Foundation Level Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following answers describes a test condition?
a) A distinguishing characteristic of a component or system
b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing
c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied
needs when the software is used under specified conditions
d) Test cases designed to execute combinations of conditions and actions resulting from them

A

a) Is not correct. Definition of feature according to glossary
b) Is correct. From glossary
c) Is not correct. Definition of functionality suitability according to glossary
d) Is not correct. Like Definition of Decision table testing according to
glossary

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?
a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a
good product
b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other stakeholders
c) To prove that all possible defects are identified
d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

A

a) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle 3: “Early testing saves time and
money”
b) Is correct. This is one objective of testing
c) Is not correct. Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible,
so one can never prove that all defects were identified
d) Is not correct. To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a
failure or not, one must detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining
defect will cause a failure implicitly means that all defects were found.
This again contradicts principle #2

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3
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and
debugging?
a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes
prevention activities
b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects, which
are the source of failures
c) Testing removes faults; but debugging removes defects that cause the faults
d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

A

a) Is not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects,
debugging identifies the source of defects
b) Is correct. Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects
in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source
of failures
c) Is not correct. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes
faults, which is synonyms for defects, that may cause the failures
d) Is not correct. Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of
failures (defects) but detects the presence of defects

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4
Q

Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered
during testing or in production?
a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box
b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build
c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables
d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm

A

a) Is correct. A crash is clearly noticeable by the user
b) Is not correct. This is a defect, not a failure since there is something
wrong in the code. It may not result in a visible or noticeable failure, for
example if the changes in the source code file are only in comments
c) Is not correct. The use of wrong input variables may not result in a
visible or noticeable failure, for example if nobody uses this particular
algorithm; or if the wrong input variable has a similar value to the
correct input variable; or if the FALSE result of the algorithm is not used
d) Is not correct. This type of fault will not necessarily lead to a failure; for
example, if no one uses this special algorithm

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5
Q

Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a
wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time
than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and
did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing
the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe?
a) Testing depends on the environment
b) Exhaustive testing is not possible
c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects
d) Defects cluster together

A

a) Is not correct. Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being
manual or automated (principle #6), but does not result in detecting a
decreasing number of faults as described above
b) Is not correct. Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the
amount of effort put into testing (principle #2)
c) Is correct. Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and
over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To
detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing,
and new tests may need to be written.” Automated regression testing of
the same test cases will not bring new findings
d) Is not correct. ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of
modules usually contain most of the defects, but this does not mean
that fewer and fewer defects will be found

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6
Q

In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?
a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough
b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality
c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed
d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

A

a) Is not correct. Static testing (reviews) contributes, but could not ensure,
that requirements are detailed enough
b) Is correct. Testing contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety
of ways, e.g., such as reducing the risk of inadequate software quality
c) Is not correct. This is quality assurance but not testing
d) Is not correct. The quality cannot be measured by counting the number
of executed test cases without knowing the outcome

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7
Q

Which of the following activities is part of the main activity “test analysis” in the test process?
a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools
b) Creating test suites from test scripts
c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement
d) Evaluating the test basis for testability

A

a) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test design activity
(test design)
b) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test implementation
activity (test implementation)
c) Is not correct. This activity is performed during the test completion
activity (test completion)
d) Is correct. This activity is performed during the test analysis activity (test
analysis)

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8
Q

Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D).
1. Test suite
2. Test case
3. Test script
4. Test charter
A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run
B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test
C. Contains expected results
D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing
a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D
b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C
c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B
d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

A

Glossary defines the following tests as:
* Test suite: “A set of test scripts or test procedures to be executed in
a specific test run.” (1A)
* Test case: “A set of preconditions, inputs, actions (where
applicable), expected results and post conditions, developed based
on test conditions” (2C)
* Test script: “A sequence of instructions for the execution of a test”
(3B)
* Test charter: “Documentation of test activities in session-based
exploratory testing” (4D)
Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

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9
Q

How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?
a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems
b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed
c) To check if all work process flows have been covered
d) To cover all web page navigations

A

a) Is not correct. Relevant for integration testing
b) Is not correct. Relevant for component testing
c) Is correct. For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all
workflows defined in the functional requirements documents.
d) Is not correct. Relevant for system testing

