety treatments that can be used to treat phobia?

Answer 407

Benzodiazepines- reduces brain activity (and anxiety) via the release of GABA Prozac- an antidepressant

Question 408

name 5 negative side effects of benzodiazepines

Answer 408

lethargy, confusion, lack of focus, inability to drive ad seizures (after long term usage).

Question 409

Name one drawback of flooding

Answer 409

If the patient does not experience the anxiety resolution, they will not associate the relaxation with the stimulus, but will instead associate the extreme, panic-attack-inducing anxiety with the stimulus. This could, therefore, worsen the phobia. Furthermore, the failure of the treatment could make the patient feel like a "failure", so would induce a feeling of insufficiency or being broken, which could stipulate depression.

Question 410

Why are behavioral therapies often thought of as better therapies than medication?

Answer 410

The coping strategies used in behavioral therapy (e.g. relaxation) can be used throughout the patients life, and will not give the same negative side effects as medication. Medication, such as benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and nausea. Furthermore, the fact that they are addictive means that they can become addictive and cause more mental issues via benzodiazepine abuse/misuse. Therefore, psychological therapy is better in the long term, but severe phobias may require medication.

Question 411

what are 3 emotional symptoms of depression?

Answer 411

- extreme sadness or anxiety - Low/general lack of motivation: Avolition - Feeling numb/feeling no emotion: Anhedonia

Question 412

what are 5 cognitive symptoms of depression?

Answer 412

- Belief of being insignificant or not worthy. - suicidal thoughts - catastrophizing/pessimistic outlook - lack of enjoyment from life - desire for self injury

Question 413

What are 5 behavioral symptoms of depression?

Answer 413

- Random, unexplained aches and pains - Self harm/harmful coping strategies - Increased or decreased appetite - weight gain or weight loss - weight gain/loss

Question 414

Why do people often experience a change of sleep/appetite during depression?

Answer 414

Depression can be caused by a lack of serotonin (sometimes due to the presence of the SERT gene). Serotonin controls sleep and appetite as well as mood, so sleep and appetite can also be affected.

Question 415

What type of mental disorder is depression?

Answer 415

A mood disorder

Question 416

What are the three stages of Ellis ABC Model (in an ideal cognitive process)?

Answer 416

Activating event, Rational Belief and consequence.

Question 417

What type of causation theory is ELLIs' ABC model?

Answer 417

A cognitive explanation to how irrational cognitions cause depression.

Question 418

What are the three stages of Ellis ABC Model (in a depressive cognitive process)?

Answer 418

Activating event, Irrational belief and consequence.

Question 419

What does the "irrational belief" stage of depressive cognition involve?

Answer 419

It involves catastrophizing generalised fixed ideas- e.g. if the activating event is getting fired, the irrational beliefs would be "Ill never get a job again, I'll never be good enough to keep a good job".

Question 420

How does musturbatory thinking of the "irrational beliefs" in cognitionon cause depression?

Answer 420

The individual will circulate and focus on ideas such as "I will never find love", so the conclusion to there cognition will just be focus on these beliefs, and result in the person being stuck in this, causing a depressive state.

Question 421

What is one biological limitation of Beck's Triad?

Answer 421

Genes can be involved in the formation of depression (e.g. the 5-HT gene could cause a lack of serotonin, that may conduce depression). Depression could also be caused by an overactive amygdala or an underactive prefrontal cortex (which controls rational thinking and planning. Beck's triad disregards these factors, meaning it is reductionist.

Question 422

What is one behavioral limitation of Beck's Triad?

Answer 422

Seligman suggests depression is learned through feeling helpless. If a person learns over time that they are insignificant (for instance through consistent failure) they can learn the negative perception found in perception, so it is therefore a learned outlook, rather than a cognitive schema.

Question 423

What does the Humanist approach claim to contribute to depression?

Answer 423

That depression can be caused by low self esteem and poor belief in ones self. For example, if a person has a negative or unsupportive environment (e.g. overly strict, abusive parents), they can develop low self esteem, which could create a negative schema, stipulating depression. Counselling can be used to help this.

Question 424

Which cognitive theory forms the basis for CBT?

Answer 424

Becks Triad

Question 425

How does CBT use the idea of a negative core schema?

Answer 425

the therapist can help the patient recognise that their negative, catastrophized perception is false.

Question 426

What is the success rate of CBT?

Answer 426

75%

Question 427

What type of CBT is based off Ellis' ABC Model?

Answer 427

Rational Emotive Behavioral Therapy (R.E.B.T)

Question 428

Why is behavior important in Cognitive Behavioral Therapy?

Answer 428

Cognitions are theoretical constructs, so we can't directly interact with them. We use behavioral training to help challenge and modify cognitions indirectly (using behavior to attempt to change the negative schema). As behavior is generated by thinking, CBT also helps to change maladaptive behavior by changing the irrational thought process behind them.

Question 429

Why/How is the patient just as important as the therapist in CBT?

Answer 429

The process is collaborative, so requires engagement from both the therapist and the patient.

Question 430

What type of therapy is CBT?

Answer 430

A talking Therapy (that uses talking to identify irrational beliefs and activities to try and contest them)

Question 431

What do the D.E.F. used in Ellis' Rational Emotional Behavioral Therapy?

Answer 431

D- Disputing- disputing irrational cognitions E- Effects- Effects of disputing/effective attitudes F- Feelings- Feelings that result from that process

Question 432

How does the therapist help dispute the depressive schema in R.E.B.T?

Answer 432

The therapist will, after the patient presents an irrational or harmful belief, directly dispute/disagree with this belief. The therapist, however, will not disagree with the Patient directly, to avoid them further blaming themselves.

Question 433

What is the humanist principle of Unconditional Positive Regard and how can it be used when addressing irrational beliefs in R.E.B.T?

Answer 433

This principle is now part of all modern talking therapies. It involves the therapist having to show the patient they understand the motivation behind the belief (showing positive regard to them)---like by saying"I understand why you think that, but..."----before they contest the belief . This is done as people who feel more trusted and valued are generally more motivated to participate/cooperate with the therapist.

Question 434

What is one drawback of cognitive behavioral therapy?

Answer 434

The expense Cognitive therapists are very expensive to train and accommodate for, having to continually take precautions to make sure they are apt for th job (such as re-training and their own, personal therapy).

Question 435

What is the criteria for the Behavioral homework the therapist sets in CBT?

Answer 435

- It should be physically and psychologically rewarding - The activity often results in more serotonin, endorphins, higher self esteem etc. - It should activate the parts of the brain associated with reward (which would have been relatively dormant before, as of the "hopeless" mindset) - This activation will help with low mood and aid recovery

Question 436

What is depressive realism? How does depressive realism affect CBT application?

Answer 436

Depressive realism refers to the fact (or theory) that those with depression often think more rationally or more realistically than those without depression. This can hinder the effectiveness of CBT, as CBT is based on invalidating irrational beliefs and thought process, and if the patient has a rational thought process causing them to be depressed, this would not be helpful.

Question 437

What is the Diathesis-Stress approach in treating depression?

Answer 437

When antidepressant medication (such as SSRIs or Benzodiazepines) are used in conjunction with cognitive therapy.