Foundations Exam #2 Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

What are the local signs of infection?

A

Redness, swelling, heat, pain, pus.

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2
Q

What are the systemic signs of infection?

A

Fever, chills, fatigue, elevated WBCs, malaise, increased HR/RR, confusion.

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3
Q

List risk factors for infection.

A
  • Age (very young/old)
  • Immunosuppression (chemo, HIV, steroids)
  • Chronic disease (diabetes, COPD)
  • Breaks in skin or mucosa
  • Invasive devices (catheters, IVs)
  • Surgery
  • Poor nutrition or hygiene
  • Crowded environments (hospitals, long-term care)
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4
Q

What subjective assessments should be made for infection?

A

Ask about fatigue, chills, localized pain, burning during urination, cough.

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5
Q

What objective assessments should be made for infection?

A

Inspect wounds/lines for redness, swelling, discharge; check temp trends; listen for abnormal lung sounds; labs: ↑ WBCs, positive cultures, ↑ CRP or ESR; monitor vitals.

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6
Q

Define medical asepsis.

A

Medical asepsis, or clean technique, involves procedures and practices that reduce the number and transfer of pathogens.

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7
Q

Define surgical asepsis.

A

Surgical asepsis, or sterile technique, includes practices used to render and keep objects and areas free from microorganisms.

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8
Q

What are the WHO’s 5 Moments of Hand Hygiene?

A
  • Before touching a patient
  • Before a clean or aseptic procedure
  • After a body fluid exposure risk
  • After touching a patient
  • After touching patient surroundings
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9
Q

What is the order for donning PPE?

A
  • Hand Hygiene
  • Gown
  • Mask or Respirator
  • Goggles or Face Shield
  • Gloves
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10
Q

What is the order for doffing PPE?

A
  • Gloves
  • Goggles or Face Shield
  • Gown
  • Mask or Respirator
  • Hand Hygiene
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11
Q

True or False: Standard Precautions apply to all patients, regardless of diagnosis.

A

True.

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12
Q

What are Transmission-Based Precautions (Tier 2)?

A
  • Contact
  • Droplet
  • Airborne
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13
Q

Give examples of pathogens requiring Contact Precautions.

A
  • Multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs)
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Noroviruses
  • GI tract pathogens
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14
Q

What are the manifestations of hypoxia in the early stages?

A
  • Tachypnea
  • Tachycardia
  • Restlessness, anxiety, confusion
  • Pale skin and mucous membranes
  • Elevated blood pressure
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15
Q

What are the late manifestations of hypoxia?

A
  • Cyanotic skin, mucous membranes
  • Bradypnea
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
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16
Q

What are the types of drains used in wound care?

A
  • Penrose Drain
  • Portable Wound Bulb Suction (Jackson-Pratt JP)
  • Hemovac
  • Negative Pressure Wound Vacuum
17
Q

What does the Braden Scale assess?

A

Rates a client’s risk for alterations in tissue integrity using 6 categories: sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction and shear.

18
Q

What is the purpose of enhanced barrier precautions?

A

To reduce the spread of multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs) in healthcare settings.

19
Q

What is the highest risk factor for developing a CAUTI?

A

Prolonged use of the urinary catheter.

20
Q

What are the complications of wound healing?

A
  • Infection
  • Hemorrhage
  • Hematoma
  • Fistula
  • Dehiscence
  • Evisceration
21
Q

What is gas exchange?

A

The process of oxygen entering the bloodstream and carbon dioxide exiting.

22
Q

What are the early signs of respiratory distress?

A
  • Increased work of breathing (WOB)
  • Coughing
  • Cyanosis
  • Orthopnea
  • Changes in respiratory rate or rhythm
23
Q

What are the nursing interventions to promote respiratory function?

A
  • Coughing and deep breathing
  • Incentive spirometry
  • Flutter valve
  • Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage
  • Suctioning
  • Breathing techniques
24
Q

What is the typical flow rate for a nasal cannula?

25
What are potential complications of oxygen delivery?
* Oxygen toxicity * Hypercapnia * Equipment-related issues like infections
26
List typical assessment findings for ostomy care.
* Initially large and swollen * Pink/reddish and shiny * Should not be dark red.
27
What is the definition of bowel elimination?
The process of excreting waste from the digestive tract
28
List the two main issues related to bowel elimination.
* Constipation * Diarrhea
29
What are the key components of nursing management for bowel elimination?
* Education * Ambulation/exercise * Diet and fluids * Medication * Medical management (digital removal, diagnostic radiographic evaluation, surgical correction, etc.)
30
What are the typical assessment findings for ostomy care?
* Initially large and swollen * Pink/reddish and shiny * Should not be dark red, black, or pale pink * Surrounding skin should be intact
31
What is urinary elimination?
The process of excreting waste from the urinary system
32
What is incontinence?
Uncontrollable use of the bladder
33
What are some interventions for managing incontinence?
* Indwelling catheter * Purwick * Condom catheter * Bed pan * Urinal devices
34
Fill in the blank: Nursing management for bowel elimination includes _______.
[Education, ambulation/exercise, diet and fluids, medication, medical management]
35
True or False: The surrounding skin of an ostomy should be intact.
True
36
What type of drainage is expected initially after ostomy placement?
Clear drainage
37
What should ostomy assessment findings not include?
* Dark red * Black * Pale pink
38
What is a critical concept in nursing care that supports elimination?
Application of clinical judgment to elimination concepts