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10
Q

Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?
a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and
classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between
components and interactions between different parts of the system
b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications,
design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually
derived from requirement specifications or use cases
c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing
focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics
d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is
the responsibility of the users of the system

A

a) Is not correct. System testing does not test interfaces between
components and interactions between different parts of the system; this
is a target of integration tests
b) Is correct. Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis
for component testing include detailed design, code, data model,
component specifications. Examples of work products for system
testing include system and software requirement specifications
(functional and non-functional) use cases
c) Is not correct. Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional
characteristics
d) Is not correct. Component tests are also executed by developers,
whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of (independent)
testers

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11
Q

Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully
implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has
no side effects
b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of
confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment
c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of
confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed
d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the
purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed

A

a) Is not correct. Regression testing does not check successful
implementation of corrections and confirmation testing does not check
for side effects
b) Is not correct. The statement about confirmation testing should be
about regression testing
c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers
d) Is not correct. Testing new functionality is not regression testing

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12
Q

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?
a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each
phase a piece of the system is added
b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is complete
c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been
completed
d) Testing is added to development as an increment

A

a) Is correct. Incremental development involves establishing requirements,
designing, building, and testing a system in pieces
b) Is not correct. This is a sequential model
c) Is not correct. This describes the waterfall model
d) Is not correct. Testing alone is not an increment/additional step in the
development

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13
Q

Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?
a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software
b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform
c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved
d) Decision to test after “hot fixes”

A

a) Is correct. This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing
b) Is not correct. This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational
tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software
c) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing
restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods
d) Is not correct. This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive
modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency
defects that have caused actual failures

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14
Q

Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?
a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester
b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer
c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer
d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe

A

a) Is not correct. Tester and developer are NOT roles in a formal review
b) Is not correct. Developer is NOT a role in a formal review
c) Is not correct. Designer is NOT a role in a formal review
d) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers

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15
Q

Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?
a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review
b) Answer any questions the participants may have
c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review
d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria

A

a) Is not correct. ‘Collection of metrics’ belongs to the main activity “Fixing
and Reporting”
b) Is not correct. ‘Answer any question.’ belongs to the main activity
“Initiate Review”
c) Is correct. The checking of entry criteria takes place in the planning of a
formal review
d) Is not correct. The evaluation of the review findings against the exit
criteria belongs to the main activity “Issue communication and analysis”

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16
Q

Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a
formal process based on rules and checklists?
a) Informal Review
b) Technical Review
c) Inspection
d) Walkthrough

A

a) Is not correct. Informal review does not use a formal process
b) Is not correct. Use of checklists are optional
c) Is correct. Inspection is a formal process based on rules and checklists
d) Is not correct. Does not explicitly require a formal process and the use
of checklists is optional

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17
Q

Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?
a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects
b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging
c) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle
d) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing
finds the defects better

A

a) Is correct. Defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than
defects detected later in the lifecycle
b) Is not correct. Dynamic testing still has its challenging because they find
other types of defects
c) Is not correct. This is dynamic testing
d) Is not correct. Static testing is important for safety-critical computer
systems

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18
Q

You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house
document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between
the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone.
You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the
following points:
i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?
In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the
checklist above:
“After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software
architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system
specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the
review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review
with an official review done-comment.”
Which of the following statements about your review is correct?
a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be
fulfilled to invite to the review
b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited.
Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment
c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as
completed
d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the
checklist for the invitation to the review

A

a) Is not correct. It is described that the software architect must have
completed the system specification
b) Is not correct. ‘Checklist-based’, last sentence it is documented that you
should also look for defects outside the checklist
c) Is not correct. It is described: every reviewer did his review done
comment
d) Is correct. It is

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19
Q

What is checklist-based testing?
a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester’s knowledge of past faults,
or general knowledge of failures
b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system
c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to
be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product
must be verified
d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on
their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests

A

a) Is not correct. This is error guessing
b) Is not correct. This is black-box test technique
c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers
d) Is not correct. This is exploratory testing

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20
Q

Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?
a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture
b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design
c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures
d) A technique based on formal requirements

A

a) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique
b) Is not correct. This is a white-box test technique
c) Is not correct. This is an experience-based test technique
d) Is correct. Black-box test techniques are based on an analysis of the
appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents,
specifications, use cases, user stories)

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21
Q

The following statement refers to decision coverage:
“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its
execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision
coverage.”
Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and
therefore 50% decision coverage
b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to
be either true or false
c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this
case
d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on
the tested software

A

a) Is not correct. While the given statement is true, the explanation is not.
The relationship between statement and decision coverage is
misrepresented
b) Is correct. Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if”
statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50%
decision coverage
c) Is not correct. A single test case can give more than 25% decision
coverage, this means according to the statement above always 50 %
decision coverage
d) Is not correct. The statement is specific and always true, because each
test case achieves 50 % decision coverage

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22
Q

Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?
a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed
b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been
executed
c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been
executed by test cases that are passed
d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not

A

a) Is not correct. Statement coverage measures the percentage of
statements exercised by test cases
b) Is correct. Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the
code. Statement coverage is measured as the number of statements
executed by the tests divided by the total number of executable
statements in the test object, normally expressed as a percentage
c) Is not correct. The coverage does not measure pass/fail
d) Is not correct. It is a metric and does not provide true/false statements

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23
Q

Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is
true?
a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage
b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage
c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage
d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%

A

a) Is correct. The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage
guarantees 100% statement coverage
b) Is not correct. The statement is false because achieving 100 %
statement coverage does not in any case mean that the decision
coverage is 100%
c) Is not correct. The statement is false because we can only do
statements about 100% values
d) Is not correct. The statement is false

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24
Q

For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?
a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified
b) When the system is developed incrementally, and no test charter is available
c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and
technologies
d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be if it
should be tested intensively

A

a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is not suitable to speed up tests,
which are already specified. It is most useful when there are few or
inappropriate specified requirements or significant time pressure on
testing
b) Is not correct. The absence of a test charter, which may have been
derived from the test analysis, is a poor precondition for the use of
exploratory testing
c) Is correct. Exploratory tests should be performed by experienced
testers with knowledge of similar applications and technologies
d) Is not correct. Explorative testing alone is not suitable to provide
evidence that the test was very intensive, instead the evidence is
provided in combination with other test methods

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25
Q

An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to
zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:
* Less than or equal to 2 years
* More than 2 years but less than 5 years
* 5 to 10 years inclusively
* Longer than 10 years
What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for
calculating the bonus?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 4

A

a) Is not correct. One too few (see the four correct partitions in the correct
answer)
b) Is not correct. One too much (see the four correct partitions in the
correct answer)
c) Is not correct. Two too few (see the four correct partitions in the correct
answer)
d) Is correct. The 4 equivalence partitions correspond to the description in
the question, i.e., at least one test case must be created for each
equivalence partition:
1. Equivalence partition: 0 ≤ employment time ≤ 2
2. Equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5
3. Equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time ≤ 10
4. Equivalence partition: 10 < employment time

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26
Q

A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:
* If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
* If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned.
* If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
* If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
* The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.
Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value
analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are selected?
a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60
b) 50, 55, 60
c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62
d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61

A

The following partitions can be identified:
1. <= 50, boundary value 50
2. 51 – 55 boundary values 51, 55
3. 56 – 60 boundary values 56, 60
4. >=61 boundary value 61
Boundary value according to glossary V.3.2: A minimum or maximum value
of an ordered equivalence partition.
Thus:
a) Is not correct. Does not include all necessary boundary values, but it
includes additional values: 0, 49, and 59, which are not boundary
values in this equivalence partition
b) Is not correct. Does not include all necessary boundary values. 51 and
55 are missing
c) Is not correct. Does not include necessary boundary values but it
includes additional values: 49, 62, and 54, which are not boundary
values in this equivalence partition
d) Is correct. includes all necessary boundary values

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27
Q

A company’s employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and
achieve a target which is individually agreed before.
These facts can be shown in a decision table:
Test-ID T1 T2 T3 T4
Condition1 Employment for
more than 1 year?
YES NO NO YES
Condition2 Agreed target? NO NO YES YES
Condition3 Achieved target? NO NO YES YES
Action Bonus payment NO NO NO YES
Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is missing
in the above decision table?
a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO
b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES
c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO
d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

A

a) Is not correct. If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to
reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario
happening in reality
b) Is not correct. The test case is objectively wrong, since under these
conditions no bonus is paid because the agreed target was not reached
c) Is not correct. There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to
reach the targets. Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario
happening in reality
d) Is correct. The test case describes the situation that the too short period
of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to nonpayment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is
missing in the decision table

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28
Q

Which of the following statements about the given state transition diagram and table of test cases
is TRUE?

Test Case 1 2 3 4 5
Start State S1 S2 S2 S3 S3
Input Power On Power Off RC On RC Off Power Off
Expected Final State S2 S1 S3 S2 S1
a) The given test cases cover both valid and invalid transitions in the state transition diagram
b) The given test cases represent all possible valid transitions in the state transition diagram
c) The given test cases represent some of the valid transitions in the state transition diagram
d) The given test cases represent pairs of transitions in the state transition diagram

A

Proposed test case covers all five possible single valid transitions in the
given state diagram (S1->S2, S2->S1, S2->S3, S3->S2, and S3->S1).
Thus:
a) Is not correct. Because no invalid transitions are covered
b) Is correct. Because all valid transitions are covered
c) Is not correct. Because all valid transitions are covered
d) Is not correct. Because the test cases do not have pairs of transitions
specified

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29
Q

A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on
the following display resolution:
1. 640x480
2. 1280x720
3. 1600x1200
4. 1920x1080
Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test
technique to test this requirement?
a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case)
b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2
test cases)
c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement
(4 test cases)
d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the
requirement (1 test case)

A

a) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer
b) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer
c) Is correct. This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration
of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by
itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning
test technique
d) Is not correct. See reason from correct answer

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30
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test
manager and the tester?
a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while
the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines
b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester
automates the tests
c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester
designs tests and decides on the release of the test object
d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the
tester executes the tests

A

a) Is not correct. Selection of tools is a test manager task
b) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers
c) Is not correct. The tester does not decide on the release of the test
object
d) Is not correct. The tester specifies the test cases, the test manager
does the prioritization

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31
Q

Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?
a) Percentage of executed test cases
b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution
c) Coverage of requirements by source code
d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed

A

a) Is correct. Test case execution (e.g., number of test cases run/not run,
and test cases passed/failed)
b) Is not correct. This metric can be measured, but its value is low. The
number of testers does not give any information about the quality of the
test object or test progress
c) Is not correct. the coverage of requirements by source code is not
measured during test execution. At most, the TEST(!) coverage of the
code or requirements is measured
d) Is not correct. This metric is part of test preparation and not test
execution

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32
Q

Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?
a) Budget limitations
b) Test log
c) Failure rate
d) Use cases

A

a) Is correct. Making decisions about what to test are documented in the
test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are
budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and
what should be omitted
b) Is not correct. Test monitoring and control
c) Is not correct. Common test metrics
d) Is not correct. It is a part of test analysis

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33
Q

Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?

a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness

c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness

d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost

A

a) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers
b) Is not correct. The “degree of tester’s independence” does not play a
role in exit criteria
c) Is not correct. “Availability of test environment” is an entry criterion
d) Is not correct. “The Qualification of Tester” is not a typical exit criterion

34
Q

Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing

b) Deviations from the test approach

c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria

d) Evaluation of the quality of the test object

A

a) Is correct. This information has been defined earlier in the test project
b) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: information
on what occurred during a test period
c) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report:
* Status of testing and product quality with respect to the exit
criteria or definition of done
* Metrics of defects, test cases, test coverage, activity progress,
and resource consumption
d) Is not correct. This information is included in a test report: Information
and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future
actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic
benefit of continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of
confidence in the tested software

35
Q

The project develops a “smart” heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were
modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat
uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.
The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:
1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy
saving regulation.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together
with external security experts.
What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test
plan?
a) Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse
b) Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive
c) Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative
d) Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical

A

The possible mappings of points 1 to 4 can be justified as follows:
1. Approach 3 is analytical: Risk-based testing is an example of an
analytical approach, where tests are designed and prioritized based
on the level of risk
2. Approach 2 is standard-compliant: The control algorithms is checked
against industry-specific standard of the energy saving regulation.
3. Approach 4 is consultative: This type of test strategy is driven
primarily by the advice, guidance, or instructions of stakeholders,
business domain experts, or technology experts, who may be
outside the test team or outside the organization itself
4. Approach 1 is reactive: Exploratory testing is a common technique
employed in reactive strategies, whereby the explorative testing is
assigned to the experience-based testing category
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

36
Q

Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?
a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project
b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers
c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team
d) Average of calculations collected from business experts

A

a) Is correct. The metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort
based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values
b) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks
based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts
c) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks
based on estimates made by the responsible team of the tasks or by
experts
d) Is not correct. This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks
based on estimates made by the owners of the tasks or by experts

37
Q

As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements:
* R1 - Process anomalies
* R2 - Synchronization
* R3 - Approval
* R4 - Problem solving
* R5 - Financial data
* R6 - Diagram data
* R7 - Changes to the user profile
Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A):
Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the
requirement dependencies?
a) R1 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6
b) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R4 ; R7 ; R5 ; R6
c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7
d) R1 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R3 ; R4 ; R7

A

a) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, so R2 should be tested before
R4
b) Is not correct. R4 is dependent on R2, R5 and R6, so R5 and R6 should
be tested before R4
c) Is correct. The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the
dependencies into account
d) Is not correct. R2 is dependent on R3, so R3 should be tested before
R2

38
Q

You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different
types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are
as follows:
* Coffee size (small, medium, large)
* Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
* Milk (yes or no)
* Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)
Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:
* Title: Low coffee temperature.
* Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is
too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
* Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
* Degree of risk: Medium
* Priority: Normal
What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?
a) The actual test results
b) Identification of the tested software version
c) Status of the defect
d) Ideas for improving the test case

A

a) Is not correct. The test result is given in the short summary
b) Is correct. When testing different versions of software, identifying
information is necessary
c) Is not correct. You are just writing the defect report; hence, the status is
automatically open
d) Is not correct. This information is useful for the tester but does not need
to be included in the defect report

39
Q

Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?
a) It is easy to create regression tests
b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets
c) It is easy to design tests for security testing
d) It is easy to run regression tests

A

a) Is not correct. The benefits are not when creating regressions tests,
more in executing them
b) Is not correct. This is done by configuration management tools
c) Is not correct. This needs specialized tools
d) Is correct. Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g., running regression
tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test
data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time

40
Q

Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?
a) Requirement management tools
b) Configuration management tools
c) Static analysis tools
d) Performance testing tools

A

a) Is not correct. Requirement management tools are not particularly
suitable for developers
b) Is not correct. Configuration management tools are not particularly
suitable for developers
c) Is correct. Static analysis tools are especially suitable for developers
d) Is not correct. Performance testing tools are not better suited for
developers than for testers

41
Q

When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected
behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

A

C

42
Q

Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

A

C

43
Q

IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

A

E

44
Q

Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

A

E

45
Q

Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for
only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

A

C

46
Q

Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

A

A

47
Q

Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

A

B

48
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

A

B

49
Q

Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

A

C

50
Q

What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

A

E

51
Q

Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

A

B

52
Q

Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test
cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

A

B

53
Q

Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

A

B

54
Q

Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

A

B

55
Q

Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the
television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

A

E

56
Q

The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

A

C

57
Q

When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

A

B

58
Q

What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

A

C

59
Q

Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

A

C

60
Q

Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

A

A

61
Q

Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

A

B

62
Q

The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

A

D

63
Q

Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is
false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

A

A

64
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

A

D

65
Q

A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

A

A

66
Q

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side
effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating
those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same
environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent
testers

A

A

67
Q

Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

A

D

68
Q

Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

A

C

69
Q

Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

A

A

70
Q

A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

A

D

71
Q

What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

A

A

72
Q

Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review
processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

A

B

73
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

A

E

74
Q

What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and
databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

A

A

75
Q

The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

A

a) standard for software lifecycle processes
b) glossary of software testing terms
c) software component testing standard
d) software and test documentation standard
e) software engineering terminology

76
Q

The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

A

B

77
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

A

D

78
Q

Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

A

D

79
Q

Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

A

C

80
Q

Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users

A

B